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  • Applying SoapIgnore attribute doesn't take any effect to serialization result

    - by the_V
    I'm trying to figure out .NET serialization stuff and experiencing a problem. I've made a simple program to test it and got stuck with using attributes. Here's the code: [Serializable] public class SampleClass { [SoapIgnore] public Guid InstanceId { get; set; } } class Program { static void Main() { SampleClass cl = new SampleClass { InstanceId = Guid.NewGuid() }; SoapFormatter fm = new SoapFormatter(); using (FileStream stream = new FileStream(string.Format("C:\\Temp\\{0}.inv", Guid.NewGuid().ToString().Replace("-", "")), FileMode.Create)) { fm.Serialize(stream, cl); } } } The problem is that InstanceId is not ignored while serialization is done. What I get in .inv file is something like this: <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:clr="http://schemas.microsoft.com/soap/encoding/clr/1.0" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"> <SOAP-ENV:Body> <a1:SampleClass id="ref-1" xmlns:a1="http://schemas.microsoft.com/clr/nsassem/TestConsoleApp/TestConsoleApp%2C%20Version%3D1.0.0.0%2C%20Culture%3Dneutral%2C%20PublicKeyToken%3Dnull"> <_x003C_InstanceId_x003E_k__BackingField> <_a>769807168</_a> <_b>27055</_b> <_c>16408</_c> <_d>141</_d> <_e>210</_e> <_f>171</_f> <_g>30</_g> <_h>252</_h> <_i>196</_i> <_j>246</_j> <_k>159</_k> </_x003C_InstanceId_x003E_k__BackingField> </a1:SampleClass> </SOAP-ENV:Body> </SOAP-ENV:Envelope> As I can understand from documentation InstanceId property is not supposed to be serialized since SoapIgnore attribute is applied to it. Am I missing something?

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  • YASR - Yet another search and replace question

    - by petronius31
    Environment: asp.net c# openxml Ok, so I've been reading a ton of snippets and trying to recreate the wheel, but I'm hoping that somone can help me get to my desination faster. I have multiple documents that I need to merge together... check... I'm able to do that with openxml sdk. Birds are singing, sun is shining so far. Now that I have the document the way I want it, I need to search and replace text and/or content controls. I've tried using my own text - {replace this} but when I look at the xml (rename docx to zip and view the file), the { is nowhere near the text. So I either need to know how to protect that within the doucment so they don't diverge or I need to find another way to search and replace. I'm able to search/replace if it is an xml file, but then I'm back to not being able to combine the doucments easily. Code below... and as I mentioned... document merge works fine... just need to replace stuff. protected void exeProcessTheDoc(object sender, EventArgs e) { string doc1 = Server.MapPath("~/Templates/doc1.docx"); string doc2 = Server.MapPath("~/Templates/doc2.docx"); string final_doc = Server.MapPath("~/Templates/extFinal.docx"); File.Delete(final_doc); File.Copy(doc1, final_doc); using (WordprocessingDocument myDoc = WordprocessingDocument.Open(final_doc, true)) { string altChunkId = "AltChunkId2"; MainDocumentPart mainPart = myDoc.MainDocumentPart; AlternativeFormatImportPart chunk = mainPart.AddAlternativeFormatImportPart( AlternativeFormatImportPartType.WordprocessingML, altChunkId); using (FileStream fileStream = File.Open(doc2, FileMode.Open)) chunk.FeedData(fileStream); AltChunk altChunk = new AltChunk(); altChunk.Id = altChunkId; mainPart.Document.Body.InsertAfter(altChunk, mainPart.Document.Body.Elements<Paragraph>().Last()); mainPart.Document.Save(); } exeSearchReplace(final_doc); } protected void exeSearchReplace(string document) { using (WordprocessingDocument wordDoc = WordprocessingDocument.Open(document, true)) { string docText = null; using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(wordDoc.MainDocumentPart. GetStream())) { docText = sr.ReadToEnd(); } Regex regexText = new Regex("acvtClientName"); docText = regexText.Replace(docText, "Hi Everyone!"); using (StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(wordDoc.MainDocumentPart.GetStream(FileMode.Create))) { sw.Write(docText); } } } } }

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  • Dynamic Objects for ASPxGridview

    - by André Snede Hansen
    I have a dictionary that is populated with data from a table, we are doing this so we can hold multiple SQL tables inside this object. This approached cannot be discussed. The Dictionary is mapped as a , and contains SQL column name and the value, and each dictionary resembles one row entry in the Table. Now I need to display this on a editable gridview, preferably the ASPxGridView. I already figured out that I should use Dynamic Objects(C#), and everything worked perfectly, up to the part where I find out that the ASPxGridview is built in .NET 2.0 and not 4.0 where Dynamic objects where implemented, therefor I cannot use it... As you cannot, to my knowledge, add rows to the gridview programmatically, I am out of ideas, and seek your help guys! protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { UserValidationTableDataProvider uvtDataprovider = _DALFactory.getProvider<UserValidationTableDataProvider>(typeof(UserValidationTableEntry)); string[] tableNames = uvtDataprovider.TableNames; UserValidationTableEntry[] entries = uvtDataprovider.getAllrecordsFromTable(tableNames[0]); userValidtionTableGridView.Columns.Clear(); Dictionary<string, string> firstEntry = entries[0].Values; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, string> kvp in firstEntry) { userValidtionTableGridView.Columns.Add(new GridViewDataColumn(kvp.Key)); } var dynamicObjectList = new List<dynamic>(); foreach (UserValidationTableEntry uvt in entries) { //dynamic dynObject = new MyDynamicObject(uvt.Values); dynamicObjectList.Add(new MyDynamicObject(uvt.Values)); } } public class MyDynamicObject : DynamicObject { Dictionary<string, string> properties = new Dictionary<string, string>(); public MyDynamicObject(Dictionary<string, string> dictio) { properties = dictio; } // If you try to get a value of a property // not defined in the class, this method is called. public override bool TryGetMember(GetMemberBinder binder, out object result) { // Converting the property name to lowercase // so that property names become case-insensitive. string name = binder.Name.ToLower(); string RResult; // If the property name is found in a dictionary, // set the result parameter to the property value and return true. // Otherwise, return false. bool wasSuccesfull = properties.TryGetValue(name, out RResult); result = RResult; return wasSuccesfull; } // If you try to set a value of a property that is // not defined in the class, this method is called. public override bool TrySetMember(SetMemberBinder binder, object value) { // Converting the property name to lowercase // so that property names become case-insensitive. properties[binder.Name.ToLower()] = value.ToString(); // You can always add a value to a dictionary, // so this method always returns true. return true; } } Now, I am almost certain that his "Dynamic object" approach, is not the one I can go with from here on. I hope you guys can help me :)!

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  • How would a php or java client authenticate if I'm using WCF w/ forms auth?

    - by Toran Billups
    I have a generic proof of concept WCF service that is using forms authentication to secure access. All works great when my client is .NET (vb code below) Dim client As SupplierServiceClient = New SupplierServiceClient() client.ClientCredentials.UserName.UserName = "[email protected]" client.ClientCredentials.UserName.Password = "password" Dim SupplierList As List(Of Supplier) = client.GetSuppliers() but as I want this to interop w/ anyone who can do SOAP 1.1/1.2 - how would a PHP or Java client connect? My WCF web.config is listed below (fyi) <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.SupplierService" behaviorConfiguration="NorthwindBehavior"> <endpoint address="" name="wsHttpSupplierService" contract="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.ISupplierService" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="wsHttp"/> <endpoint address="https://server/SampleApplicationWCF/SupplierService.svc/Basic" name="basicHttpSupplierService" contract="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.ISupplierService" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="basicHttp"/> <endpoint contract="IMetadataExchange" binding="mexHttpBinding" address="mex"/> </service> </services> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="wsHttp"> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <transport/> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" negotiateServiceCredential="false" establishSecurityContext="true"/> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="basicHttp"> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <transport/> <message clientCredentialType="UserName"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="NorthwindBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceAuthorization principalPermissionMode="UseAspNetRoles"/> <serviceCredentials> <userNameAuthentication userNamePasswordValidationMode="MembershipProvider"/> </serviceCredentials> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel>

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  • Data Access Layer - static list objects and caching

    - by Truegilly
    Hello, i am devloping a site using .net MVC i have a data access layer which basically consists of static list objects that are created from data within my database. The method that rebuilds this data first clears all the list objects. Once they are empty it then add the data. Here is an example of one of the lists im using. its a method which generates all the UK postcodes. there are about 50 methods similar to this in my application that return all sorts of information, such as towns, regions, members, emails etc. public static List<PostCode> AllPostCodes = new List<PostCode>(); when the rebuild method is called it first clears the list. ListPostCodes.AllPostCodes.Clear(); next it re-bulilds the data, by calling the GetAllPostCodes() method /// <summary> /// static method that returns all the UK postcodes /// </summary> public static void GetAllPostCodes() { using (fab_dataContextDataContext db = new fab_dataContextDataContext()) { IQueryable AllPostcodeData = from data in db.PostCodeTables select data; IDbCommand cmd = db.GetCommand(AllPostcodeData); SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); adapter.SelectCommand = (SqlCommand)cmd; DataSet dataSet = new DataSet(); cmd.Connection.Open(); adapter.FillSchema(dataSet, SchemaType.Source); adapter.Fill(dataSet); cmd.Connection.Close(); // crete the objects foreach (DataRow row in dataSet.Tables[0].Rows) { PostCode postcode = new PostCode(); postcode.ID = Convert.ToInt32(row["PostcodeID"]); postcode.Outcode = row["OutCode"].ToString(); postcode.Latitude = Convert.ToDouble(row["Latitude"]); postcode.Longitude = Convert.ToDouble(row["Longitude"]); postcode.TownID = Convert.ToInt32(row["TownID"]); AllPostCodes.Add(postcode); postcode = null; } } } The rebuild occurs every 1 hour. this ensures that every 1 hour the site will have fresh set of cached data. the issue ive got is that occasionally if during a rebuild, the server will be hit by a request and an exception is thrown. The exception is "Index was outside the bounds of the array." it is due to when a list is being cleared. ListPostCodes.AllPostCodes.Clear(); - // throws exception - although its not always in regard to this list. Once this exception is thrown application dies, All users are affected. I have to restart the server to fix it. i have 2 questions... If i utilise caching instead of static objects would this help ? Is there any way i can say "while the rebuild is taking place, wait for it to complete until accepting requests" any help is most appricaiated ;) truegilly

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  • Should we denormalize database to improve performance?

    - by Groo
    We have a requirement to store 500 measurements per second, coming from several devices. Each measurement consists of a timestamp, a quantity type, and several vector values. Right now there is 8 vector values per measurement, and we may consider this number to be constant for needs of our prototype project. We are using HNibernate. Tests are done in SQLite (disk file db, not in-memory), but production will probably be MsSQL. Our Measurement entity class is the one that holds a single measurement, and looks like this: public class Measurement { public virtual Guid Id { get; private set; } public virtual Device Device { get; private set; } public virtual Timestamp Timestamp { get; private set; } public virtual IList<VectorValue> Vectors { get; private set; } } Vector values are stored in a separate table, so that each of them references its parent measurement through a foreign key. We have done a couple of things to ensure that generated SQL is (reasonably) efficient: we are using Guid.Comb for generating IDs, we are flushing around 500 items in a single transaction, ADO.Net batch size is set to 100 (I think SQLIte does not support batch updates? But it might be useful later). The problem Right now we can insert 150-200 measurements per second (which is not fast enough, although this is SQLite we are talking about). Looking at the generated SQL, we can see that in a single transaction we insert (as expected): 1 timestamp 1 measurement 8 vector values which means that we are actually doing 10x more single table inserts: 1500-2000 per second. If we placed everything (all 8 vector values and the timestamp) into the measurement table (adding 9 dedicated columns), it seems that we could increase our insert speed up to 10 times. Switching to SQL server will improve performance, but we would like to know if there might be a way to avoid unnecessary performance costs related to the way database is organized right now. [Edit] With in-memory SQLite I get around 350 items/sec (3500 single table inserts), which I believe is about as good as it gets with NHibernate (taking this post for reference: http://ayende.com/Blog/archive/2009/08/22/nhibernate-perf-tricks.aspx). But I might as well switch to SQL server and stop assuming things, right? I will update my post as soon as I test it.

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  • JQuery validation not working for checkbox group

    - by Chris Halcrow
    I'm having trouble getting JQuery validation to work with a set of checkboxes. I'm generating the checkboxes using an ASP.NET checkboxlist, and I've used JQuery to set the 'name' attribute to the same thing for each checkbox in the list. Here's the code that gets written to the browser. I'm setting the 'validate' attribute on the 1st checkbox to set the rule that at least one checkbox must be selected. The JQuery validation works for all other elements on the form, but not for the checkbox list. I'm also using a JQuery form wizard on the page which triggers validation for each 'page' of the form, so I don't have control over how the validation is called. <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Famine" name="hello[]" validate="required:true, minlength:1"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0">Famine</label> <br> <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Events Volunteer" name="hello[]"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1">Events Volunteer</label> Any ideas on what's going wrong? There are lots of examples of JQuery scripts that will do the validation, however I'm trying to avoid this as I'm generating the checkboxlist server side by a custom control so that it can be re-used across different pages that may or may not have JQuery enabled. I'm trying to enable the JQuery validation whilst being as unobtrusive as possible, so that pages will still work even if JQuery is disabled. Here are the relevant JQuery inclusions and JQuery initialisation script for the form wizard. I'm not using any initialisation code for JQuery validation: <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/bbq.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.wizard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#form1").formwizard({ validationEnabled: true, focusFirstInput: true }); }); </script>

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  • How to catch 'exceptions' for out of order execution in Workflow Foundation 4?

    - by Alex Key
    Hi, I am attempting to model a worklfow using a "WCF Workflow Service" in .net / vs 2010 that needs to handle out of order execution gracefully (but not allow it - if thath makes sense!?) For example I have 2 receive activities one called Initialize and the other called GetValue inside a FlowChart. In most cases Initialize should be called first and GetValue after (as modled in the flow chart). However if GetValue is executed before Initialize I do not want to return an "out of order" exception (although when I look at the WCF test client, I can't actually see an exception). But instead a custom exception saying something like "you must initialize first". In theory I could model this with lots of parallel activities and conditions to check if Initialized / Running / Terminated etc. But the business process I am modelling if very very similar to a state machine... except it must handle people executing things in the wrong order. Ideally I would like to catch the "out of order" exception (thought I don't think it's really an exception as such), check the 'exception' to see which function was attempted to run and then handle it. I have done some research around enabling AllowBufferedReceive. However I don't want to be able to execute out of order (I don't think), but instead give a detailed response if it does happen. I've looked at the new beta state machine template for WF 4 - but i'm not sure if it does what i'm after? I'm not sure if I have the wrong end of the stick, so any help would be greatly appreciated. [EDIT] To help clarify... Sorry it's a tricky one to explain. The standard I am trying to implement (the e-learning standard SCORM RTE) is structured like a state machine i.e. certain functions can only be executed in certain states. However the standard specifies that if the calling clients tries to execute a function that it is not meant to, then a warning should be issued... for example "you cannot use GetValue(), because you have not yet Initialized". Ideally I'd like to structure the workflow as the theoretical state machine and not need to have to use multiple if/else's to handle all the scenarios where something could be executed out-of-order. I'd like to catch a out-of-order exception (but I don't think there is such an exception - as it's not in the debugger) and rethrow it.

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  • How to keep multiple connectionString passwords safe, separate, and easy to deploy?

    - by Funka
    I know there are plenty of questions here already about this topic (I've read through as many as I could find), but I haven't yet been able to figure out how best to satisfy my particular criteria. Here are the goals: The ASP.NET application will run on a few different web servers, including localhost workstations for development. This means encrypting web.config using a machine key is out. The application will decide which connection string to use based on the server name (using a switch statement). For example, "localhost" and "dev.example.com" will use the DevDatabaseConnectionString, "test.example.com" will use the TestDatabaseConnectionString, and "www.example.com" will use the ProdDatabaseConnectionString, for example. Ideally, the exact same executables and web.config should be able to run on any of these environments, without needing to tailor or configure each environment separately every time that we deploy (something that seems like it would be easy to forget/mess up one day during a deployment, which is why we moved away from having just one connectionstring that has to be changed on each target). Deployment is currently accomplished via FTP. We will not have command-line access to the production web server. This means using aspnet_regiis.exe is out. (I could run on localhost, however, if this would still work.) We would prefer to not have to recompile the application whenever a password changes, so using web.config (or db.config or whatever) seems to make the most sense. A developer should not be able to decrypt the production database password. If a developer checks the source code out onto their localhost laptop (which would determine that it should be using the DevDatabaseConnectionString, remember?) and the laptop gets lost or stolen, it should not be possible to get at the other connection strings. Thus, having a single RSA private key to un-encrypt all three passwords cannot be considered. (Contrary to #3 above, it does seem like we'd need to have three separate key files if we went this route; these could be installed once per machine, and should the wrong key file get deployed to the wrong server, the worst that should happen is that the app can't decrypt anything---and not allow the wrong host to access the wrong database!) I know this is probably a subjective question (asking for a "best" way to do something), but given the criteria I've mentioned, I'm hoping that a single best answer will indeed arise. Thank you!

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  • CSS Collapsing/Hiding divs with no data in <span>

    - by Chance
    I am trying to display an address which includes the following information: Title, division, address1, address2, town/state/zip, and country (5 seperate lines worth of data). The problem is sometimes the company may only have the title, address1, and town/state/zip yet other times it may be all but address2. This is determined upon a db record request server side. Therefore how can I make my output look proper when some of my labels will be blank? I would like div's that contain an empty span to be essentially collapsed/removed. My only idea of how was to use jquery and a selector to find all divs with blank spans (since thats all an asp.net label really is) and then remove those divs however this seems like such bad form. Is there any way to do this with css? Possible Code would be something like: $('span:empty:only-child').parent('div').remove(); Picture Examples (Ignore spacing/indentation issues which I will fix) Missing Division, Address2, and Country All Possible Fields The Html <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddressHeader" CssClass="lblBillingAddressHeader" Text="Billing Address:" /> <div style="position:relative; top:150px; left: 113px;"> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingDivision" CssClass="lblBillingShippingDivisionFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress2" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress3" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress4" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> </div> The CSS .test { position: relative; top: 0px; left: 0px; height: 12px; width: 300px; } .lblBillingShippingDivisionFont { font-size: small; font-weight: bold; } .lblBillingShippingFont { font-size: 10.6px; }

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  • [Flex 4 and .Net] Retrieving tables from SQL database

    - by mG
    Hi everyone, As the title says, I want to retrieve tables of data from a SQL database, using Flex 4 and .Net WebService. I'm new to both Flex and DotNet. Please tell me a proper way to do it. This is what I've done so far: Retrieving an array of string: (this works) .Net: [WebMethod] public String[] getTestArray() { String[] arStr = { "AAA", "BBB", "CCC", "DDD" }; return arStr; } Flex 4: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="955" minHeight="600"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; import mx.controls.Alert; import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; [Bindable] private var ac:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection(); protected function btn_clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):void { ws.getTestArray(); } protected function ws_resultHandler(event:ResultEvent):void { ac = event.result as ArrayCollection; Alert.show(ac.toString()); } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <s:WebService id="ws" wsdl="http://localhost:50582/Service1.asmx?WSDL" result="ws_resultHandler(event)"/> </fx:Declarations> <s:Button x="10" y="30" label="Button" id="btn" click="btn_clickHandler(event)"/> </s:Application> Retrieving a DataTable: (this does not work) DotNet: [WebMethod] public DataTable getUsers() { DataTable dt = new DataTable("Users"); SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection("server = 192.168.1.50; database = MyDatabase; user id = sa; password = 1234; integrated security = false"); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter("select vFName, vLName, vEmail from Users", conn); da.Fill(dt); return dt; } Flex 4: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="955" minHeight="600"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; import mx.controls.Alert; import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; [Bindable] private var ac:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection(); protected function btn_clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):void { ws.getUsers(); } protected function ws_resultHandler(event:ResultEvent):void { ac = event.result as ArrayCollection; Alert.show(ac.toString()); } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <s:WebService id="ws" wsdl="http://localhost:50582/Service1.asmx?WSDL" result="ws_resultHandler(event)"/> </fx:Declarations> <s:Button x="10" y="30" label="Button" id="btn" click="btn_clickHandler(event)"/> </s:Application>

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  • What is the best way get and hold property reference by name in c#

    - by Jeff Weber
    I want to know if there is a better way (than what I'm currently doing) to obtain and hold a reference to a property in another object using only the object and property string names. Particularly, is there a better way to do this with the new dynamic functionality of .Net 4.0? Here is what I have right now. I have a "PropertyReference<T>" object that takes an object name and property name in the constructor. An Initialize() method uses reflection to find the object and property and stores the property Getter as an Action<T> and the property Setter as an Func<T>. When I want to actually call the property I do something like this: int x = _propertyReference.Get(); or _propertyReference.Set(2); Here is my PropertyReference<T> code. Please dissect and make suggestions for improvement. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Reflection; using System.Xml; namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public class PropertyReference<T> : IPropertyReference { public string ComponentName { get; set; } public string PropertyName { get; set; } public bool IsInitialized { get { return (_action != null && _func != null); } } Action<T> _action; Func<T> _func; public PropertyReference() { } public PropertyReference(string componentName, string propertyName) { ComponentName = componentName; PropertyName = propertyName; } public void Initialize(IEntity e) { Object component = e.GetByName(ComponentName); if (component == null) return; Type t = e.GetByName(ComponentName).GetType(); PropertyInfo pi = t.GetProperty(PropertyName); _action = (T a) => pi.SetValue(component, a, null); _func = () => (T)pi.GetValue(component, null); } public void Reset() { _action = null; _func = null; } public void Set(T value) { _action.Invoke(value); } public T Get() { return _func(); } } } Note: I can't use the "Emit" functionality as I need this code to work on the new Windows Phone 7 and that does not support Emit.

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  • On Redirect - Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server...

    - by Craig Russell
    Hello (this is a long post sorry), I am writing a application in ASP.NET MVC 2 and I have reached a point where I am receiving this error when I connect remotely to my Server. Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to failure in retrieving the user's local application data path. Please make sure the user has a local user profile on the computer. The connection will be closed. I thought I had worked around this problem locally, as I was getting this error in debug when site was redirected to a baseUrl if a subdomain was invalid using this code: protected override void Initialize(RequestContext requestContext) { string[] host = requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); _siteProvider.Initialise(host, LiveMeet.Properties.Settings.Default["baseUrl"].ToString()); base.Initialize(requestContext); } protected override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { if (Site == null) { string[] host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); string newUrl; if (host.Length == 2) newUrl = "http://sample.local:" + host[1]; else newUrl = "http://sample.local"; Response.Redirect(newUrl, true); } ViewData["Site"] = Site; base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } public Site Site { get { return _siteProvider.GetCurrentSite(); } } The Site object is returned from a Provider named siteProvider, this does two checks, once against a database containing a list of all available subdomains, then if that fails to find a valid subdomain, or valid domain name, searches a memory cache of reserved domains, if that doesn't hit then returns a baseUrl where all invalid domains are redirected. locally this worked when I added the true to Response.Redirect, assuming a halting of the current execution and restarting the execution on the browser redirect. What I have found in the stack trace is that the error is thrown on the second attempt to access the database. #region ISiteProvider Members public void Initialise(string[] host, string basehost) { if (host[0].Contains(basehost)) host = host[0].Split('.'); Site getSite = GetSites().WithDomain(host[0]); if (getSite == null) { sites.TryGetValue(host[0], out getSite); } _site = getSite; } public Site GetCurrentSite() { return _site; } public IQueryable<Site> GetSites() { return from p in _repository.groupDomains select new Site { Host = p.domainName, GroupGuid = (Guid)p.groupGuid, IsSubDomain = p.isSubdomain }; } #endregion The Linq query ^^^ is hit first, with a filter of WithDomain, the error isn't thrown till the WithDomain filter is attempted. In summary: The error is hit after the page is redirected, so the first iteration is executing as expected (so permissions on the database are correct, user profiles etc) shortly after the redirect when it filters the database query for the possible domain/subdomain of current redirected page, it errors out.

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  • User created Validator wont call Client side validation Javascript on 'complex' user control.

    Hi All, I have created a user control (from System.Web.UI.UserControl), and created my own validator for the user control (from System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseValidator). Everything works ok until I try to get the user control to do client side validation. While trying to debug this issue I have set 'Control to Validate' to a text box instead of the custom user control, and the client side script works fine! It appears to me that it has an a issue with my composite user control I have created. Has anyone encountered this issue before? Has anyone else seen client side validation fail on custom user controls? Some extra info : The composite control is a drop down list and 'loader image', as it is a ajax enabled drop down list (using ICallbackEventHandler). I know that the client side javascript is being written to the page, and have placed an alert('random message') as the first line in the validator function that only appears if it is validating a text box (i.e. not when it is validating my custom control) Language : C# (ASP.NET 2.0) and jQuery 1.2.6 in aspx file : <rms:UserDDL ID="ddlUserTypes" runat="server" PreLoad="true" /> <rms:DDLValidator ID="userTypesVal" ControlToValidate="ddlUserTypes" ErrorMessage="You have not selected a UserType" runat="server" Text="You have not selected a UserType" Display="Dynamic" EnableClientScript="true" /> in validator code behind protected string ScriptBlock { get { string nl = System.Environment.NewLine; return "<script type=\"text/javascript\">" + nl + " function " + ScriptBlockFunctionName + "(ctrl)" + nl + " {" + nl + " alert('Random message'); " + nl + " var selVal = $('#' + ctrl.controltovalidate).val(); " + nl + " alert(selVal);" + nl + " if (selVal === '-1') return false; " + nl + " return false; " + nl + " }" + nl + "</script>"; } } protected override void OnPreRender(EventArgs e) { if (this.DetermineRenderUplevel() && this.EnableClientScript) { Page.ClientScript.RegisterExpandoAttribute(this.ClientID, "evaluationfunction", this.ScriptBlockFunctionName); Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(GetType(), this.ScriptBlockKey, this.ScriptBlock); } base.OnPreRender(e); } I know my ControlPropertiesValid() and EvaluateIsValid() work ok. I appreciate any help on this issue. Noel.

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  • usercontrol hosted in IE renders as a textbox

    - by coxymla
    On my ongoing saga to mirror the hosting of a legacy app on a clean box, I've hit my next snag. One page relies on a big .NET UserControl that on the new machine renders only as a big, greyed out textarea (greyed out vertical scrollbar on the right hand edge. Inspecting the source shows the expected object tag.) This is particularly tricky because nobody seems to know much about hosted UserControls and all the discussions data back to 2002-2004. The page is quite simple: <%@ Page language="c#" Codebehind="DataExport.aspx.cs" AutoEventWireup="false" Inherits="yyyyy.Web.DataExport" %> <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN" > <html> <head> <title>DataExport</title> <link rel="Configuration" href="/xxxxx/yyyyy/DataExport.config"> </head> <body style="margin:0px;padding:0px;overflow:hidden"> <OBJECT id="DataExport" style="WIDTH: 100%; HEIGHT: 100%; position:absolute; left: 0px; top:0px" classid="yyyyy.Common.dll#yyyyy.Controls.DataExport" VIEWASTEXT> </OBJECT> </body> </html> The config file referenced: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <sectionGroup name="yyyyy"> <section name="dataExport" type="yyyyy.Controls.DataExportSectionHandler,yyyyy.Common" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <yyyyy> <dataExport> <layoutFile>http://vm2/xxxxx/yyyyy/layout.xml</layoutFile> <webServiceUrl>http://vm2/xxxxx/yyyyy/services/yyyyy.asmx</webServiceUrl> </dataExport> </yyyyy> </configuration> What I've checked: Security permissions should be OK, the site is trusted and adding a URL exception to grant FullTrust doesn't change anything. Config file is acessible over the web, layout.xml is accessible, ASMX shows the expected command list Machine.config grants GET permission for the usercontrol.config file. What perhaps looks fishy to me: The DataExport UserControl references Aspose.Excel to generate the spreadsheets it exports. When I navigate to the page and get a blank textbox, then run gacutil /ldl, nothing is in the local download cache. On the working machine, running the same command after viewing the page shows a laundry list of DLLs including the control DLL and the Aspose DLL.

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  • MVC Entity Framework Model not returning correct data

    - by quagland
    Hi, Run into a strange problem while writing an ASP.NET MVC site. I have a view in my SQL Server database that returns a few date ranges. The view works fine when running the query in SSMS. When the view data is returned by the Entity Framework Model, It returns the correct number of rows but some of the rows are duplicated. Here is an example of what I have done: SQL Server code: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[A]( [ID] [int] NOT NULL, [PhID] [int] NULL, [FromDate] [datetime] NULL, [ToDate] [datetime] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_A] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ([ID] ASC)) ON [PRIMARY] go CREATE TABLE [dbo].[B]( [PhID] [int] NOT NULL, [FromDate] [datetime] NULL, [ToDate] [datetime] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_B] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [PhID] ASC )) ON [PRIMARY] go CREATE VIEW C as SELECT A.ID, CASE WHEN A.PhID IS NULL THEN A.FromDate ELSE B.FromDate END AS FromDate, CASE WHEN A.PhID IS NULL THEN A.ToDate ELSE B.ToDate END AS ToDate FROM A LEFT OUTER JOIN B ON A.PhID = B.PhID go INSERT INTO B (PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (100, '20100615', '20100715') INSERT INTO A (ID, PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (1, NULL, '20100101', '20100201') INSERT INTO A (ID, PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (1, 100, '20100615', '20100715') INSERT INTO B (PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (101, '20101201', '20101231') INSERT INTO A (ID, PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (2, NULL, '20100801', '20100901') INSERT INTO A (ID, PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (2, 101, '20101201', '20101231') So now, if you select all from C, you get 4 separate date ranges In the Entity Framework Model (which I call 'Core'), the view 'C' is added. in MVC Controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { CoreEntities db = new CoreEntities(); var clist = from c in db.C select c; return View(clist.ToList()); } } in MVC View: @model List<RM.Models.C> @{ foreach (RM.Models.C c in Model) { @String.Format("{0:dd-MMM-yyyy}", c.FromDate) <span>-</span> @String.Format("{0:dd-MMM-yyyy}", c.ToDate) <br /> } } When I run all this, it outputs this: 01-Jan-2010 - 01-Feb-2010 01-Jan-2010 - 01-Feb-2010 01-Aug-2010 - 01-Sep-2010 01-Aug-2010 - 01-Sep-2010 When it should do this (this is what the view returns): 01-Jan-2010 - 01-Feb-2010 15-Jun-2010 - 15-Jul-2010 01-Aug-2010 - 01-Sep-2010 01-Dec-2010 - 31-Dec-2010 Also, I've run the SQL profiler over it and according to that, the query being executed is: SELECT [Extent1].[ID] AS [ID], [Extent1].[FromDate] AS [FromDate], [Extent1].[ToDate] AS [ToDate] FROM (SELECT [C].[ID] AS [ID], [C].[FromDate] AS [FromDate], [C].[ToDate] AS [ToDate] FROM [dbo].[C] AS [C]) AS [Extent1] Which returns the correct data So it seems that the entity framework is doing something to the data in the meantime. To me, everything looks fine! Have I missed something? Cheers, Ben

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  • How to fine tune FluentNHibernate's auto mapper?

    - by Venemo
    Okay, so yesterday I managed to get the latest trunk builds of NHibernate and FluentNHibernate to work with my latest little project. (I'm working on a bug tracking application.) I created a nice data access layer using the Repository pattern. I decided that my entities are nothing special, and also that with the current maturity of ORMs, I don't want to hand-craft the database. So, I chose to use FluentNHibernate's auto mapping feature with NHibernate's "hbm2ddl.auto" property set to "create". It really works like a charm. I put the NHibernate configuration in my app domain's config file, set it up, and started playing with it. (For the time being, I created some unit tests only.) It created all tables in the database, and everything I need for it. It even mapped my many-to-many relationships correctly. However, there are a few small glitches: All of the columns created in the DB allow null. I understand that it can't predict which properties should allow null and which shouldn't, but at least I'd like to tell it that it should allow null only for those types for which null makes sense in .NET (eg. non-nullable value types shouldn't allow null). All of the nvarchar and varbinary columns it created, have a default length of 255. I would prefer to have them on max instead of that. Is there a way to tell the auto mapper about the two simple rules above? If the answer is no, will it work correctly if I modify the tables it created? (So, if I set some columns not to allow null, and change the allowed length for some other, will it correctly work with them?) EDIT: I managed to achieve the above by using Fluent NHibernate's convention API. Thanks to everyone who helped! However, there is one more thing: after checking out the convention API, I really would like my IDs to be calld "ID", not "Id", but it seems to me that the PrimaryKey.Name.Is(x => "ID") is not working at all. If I add it to the conventions collection and rewrite my entities' properties to "ID" instead of "Id", it throws an exception that there is no primary key mapped. Any thoughts on this?

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  • youtube - video upload failure - unable to convert file - encoding the video wrong?

    - by Anthony
    I am using .NET to create a video uploading application. Although it's communicating with YouTube and uploading the file, the processing of that file fails. YouTube gives me the error message, "Upload failed (unable to convert video file)." This supposedly means that "your video is in a format that our converters don't recognize..." I have made attempts with two different videos, both of which upload and process fine when I do it manually. So I suspect that my code is a.) not encoding the video properly and/or b.) not sending my API request properly. Below is how I am constructing my API PUT request and encoding the video: Any suggestions on what the error could be would be appreciated. Thanks P.S. I'm not using the client library because my application will use the resumable upload feature. Thus, I am manually constructing my API requests. Documentation: http://code.google.com/intl/ja/apis/youtube/2.0/developers_guide_protocol_resumable_uploads.html#Uploading_the_Video_File Code: // new PUT request for sending video WebRequest putRequest = WebRequest.Create(uploadURL); // set properties putRequest.Method = "PUT"; putRequest.ContentType = getMIME(file); //the MIME type of the uploaded video file //encode video byte[] videoInBytes = encodeVideo(file); public static byte[] encodeVideo(string video) { try { byte[] fileInBytes = File.ReadAllBytes(video); Console.WriteLine("\nSize of byte array containing " + video + ": " + fileInBytes.Length); return fileInBytes; } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine("\nException: " + e.Message + "\nReturning an empty byte array"); byte [] empty = new byte[0]; return empty; } }//encodeVideo //encode custom headers in a byte array byte[] PUTbytes = encode(putRequest.Headers.ToString()); public static byte[] encode(string headers) { ASCIIEncoding encoding = new ASCIIEncoding(); byte[] bytes = encoding.GetBytes(headers); return bytes; }//encode //entire request contains headers + binary video data putRequest.ContentLength = PUTbytes.Length + videoInBytes.Length; //send request - correct? sendRequest(putRequest, PUTbytes); sendRequest(putRequest, videoInBytes); public static void sendRequest(WebRequest request, byte[] encoding) { Stream stream = request.GetRequestStream(); // The GetRequestStream method returns a stream to use to send data for the HttpWebRequest. try { stream.Write(encoding, 0, encoding.Length); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine("\nException writing stream: " + e.Message); } }//sendRequest

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  • Large File Download - Connection With Server Reset

    - by daveywc
    I have an asp.net website that allows the user to download largish files - 30mb to about 60mb. Sometimes the download works fine but often it fails at some varying point before the download finishes with the message saying that the connection with the server was reset. Originally I was simply using Server.TransmitFile but after reading up a bit I am now using the code posted below. I am also setting the Server.ScriptTimeout value to 3600 in the Page_Init event. private void DownloadFile(string fname, bool forceDownload) { string path = MapPath(fname); string name = Path.GetFileName(path); string ext = Path.GetExtension(path); string type = ""; // set known types based on file extension if (ext != null) { switch (ext.ToLower()) { case ".mp3": type = "audio/mpeg"; break; case ".htm": case ".html": type = "text/HTML"; break; case ".txt": type = "text/plain"; break; case ".doc": case ".rtf": type = "Application/msword"; break; } } if (forceDownload) { Response.AppendHeader("content-disposition", "attachment; filename=" + name.Replace(" ", "_")); } if (type != "") { Response.ContentType = type; } else { Response.ContentType = "application/x-msdownload"; } System.IO.Stream iStream = null; // Buffer to read 10K bytes in chunk: byte[] buffer = new Byte[10000]; // Length of the file: int length; // Total bytes to read: long dataToRead; try { // Open the file. iStream = new System.IO.FileStream(path, System.IO.FileMode.Open, System.IO.FileAccess.Read, System.IO.FileShare.Read); // Total bytes to read: dataToRead = iStream.Length; //Response.ContentType = "application/octet-stream"; //Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=" + filename); // Read the bytes. while (dataToRead > 0) { // Verify that the client is connected. if (Response.IsClientConnected) { // Read the data in buffer. length = iStream.Read(buffer, 0, 10000); // Write the data to the current output stream. Response.OutputStream.Write(buffer, 0, length); // Flush the data to the HTML output. Response.Flush(); buffer = new Byte[10000]; dataToRead = dataToRead - length; } else { //prevent infinite loop if user disconnects dataToRead = -1; } } } catch (Exception ex) { // Trap the error, if any. Response.Write("Error : " + ex.Message); } finally { if (iStream != null) { //Close the file. iStream.Close(); } Response.Close(); } }

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  • HttpWebRequest possibly slowing website

    - by Steven Smith
    Using Visual studio 2012, C#.net 4.5 , SQL Server 2008, Feefo, Nopcommerce Hey guys I have Recently implemented a new review service into a current site we have. When the change went live the first day all worked fine. Since then though the sending of sales to Feefo hasnt been working, There are no logs either of anything going wrong. In the OrderProcessingService.cs in Nop Commerce's Service, i call a HttpWebrequest when an order has been confirmed as completed. Here is the code. var email = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.Email.ToString()); var name = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.GetFullName().ToString()); var description = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription != null ? productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription.ToString() : "product"); var orderRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Id.ToString()); var productLink = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(string.Format("myurl/p/{0}/{1}", productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId, productVariant.ProductVariant.Name.Replace(" ", "-"))); string itemRef = ""; try { itemRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId.ToString()); } catch { itemRef = "0"; } var url = string.Format("feefo Url", login, password,email,name,description,orderRef,productLink,itemRef); var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(url); request.KeepAlive = false; request.Timeout = 5000; request.Proxy = null; using (var response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse()) { if (response.StatusDescription == "OK") { var stream = response.GetResponseStream(); if(stream != null) { using (var reader = new StreamReader(stream)) { var content = reader.ReadToEnd(); } } } } So as you can see its a simple webrequest that is processed on an order, and all product variants are sent to feefo. Now: this hasnt been happening all week since the 15th (day of the implementation) the site has been grinding to a halt recently. The stream and reader in the the var content is there for debugging. Im wondering does the code redflag anything to you that could relate to the process of website? Also note i have run some SQL statements to see if there is any deadlocks or large escalations, so far seems fine, Logs have also been fine just the usual logging of Bots. Any help would be much appreciated! EDIT: also note that this code is in a method that is called and wrapped in A try catch UPDATE: well forget about the "not sending", thats because i was just told my code was rolled back last week

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  • A better UPDATE method in LINQ to SQL

    - by Refracted Paladin
    The below is a typical, for me, Update method in L2S. I am still fairly new to a lot of this(L2S & business app development) but this just FEELs wrong. Like there MUST be a smarter way of doing this. Unfortunately, I am having trouble visualizing it and am hoping someone can provide an example or point me in the right direction. To take a stab in the dark, would I have a Person Object that has all these fields as Properties? Then what, though? Is that redundant since L2S already mapped my Person Table to a Class? Is this just 'how it goes', that you eventually end up passing 30 parameters(or MORE) to an UPDATE statement at some point? For reference, this is a business app using C#, WinForms, .Net 3.5, and L2S over SQL 2005 Standard. Here is a typical Update Call for me. This is in a file(BLLConnect.cs) with other CRUD methods. Connect is the name of the DB that holds tblPerson When a user clicks save() this is what is eventually called with all of these fields having, potentially, been updated-- public static void UpdatePerson(int personID, string userID, string titleID, string firstName, string middleName, string lastName, string suffixID, string ssn, char gender, DateTime? birthDate, DateTime? deathDate, string driversLicenseNumber, string driversLicenseStateID, string primaryRaceID, string secondaryRaceID, bool hispanicOrigin, bool citizenFlag, bool veteranFlag, short ? residencyCountyID, short? responsibilityCountyID, string emailAddress, string maritalStatusID) { using (var context = ConnectDataContext.Create()) { var personToUpdate = (from person in context.tblPersons where person.PersonID == personID select person).Single(); personToUpdate.TitleID = titleID; personToUpdate.FirstName = firstName; personToUpdate.MiddleName = middleName; personToUpdate.LastName = lastName; personToUpdate.SuffixID = suffixID; personToUpdate.SSN = ssn; personToUpdate.Gender = gender; personToUpdate.BirthDate = birthDate; personToUpdate.DeathDate = deathDate; personToUpdate.DriversLicenseNumber = driversLicenseNumber; personToUpdate.DriversLicenseStateID = driversLicenseStateID; personToUpdate.PrimaryRaceID = primaryRaceID; personToUpdate.SecondaryRaceID = secondaryRaceID; personToUpdate.HispanicOriginFlag = hispanicOrigin; personToUpdate.CitizenFlag = citizenFlag; personToUpdate.VeteranFlag = veteranFlag; personToUpdate.ResidencyCountyID = residencyCountyID; personToUpdate.ResponsibilityCountyID = responsibilityCountyID; personToUpdate.EmailAddress = emailAddress; personToUpdate.MaritalStatusID = maritalStatusID; personToUpdate.UpdateUserID = userID; personToUpdate.UpdateDateTime = DateTime.Now; context.SubmitChanges(); } }

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  • Navigation bar(s) disappear when the window gets too small

    - by Leron
    The title maybe is a little misleading but I'm not 100% sure how this effect is called. I'm pretty sure what I meant is that my navigation bar is disappearing instead of collapsing. However my set up is this - I am working on the Layout view of ASP.NET MVC 4 project. I'm using bootstrap 3x but also have included jQuery libs so my <head> part is like this: @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/bootstrap.min.js") @Styles.Render("~/Content/bootstrap.css") @Styles.Render("~/Content/themes/base/jquery.ui.smoothness.css") @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/jquery-2.0.3.min.js") @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.10.3.min.js") //just skipped the standard stuff In the body I want to have two navbars and one side menu which will be the same for all my pages but I've noticed that when I start to narrow the window at some point instead of getting an effect similar to this example (noticed how the elements get repositioned) I just got both my navbars gone, I can't see them. The markup for my first navbar is this : <div class="navbar navbar-static-top navbar-inverse navbar-collapse collapse" role="navigation"> <ul class="nav navbar-nav "> <li><a href="#">Info</a></li> <li><a href="#">Info</a></li> </ul> </div> and the second one is : <div class="navbar navbar-collapse collapse" role="navigation" id="main-navigation-bar"> <ul class="nav nav-pills nav-justified"> <li style="border: 1px solid grey"><a href="#">Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link</a></li> </ul> In fact the only thing left in my _Layout body is this: <div class="container-fluid"> @RenderBody() </div> which is just for compiling purposes and renders this view : <p>1</p> <p>2</p> <p>3</p> <p>4</p> <p>5</p> So when I make the window small enough so that my navbars disappear the only thing left is 1..5 numbers from the rendered view. I tested with only one navbar (commented the other) - no matter which one is commented, when I narrow the window I loose the navbar. How can I keep them using bootstrap 3x?

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  • How to perform duplicate key validation using entlib (or DataAnnotations), MVC, and Repository pattern

    - by olivehour
    I have a set of ASP.NET 4 projects that culminate in an MVC (3 RC2) app. The solution uses Unity and EntLib Validation for cross-cutting dependency injection and validation. Both are working great for injecting repository and service layer implementations. However, I can't figure out how to do duplicate key validation. For example, when a user registers, we want to make sure they don't pick a UserID that someone else is already using. For this type of validation, the validating object must have a repository reference... or some other way to get an IQueryable / IEnumerable reference to check against other rows already in the DB. What I have is a UserMetadata class that has all of the property setters and getters for a user, along with all of the appropriate DataAnnotations and EntLib Validation attributes. There is also a UserEntity class implemented using EF4 POCO Entity Generator templates. The UserEntity depends on UserMetadata, because it has a MetadataTypeAttribute. I also have a UserViewModel class that has the same exact MetadataType attribute. This way, I can apply the same validation rules, via attributes, to both the entity and viewmodel. There are no concrete references to the Repository classes whatsoever. All repositories are injected using Unity. There is also a service layer that gets dependency injection. In the MVC project, service layer implementation classes are injected into the Controller classes (the controller classes only contain service layer interface references). Unity then injects the Repository implementations into the service layer classes (service classes also only contain interface references). I've experimented with the DataAnnotations CustomValidationAttribute in the metadata class. The problem with this is the validation method must be static, and the method cannot instantiate a repository implementation directly. My repository interface is IRepository, and I have only one single repository implementation class defined as EntityRepository for all domain objects. To instantiate a repository explicitly I would need to say new EntityRepository(), which would result in a circular dependency graph: UserMetadata [depends on] DuplicateUserIDValidator [depends on] UserEntity [depends on] UserMetadata. I've also tried creating a custom EntLib Validator along with a custom validation attribute. Here I don't have the same problem with a static method. I think I could get this to work if I could just figure out how to make Unity inject my EntityRepository into the validator class... which I can't. Right now, all of the validation code is in my Metadata class library, since that's where the custom validation attribute would go. Any ideas on how to perform validations that need to check against the current repository state? Can Unity be used to inject a dependency into a lower-layer class library?

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  • Parallel programming in C#

    - by Alxandr
    I'm interested in learning about parallel programming in C#.NET (not like everything there is to know, but the basics and maybe some good-practices), therefore I've decided to reprogram an old program of mine which is called ImageSyncer. ImageSyncer is a really simple program, all it does is to scan trough a folder and find all files ending with .jpg, then it calculates the new position of the files based on the date they were taken (parsing of xif-data, or whatever it's called). After a location has been generated the program checks for any existing files at that location, and if one exist it looks at the last write-time of both the file to copy, and the file "in its way". If those are equal the file is skipped. If not a md5 checksum of both files is created and matched. If there is no match the file to be copied is given a new location to be copied to (for instance, if it was to be copied to "C:\test.jpg" it's copied to "C:\test(1).jpg" instead). The result of this operation is populated into a queue of a struct-type that contains two strings, the original file and the position to copy it to. Then that queue is iterated over untill it is empty and the files are copied. In other words there are 4 operations: 1. Scan directory for jpegs 2. Parse files for xif and generate copy-location 3. Check for file existence and if needed generate new path 4. Copy files And so I want to rewrite this program to make it paralell and be able to perform several of the operations at the same time, and I was wondering what the best way to achieve that would be. I've came up with two different models I can think of, but neither one of them might be any good at all. The first one is to parallelize the 4 steps of the old program, so that when step one is to be executed it's done on several threads, and when the entire of step 1 is finished step 2 is began. The other one (which I find more interesting because I have no idea of how to do that) is to create a sort of worker and consumer model, so when a thread is finished with step 1 another one takes over and performs step 2 at that object (or something like that). But as said, I don't know if any of these are any good solutions. Also, I don't know much about parallel programming at all. I know how to make a thread, and how to make it perform a function taking in an object as its only parameter, and I've also used the BackgroundWorker-class on one occasion, but I'm not that familiar with any of them. Any input would be appreciated.

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  • Why doesn't TextBlock databinding call ToString() on a property whose compile-time type is an interf

    - by Jay
    This started with weird behaviour that I thought was tied to my implementation of ToString(), and I asked this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2916068/why-wont-wpf-databindings-show-text-when-tostring-has-a-collaborating-object It turns out to have nothing to do with collaborators and is reproducible. When I bind Label.Content to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is called on the runtime object and the label displays the result. When I bind TextBlock.Text to the same property, ToString() is never called and nothing is displayed. But, if I change the declared property to a concrete implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Is this somehow by design? If so, any idea why? To reproduce: Create a new WPF Application (.NET 3.5 SP1) Add the following classes: public interface IFoo { string foo_part1 { get; set; } string foo_part2 { get; set; } } public class Foo : IFoo { public string foo_part1 { get; set; } public string foo_part2 { get; set; } public override string ToString() { return foo_part1 + " - " + foo_part2; } } public class Bar { public IFoo foo { get { return new Foo {foo_part1 = "first", foo_part2 = "second"}; } } } Set the XAML of Window1 to: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <Label Content="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> </StackPanel> </Window> in Window1.xaml.cs: public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = new Bar(); } } When you run this application, you'll see the text only once (at the top, in the label). If you change the type of foo property on Bar class to Foo (instead of IFoo) and run the application again, you'll see the text in both controls.

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