finite state machine - Page 911

Are .NET's regular expressions Turing complete?

- by Robert

Regular expressions are often pointed to as the classical example of a language that is not Turning complete. For example "regular expressions" is given in as the answer to this SO question looking for languages that are not Turing complete. In my, perhaps somewhat basic, understanding of the notion of Turning completeness, this means that regular expressions cannot be used check for patterns that are "balanced". Balanced meaning have an equal number of opening characters as closing characters. This is because to do this would require you to have some kind of state, to allow you to match the opening and closing characters. However the .NET implementation of regular expressions introduces the notion of a balanced group. This construct is designed to let you backtrack and see if a previous group was matched. This means that a .NET regular expressions: ^(?<p>a)*(?<-p>b)*(?(p)(?!))$ Could match a pattern that: ab aabb aaabbb aaaabbbb ... etc. ... Does this means .NET's regular expressions are Turing complete? Or are there other things that are missing that would be required for the language to be Turing complete?

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How can I determine when an InnoDB table was last changed?

- by David M

I've had success in the past storing the (heavily) processed results of a database query in memcached, using the last update time of the underlying tables(s) as part of the cache key. For MyISAM tables, that last changed time is available in SHOW TABLE STATUS. Unfortunately, that's usually NULL for InnoDB tables. In MySQL 4.1, the ctime for an InnoDB in its SHOW TABLE STATUS line was usually its actual last update time, but that doesn't seem to be true for MySQL 5.1. There is a DATETIME field in the table, but it only shows when a row has been modified - it cannot show the deletion time of a row that's not there anymore! So, I really cannot use MAX(update_time). Here's the really tricky part. I have a number of replicas that I do reads from. Can I figure out the state of the table that doesn't rely on when the changes have actually been applied? My conclusion after working on this for a while is that it's not going to be possible to get this information as cheaply as I'd like. I'm probably going to cache data until the time that I expect the table to change (it's updated once a day), and let the query cache help out where it can.

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Best implementation of Java Queue?

- by Georges Oates Larsen

I am working (In java) on a recursive image processing algorithm that recursively traverses the pixels of the image, outward from a center point. Unfortunately... That causes stack overflows, so I have decided to switch to a Queue-based algorithm. Now, this is all fine and dandy -- But considering the fact that its queue will be analyzing THOUSANDS of pixels in a very short amount of time, while constantly popping and pushing, WITHOUT maintaining a predictable state (It could be anywhere between length 100, and 20000); The queue implementation needs to have significantly fast popping and pushing abilities. A linked list seems attractive due to its ability to push elements unto its self without rearranging anything else in the list, but in order for it to be fast enough, it would need easy access to both its head, AND its tail (or second-to-last node if it were not doubly-linked). Sadly, though I cannot find any information related to the underlying implementation of linked lists in Java, so it's hard to say if a linked list is really the way to go... This brings me to my question... What would be the best implementation of the Queue interface in Java for what I intend to do? (I do not wish to edit or even access anything other than the head and tail of the queue -- I do not wish to do any sort of rearranging, or anything. On the flip side, I DO intend to do a lot of pushing and popping, and the queue will be changing size quite a bit, so preallocating would be inefficient)

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Where clause on joined table used for user defined key/value pairs

- by Steve Wright

Our application allows administrators to add “User Properties” in order for them to be able to tailor the system to match their own HR systems. For example, if your company has departments, you can define “Departments” in the Properties table and then add values that correspond to “Departments” such as “Jewelry”, “Electronics” etc… You are then able to assign a department to users. Here is the schema: In this schema, a User can have only one UserPropertyValue per Property, but doesn’t have to have a value for the property. I am trying to build a query that will be used in SSRS 2005 and also have it use the PropertyValues as the filter for users. My query looks like this: SELECT UserLogin, FirstName, LastName FROM Users U LEFT OUTER JOIN UserPropertyValues UPV ON U.ID = UPV.UserID WHERE UPV.PropertyValueID IN (1, 5) When I run this, if the user has ANY of the property values, they are returned. What I would like to have is where this query will return users that have values BY PROPERTY. So if PropertyValueID = 1 is of Department (Jewelry), and PropertyValueID = 5 is of EmploymentType (Full Time), I want to return all users that are in Department Jewelry that are EmployeeType of Full Time, can this be done? Here's a full data example: User A has Department(Jewelry value = 1) and EmploymentType(FullTime value = 5)User B has Department(Electronics value = 2) and EmploymentType(FullTime value = 5)User C has Department(Jewelry value = 1) and EmployementType(PartTime value = 6) My query should only return User A using the above query UPDATE: I should state that this query is used as a dataset in SSRS, so the parameter passed to the query will be @PropertyIDs and it is defined as a multi-value parameter in SSRS. WHERE UPV.PropertyValueID IN (@PropertyIDs)

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flex 4 release changes to application are not showing up.

- by guacamoly

I just took over a clients flex project and I can't get the app to reflect even a simple trace statement. Before I took over, the project was last successfully built using the Flash Builder Beta 2 environment/sdk. I have the latest release version of Flash Builder 4. Upon importing the project into FB4, I got a ton of errors. Most of them mostly because of the changes made to the sdk from beta2 to release. Some of the things I corrected: - mx namespace from library://ns.adobe.com/flex/halo to library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx - video player skinning: a lot of the state names for the video player component had been changed, more required states had been added. also there were other video related component and property names that had to be updated. But I fixed all that and the application was finally able to compile (although with some warnings mostly of the duplicate variable type) The only thing now is that whatever change I make to the project doesn't get reflected in the build (debug or release). I changed existing traces, added additional traces. Nothing shows up. I even removed the applicationComplete property in the main.mxml. Everything still ran like nothing changed. Also I can't seem to debug the app. Whenever I try to debug.. flash builder says.. "Swf Application doesn't contain the required debugging information ... " Anyone have any idea how I need to even begin tackling all this? Any help or pointers would be greatly appreciated.

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How to hide div serverside by reading cookie

- by user338109

I am using following a tutorial from here: http://www.shopdev.co.uk/blog/cookies-with-jquery-designing-collapsible-layouts/ This is the script I use: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(function() { // SETUP: // When the info banner is clicked: $('#setup').click(function() { $('#intro').css("display","none"); $.cookie('intro', 'collapsed'); }); // COOKIES // Info banner state var intro = $.cookie('intro'); // READ THE COOKIES if (intro == 'collapsed') { $('#intro').css("display","none"); }; }); </script> The script hides the following div as the cookie is read: <div class="feedback attention" id="intro"> Text goes here <a id="setup" href="#">Ok I get it, please hide this</a> </div> Everything work great but when the page loads the div is shown for a split second. I guess the solution is to present two different pieces of markup serverside according to the cookie info. I have no idea how to go about this.

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webpart context.session is null

- by tbischel

I've been using the session array to store a state variable for my webpart... so I have a property like this: public INode RootNode { get { return this.Context.Session["RootNode"] as INode; } set { this.Context.Session["RootNode"] = value as object; } } This usually works fine. I've discovered that sometimes, the context.session variable will be null. I'd like to know what are the conditions that cause the session to be null in the first place, and whats the best way to persist my object when this happens? Can I just assign a new HttpSessionState object to the context, or does that screw things up? Edit: Ok, so its not just the session that is null... the whole context is screwed up. When the webpart enters the init, the context is fine... but when it reaches the dropbox selectedindexchange postback event (the dropbox contains node id's to use to set the rootnode variable), the context contains mostly null properties. also, it only seems to happen when certain id's are selected. This looks more like some kind of weird bug on my end than a problem with my understanding of the session.

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Jquery automatic loading gif and button disable on submit click

- by JK

Is it possible to automate the showing/hiding of a ajax loading gif, and the disabling/enabling of the submit button at the same time? (when the submit button is a styled not a input type=submit) Currently when submitting I do this: $("#save_button_id").click(function () { if ($('#save_button_id').hasClass('ui-state-disabled')) return false; Save(); }); function Save() { StartAjax($("#save_button_id")); $.ajax({ success: function (data) { EndAjax($("#save_button_id")); // etc... }, error: function (xhr, status, error) { EndAjax($("#save_button_id")); // etc ... } }); } function StartAjax(button) { DisableButtonClick(button); $("#ajaxLoad").show(); } function EndAjax(button) { EnableButtonClick(button); $("#ajaxLoad").hide(); } I've seen a few places talk about how to use .ajaxStart() to automatically show the loading gif, but is it possible to also find a reference to the button (a styled tag) that was clicked, and automatically disable/enable that as well? The point of this is to not have to manually type in Start/EndAjax every time, and to make sure the app is consistent everywhere.

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how to update a table in c# using oledb parameters?

- by sameer

I am having a table which has three fields, namely LM_code,M_Name,Desc. LC_code is a autogenerated string Id, keeping this i am updating M_Name and Desc. I used normal update command, the value is passing in runtime but the fields are not getting updated. I hope using oledb parameters the fileds can be updated. Any help will be appreciated... Here is my code. public void Modify() { String query = "Update Master_Accounts set (M_Name='" + M_Name + "',Desc='" + Desc + "') where LM_code='" + LM_code + "'"; DataManager.RunExecuteNonQuery(ConnectionString.Constr, query); } In DataManager Class i am executing the query string. public static void RunExecuteNonQuery(string Constr, string query) { OleDbConnection myConnection = new OleDbConnection(Constr); try { myConnection.Open(); OleDbCommand myCommand = new OleDbCommand(query, myConnection); myCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception ex) { string Message = ex.Message; throw ex; } finally { if (myConnection.State == ConnectionState.Open) myConnection.Close(); } } private void toolstModify_Click_1(object sender, EventArgs e) { txtamcode.Enabled = true; jewellery.LM_code = txtamcode.Text; jewellery.M_Name = txtaccname.Text; jewellery.Desc = txtdesc.Text; jewellery.Modify(); MessageBox.Show("Data Updated Succesfully"); }

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Slow query. Wrong database structure?

- by Tin

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Passing models between controllers in MVC4

- by wtfsven

I'm in the middle of my first foray into web development with MVC4, and I've run into a problem that I just know is one of the core issues in web development in general, but can't seem to wrap my mind around it. So I have two models: Employee and Company. Employee has a Company, therefore /Employee/Create contains a field that is either a dropdown list for selecting an existing Company, or an ActionLink to /Company/Create if none exists. But here's the issue: If a user has to create a Company, I need to preserve the existing Employee model across both Views--over to /Company/Create, then back to /Employee/Create. So my first approach was to pass the Employee model to /Company/Create with a @Html.ActionLink("Add...", "Create", "Organization", Model , null), but then when I get to Company's Create(Employee emp), all of emp's values are null. The second problem is that if I try to come back to /Employee/Create, I'd be passing back an Employee, which would resolve to the POST Action. Basically, the whole idea is to save the state of the /Employee/Create page, jump over to /Company/Create to create a Company record, then back to /Employee/Create to finish creating the Employee. I know there is a well understood solution to this because , but I can't seem to phase it well enough to get a good Google result out of it. I've though about using Session, but it seems like doing so would be a bit of a kludge. I'd really like an elegant solution to this.

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How to populate a dropdownlist with json data in jquery?

- by Pandiya Chendur

I am developing a country state cascading dropdown list... I returned json result based on countryId but i dont know how to populate/fill it in a new dropdown listbox... Here is what i am using, function getstate(countryId) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Reg_Form.aspx/Getstates", data: "{'countryId':" + (countryId) + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", global: false, async: false, dataType: "json", success: function(jsonObj) { alert(jsonObj.d); } }); return false; } And alert gave this, {"Table" : [{"stateid" : "2","statename" : "Tamilnadu"}, {"stateid" : "3","statename" : "Karnataka"}, {"stateid" : "4","statename" : "Andaman and Nicobar"}, {"stateid" : "5","statename" : "Andhra Pradesh"}, {"stateid" : "6","statename" : "Arunachal Pradesh"}]} And my aspx page has this is, <td> <asp:DropDownList ID="DLCountry" runat="server" CssClass="dropDownListSkin" onchange="return getstate(this.value);"> </asp:DropDownList> </td> <td> <asp:DropDownList ID="DLState" runat="server" CssClass="dropDownListSkin"> </asp:DropDownList> </td> Any suggestion how to fill it DLState dropdown...

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How is timezone handled in the lifecycle of an ADO.NET + SQL Server DateTime column?

- by stimpy77

Using SQL Server 2008. This is a really junior question and I could really use some elaborate information, but the information on Google seems to dance around the topic quite a bit and it would be nice if there was some detailed elaboration on how this works... Let's say I have a datetime column and in ADO.NET I set it to DateTime.UtcNow. 1) Does SQL Server store DateTime.UtcNow accordingly, or does it offset it again based on the timezone of where the server is installed, and then return it offset-reversed when queried? I think I know that the answer is "of course it stores it without offsetting it again" but want to be certain. So then I query for it and cast it from, say, an IDataReader column to a DateTime. As far as I know, System.DateTime has metadata that internally tracks whether it is a UTC DateTime or it is an offsetted DateTime, which may or may not cause .ToLocalTime() and .ToUniversalTime() to have different behavior depending on this state. So, 2) Does this casted System.DateTime object already know that it is a UTC DateTime instance, or does it assume that it has been offset? Now let's say I don't use UtcNow, I use DateTime.Now, when performing an ADO.NET INSERT or UPDATE. 3) Does ADO.NET pass the offset to SQL Server and does SQL Server store DateTime.Now with the offset metadata? So then I query for it and cast it from, say, an IDataReader column to a DateTime. 4) Does this casted System.DateTime object already know that it is an offset time, or does it assume that it is UTC?

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what is the relation between SIGTSTP and SIGCHLD

- by Rawhi

I have tow handlers for each one of them (SIGTSTP, SIGCHLD), the thing is that when I pause a process using SIGTSTP the handler function of SIGCHLD run too. what should I do to prevent this . void ExeExternal(char *args[MAX_ARG], char* cmdString, LIST_ELEMENT** pList, int *Susp_Bg_Pid, int *susp) { int pID, status, w; switch (pID = fork()) { case -1: perror("smash error: >"); break; case 0: // Child Process setpgrp(); execv(args[0], args); execvp(args[0], args); perror("error"); exit(EXIT_FAILURE); break; default: if (cmdString[strlen(cmdString) - 1] != '&') { *Susp_Bg_Pid = pID; *susp = 1; while(*susp); } else { InsertElem(pList, args[0], getpid(), pID, 0); } break; } } signal handlers : void signalHandler(int signal) { int pid, cstatus; if (signal == SIGCHLD) { susp = 0; pid = waitpid(-1, &cstatus, WNOHANG); printf("[[child %d terminated]]\n", pid); DelPID(&JobsList, pid); } } void ctrlZsignal(int signal){ kill(Susp_Bg_Pid, SIGTSTP); susp = 0; printf("\nchild %d suspended\n", Susp_Bg_Pid); } Susp_Bg_Pid used to save the paused process id. susp indicates the state of the "smash" the parent process if it is suspended or not .

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Finding What You Need in R: function arguments/parameters from outside the function's package

- by doug

Often in R, there are a dozen functions scattered across as many packages--all of which have the same purpose but of course differ in accuracy, performance, theoretical rigor, and so on. How do you gather all of these in one place before you start your task? So for instance: the generic plot function. Setting secondary ticks is much easier (IMHO) using a function outside of the base package, minor.tick(nx=n, ny=n, tick.ratio=n), found in Hmisc. Of course, that doesn't show up in plot's docstring. Likewise, the data-input arguments to 'plot' can be supplied by an object returned from the function 'hexbin', again, from a library outside of the base installation (where 'plot' resides). What would be great obviously is a programmatic way to gather these function arguments from the various libraries and put them in a single namespace. edit: (trying to re-state my example just above more clearly:) the arguments to plot supplied in the base package for, e.g., setting the axis tick frequency are xaxp/yaxp; however, one can also set a/t/f via a function outside of the base package, again, as in the minor.tick function from the Hmisc package--but you wouldn't know that just from looking at the plot method signature. Is there a meta function in R for this? So far, as i come across them, i've been manually gathering them in a TextMate 'snippet' (along with the attendant library imports). This isn't that difficult or time consuming, but i can only update my snippet as i find out about these additional arguments/parameters. Is there a canonical R way to do this, or at least an easier way? Just in case that wasn't clear, i am not talking about the case where multiple packages provide functions directed to the same statistic or view (e.g., 'boxplot' in the base package; 'boxplot.matrix' in gplots; and 'bplots' in Rlab). What i am talking is the case in which the function name is the same across two or more packages.

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Modules vs. Classes and their influence on descendants of ActiveRecord::Base

- by Chris

Here's a Ruby OO head scratcher for ya, brought about by this Rails scenario: class Product < ActiveRecord::Base has_many(:prices) # define private helper methods end module PrintProduct attr_accessor(:isbn) # override methods in ActiveRecord::Base end class Book < Product include PrintProduct end Product is the base class of all products. Books are kept in the products table via STI. The PrintProduct module brings some common behavior and state to descendants of Product. Book is used inside fields_for blocks in views. This works for me, but I found some odd behavior: After form submission, inside my controller, if I call a method on a book that is defined in PrintProduct, and that method calls a helper method defined in Product, which in turn calls the prices method defined by has_many, I'll get an error complaining that Book#prices is not found. Why is that? Book is a direct descendant of Product! More interesting is the following.. As I developed this hierarchy PrintProduct started to become more of an abstract ActiveRecord::Base, so I thought it prudent to redefine everything as such: class Product < ActiveRecord::Base end class PrintProduct < Product end class Book < PrintProduct end All method definitions, etc. are the same. In this case, however, my web form won't load because the attributes defined by attr_accessor (which are "virtual attributes" referenced by the form but not persisted in the DB) aren't found. I'll get an error saying that there is no method Book#isbn. Why is that?? I can't see a reason why the attr_accessor attributes are not found inside my form's fields_for block when PrintProduct is a class, but they are found when PrintProduct is a Module. Any insight would be appreciated. I'm dying to know why these errors are occurring!

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Building "isolated" and "automatically updated" caches (java.util.List) in Java.

- by Aidos

Hi Guys, I am trying to write a framework which contains a lot of short-lived caches created from a long-living cache. These short-lived caches need to be able to return their entier contents, which is a clone from the original long-living cache. Effectively what I am trying to build is a level of transaction isolation for the short-lived caches. The user should be able to modify the contents of the short-lived cache, but changes to the long-living cache should not be propogated through (there is also a case where the changes should be pushed through, depending on the Cache type). I will do my best to try and explain: master-cache contains: [A,B,C,D,E,F] temporary-cache created with state [A,B,C,D,E,F] 1) temporary-cache adds item G: [A,B,C,D,E,F] 2) temporary-cache removes item B: [A,C,D,E,F] master-cache contains: [A,B,C,D,E,F] 3) master-cache adds items [X,Y,Z]: [A,B,C,D,E,F,X,Y,Z] temporary-cache contains: [A,C,D,E,F] Things get even harder when the values in the items can change and shouldn't always be updated (so I can't even share the underlying object instances, I need to use clones). I have implemented the simple approach of just creating a new instance of the List using the standard Collection constructor on ArrayList, however when you get out to about 200,000 items the system just runs out of memory. I know the value of 200,000 is excessive to iterate, but I am trying to stress my code a bit. I had thought that it might be able to somehow "proxy" the list, so the temporary-cache uses the master-cache, and stores all of it's changes (effectively a Memento for the change), however that quickly becomes a nightmare when you want to iterate the temporary-cache, or retrieve an item at a specific index. Also given that I want some modifications to the contents of the list to come through (depending on the type of the temporary-cache, whether it is "auto-update" or not) and I get completly out of my depth. Any pointers to techniques or data-structures or just general concepts to try and research will be greatly appreciated. Cheers, Aidos

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CoreData is saving model without the save: method being called

- by chris

I have a list of items with a plus button in the navigation bar that opens up a modal window containing a table of the models attributes, that displays a form when the table items are clicked (pretty standard form style). For some reason if I click the plus button to open the form to create a new model, then immediately click the done button, the person model is saved. The action linked to the done button does nothing but call on a delegate method notifying the personListViewController to close the window. The apple docs do state that the model is not saved after calling the insertNewObjectForEntityName: ... Simply creating a managed object does not cause it to be saved to a persistent store. The managed object context acts as a scratchpad. I am at a lost to why this is happening, but every time I click the done button I have a new blank item in the original tableView. I am using SDK v3.1.3 // PersonListViewController - open modal window - (void)addPerson { // Load the new form PersonNewViewController *newController = [[PersonNewViewController alloc] init]; newController.modalFormDelegate = self; [self presentModalViewController:newController animated:YES]; [newController release]; } // PersonFormViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; if ( person == nil ) { MyAppDelegate *appDelegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; self.person = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Person" inManagedObjectContext:appDelegate.managedObjectContext]; } ... UIBarButtonItem *doneButton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(done)]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = doneButton; [doneButton release]; } - (IBAction) done { [self.modalFormDelegate didCancel]; } // delegate method in the original listViewController - (void) didCancel { [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; }

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IE7/IE8 javascript drop down menu used to redirect not working

- by Robbiegod

The error I see from IE7/IE8 in Jquery v1.7.2 and v.1.7.1 - i tried both: SCRIPT438: Object doesn't support property or method 'apply' My Code: <form> <select id="stateD" OnChange="showState()"> <option value="none" selected="selected">==========</option> <option value="http://www.google.com">google</option> <option value="http://www.yahoo.com">Yahoo</option> </select> </form> My Javascript - I have this pasted just below the webform: <script type="text/javascript"> function showState(){ oStates = document.getElementById("stateD"); var jLink = $("#stateD :selected").val(); if (jLink == undefined || jLink == "none" ){ alert("Please Select a State"); } else{ document.location.href=jLink}; } </script> I'm not using 2 libraries so i don't get why its having a problem. All that is supposed to happen is you select a url from the drop down menu and it auto sends you to that url that is in the value of the option tag. Works everywhere else, not sure why IE has to be such a jerk today. I'd post a url but i can't at the moment. its private. has anyone encountered this issue before?

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SharePoint Web Part on Masterpage not displaying on SubSite

- by madatanic

Hi all, Scenario: - A out-of-the-box DataFormWebPart on masterpage connected to a top-level site List. - A subsite using that same masterpage from top-level site. - Error happens when accessing the sub site as below Stack Trace [InvalidOperationException: Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object.] Microsoft.SharePoint.SPFolder.get_ContentTypeOrder() +488 Microsoft.SharePoint.SPContext.get_ContentTypes() +898 Microsoft.SharePoint.SPContext.get_ContentType() +472 Microsoft.SharePoint.SPContext.get_Fields() +271 Microsoft.SharePoint.WebControls.FormComponent.get_Fields() +44 Microsoft.SharePoint.WebControls.FieldMetadata.get_Field() +419 Microsoft.SharePoint.WebControls.FormField.CreateChildControls() +596 System.Web.UI.Control.EnsureChildControls() +87 Microsoft.SharePoint.WebControls.BaseFieldControl.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +176 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +50 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +141 System.Web.UI.Control.AddedControl(Control control, Int32 index) +265 System.Web.UI.ControlCollection.Add(Control child) +80 System.Web.UI.Control.AddParsedSubObject(Object obj) +41 Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.WebPart.AddParsedSubObject(Object obj) +1149 Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.CreateChildControls() +1267 System.Web.UI.Control.EnsureChildControls() +87 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +44 System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts.WebPart.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +42 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +842 I have tried the solution from this site to enable the subsite to access top level site list. Is this a bug? Any help would be appreciated.

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Domain validates but won't save

- by marko

I have the following setup. Class, say, Car that has a CarPart (belongsTo=[car:Car]). When I'm creating a Car I also want to create som default CarParts, so I do def car = new Car(bla bla bla) def part = new CarPart(car:car) Now, when I do car.validate() or part.validate() it seems fine. But when I do if(car.save && part.save() I get this exception: 2012-03-24 14:02:21,943 [http-8080-4] ERROR util.JDBCExceptionReporter - Batch entry 0 insert into car_part (version, car_id, id) values ('0', '297', '298') was aborted. Call getNextException to see the cause. 2012-03-24 14:02:21,943 [http-8080-4] ERROR util.JDBCExceptionReporter - ERROR: value too long for type character varying(6) 2012-03-24 14:02:21,943 [http-8080-4] ERROR events.PatchedDefaultFlushEventListener - Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.DataException: Could not execute JDBC batch update Stacktrace follows: java.sql.BatchUpdateException: Batch entry 0 insert into car_part (version, deal_id, id) values ('0', '297', '298') was aborted. Call getNextException to see the cause. at org.postgresql.jdbc2.AbstractJdbc2Statement$BatchResultHandler.handleError(AbstractJdbc2Statement.java:2621) at org.postgresql.core.v3.QueryExecutorImpl.processResults(QueryExecutorImpl.java:1837) at org.postgresql.core.v3.QueryExecutorImpl.execute(QueryExecutorImpl.java:407) at org.postgresql.jdbc2.AbstractJdbc2Statement.executeBatch(AbstractJdbc2Statement.java:2754) at $Proxy20.flush(Unknown Source) at ristretto.DealController$_closure5.doCall(DealController.groovy:109) at ristretto.DealController$_closure5.doCall(DealController.groovy) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:722) Any ideas?

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Thread Locking CollectionViewSource

- by Robert

I added an event handler to my code and it broke all access to the CollectionViewSources in the SystemHTA class saying "The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it". My class was working when "this.systemHTA = new SystemHTA();" was placed outside of the DeviceManager_StateChanged() function. public partial class MainWindow : Window { private DeviceManager DeviceManager = DeviceManager.Instance; public SystemHTA systemHTA; public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { DeviceManager.StateChanged += new EventHandler<DeviceManagerStateChangedEventArgs>(DeviceManager_StateChanged); DeviceManager.Initialize(); } void DeviceManager_StateChanged(object sender, DeviceManagerStateChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.State == DeviceManagerState.Operational) { this.systemHTA = new SystemHTA(); } } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.systemHTA.GetViewSourceTest(); } } public class SystemHTA { private CollectionViewSource _deviceTestSource; public SystemHTA() { _deviceTestSource = new CollectionViewSource(); _deviceTestSource.Source = CreateLoadData<HWController>.ControllerCollection; } public void GetViewSourceTest() { ListCollectionView view = (ListCollectionView)_deviceTestSource.View; //This creates an error saying a thread already owns _deviceTestSource } }

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How can I use a meter-style progress bar?

- by Yadyn

In Vista/7, the Windows Explorer shell window makes use of a special kind of static progress bar to display hard drive space. With default styles, this bar is blue colored and non-animated. It also turns red colored when it gets close to being full (low disk space). Using messaging, I can tell the Windows Forms ProgressBar control to update its state to Paused and Error (yellow and red colored, respectively), which works fine, but these are still specific to progress. In the Windows User Experience Guidelines, it specifically points out this "meter" variant of the Progress Bar: This pattern isn't a progress bar, but it is implemented using the progress bar control. Meters have a distinct look to differentiate them from true progress bars. They say it "is implemented using the progress bar control", so... how? What message could I send to the control to have it behave this way? I've seen that you can send messages for setting the bar color, but the documentation says these calls are ignored when visual styles are enabled. Nothing else in the Windows API documentation for raw ProgressBar controls seemed to suggest a way to do this. Am I just stuck making a custom drawn bar? I'd really like to utilize the OS whenever possible so that the application will appear consistent throughout different OS versions. I realize that pre-Vista versions probably won't support this, though. I'm looking for a Windows Forms solution, but I wonder if it is even exposed at all via Win32 API.

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What OpenGL functions are not GPU accelerated?

- by Xavier Ho

I was shocked when I read this (from the OpenGL wiki): glTranslate, glRotate, glScale Are these hardware accelerated? No, there are no known GPUs that execute this. The driver computes the matrix on the CPU and uploads it to the GPU. All the other matrix operations are done on the CPU as well : glPushMatrix, glPopMatrix, glLoadIdentity, glFrustum, glOrtho. This is the reason why these functions are considered deprecated in GL 3.0. You should have your own math library, build your own matrix, upload your matrix to the shader. For a very, very long time I thought most of the OpenGL functions use the GPU to do computation. I'm not sure if this is a common misconception, but after a while of thinking, this makes sense. Old OpenGL functions (2.x and older) are really not suitable for real-world applications, due to too many state switches. This makes me realise that, possibly, many OpenGL functions do not use the GPU at all. So, the question is: Which OpenGL function calls don't use the GPU? I believe knowing the answer to the above question would help me become a better programmer with OpenGL. Please do share some of your insights.

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Open closed prinicple, problem

- by Marcus

Hi, I'm trying to apply OCP to a code snippet I have that in it's current state is really smelly, but I feel I'm not getting all the way to the end. Current code: public abstract class SomeObject {} public class SpecificObject1 : SomeObject {} public class SpecificObject2 : SomeObject {} // Smelly code public class Model { public void Store(SomeObject someObject) { if (someObject is SpecificObject1) {} else if (someObject is SpecificObject2) {} } } That is really ugly, my new approach looks like this: // No so smelly code public class Model { public void Store(SomeObject someObject) { throw new Expception("Not allowed!"); } public void Store(SpecificObject1 someObject) {} public void Store(SpecificObject2 someObject) {} } When a new SomeObject type comes along I must implement how that specific object is stored, this will break OCP cause I need to alter the Model-class. To move the store logic to SomeObject also feels wrong cause then I will violate SRP (?), becuase in this case the SomeObject is almost like a DTO, it's resposibility it not how to know to store itself. If a new implementation to SomeObject comes along who's store implementation is missing I will get a runtime error due to exception in Store method in Model class, it also feels like a code smell. This is because calling code will in the form of IEnumerable<SomeObject> sequence; I will not know the specific types of the sequence objects. I can't seem to grasp the OCP-concept. Anyone has any concrete examples or links that is a bit more than just some Car/Fruit example?

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