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• Using FluentNHibernate + SQLite with .Net4?

  - by stiank81

  I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. When calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration I get an exception thrown: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." It has an InnerException again: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. Which again has an InnerException: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Now - to me it sounds like it doesn't find System.Data.SQLite.dll, but I can't understand this. Everywhere this is referenced I have "Copy Local", and I have verified that it is in every build folder for projects using SQLite. I have also copied it manually to every Debug folder of the solution - without luck. Notes: This exact same code worked just fine before I upgraded to .Net4. I did see some x64 x86 mismatch problems earlier, but I have switched to use x86 as the target platform and for all referenced dlls. I have verified that all files in the Debug-folder are x86. I have tried the precompiled Fluent dlls, I have tried compiling myself, and I have compiled my own version of Fluent using .Net4. I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. After @devio's answer I tried adding a reference to the SQLite dll. This didn't change anything, but I hope I made it right though.. This is what I added to the root node of the app.config file: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <qualifyAssembly partialName="System.Data.SQLite" fullName="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.60.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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• Eclipse: How to convert a web project into an AspectJ project and weave and run it using the AJDT pl

  - by Kent

  What I want to do: I want to use the @Configured annotation with Spring. It requires AspectJ to be enabled. I thought that using the AJDT plugin for compile time weaving would solve this problem. Before installing the plug in the dependencies which were supposed to be injected into my @Configured object remained null. What I have done: Installed the AJDT: AspectJ Development Tools plug in for Eclipse 3.4. Right clicked on my web project and converted it into a AspectJ project. Enabled compile time weaving. What doesn't work: When I start the Tomcat 6 server now, I get an exception*. Other information: I haven't configured anything in the AspectJ Build and AspectJ Compiler parts of the project properties. JDT Weaving under Preferences says weaving is enabled. I still have Java build path and Java Compiler under project properties. And they look like I previously configured them (while the above two new entries are not configured). The icon of my @Configured object file looks like any other file (i.e. no indication of any aspect or such, which I think there should be). The file name is MailNotification.java (and not .aj), but I guess it should still work as I'm using a Spring annotation for AspectJ? I haven't found any tutorial or similar which teaches: How to turn a Spring web application project into an AspectJ project and weave aspects into the files using the AJDT plugin, all within Eclipse 3.4. If there is anything like that out there I would be very interested in knowing about it. What I would like to know: Where to go from here? I just want to use the @Configured annotation of Spring. I'm also using @Transactional which I think also needs AspectJ. If it is possible I would like to study AspectJ as little as possible as long as my needs are met. The subject seems interesting, but huge, all I want to do is use the above two mentioned Spring annotations. *** Exception when Tomcat 6 is started: Caused by: java.lang.IllegalStateException: ClassLoader [org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader] does NOT provide an 'addTransformer(ClassFileTransformer)' method. Specify a custom LoadTimeWeaver or start your Java virtual machine with Spring's agent: -javaagent:spring-agent.jar at org.springframework.context.weaving.DefaultContextLoadTimeWeaver.setBeanClassLoader(DefaultContextLoadTimeWeaver.java:82) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.initializeBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1322) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:473) ... 41 more

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• Cannot install Apache Web Server on Ubuntu, Amazon WS

  - by Eugene Retunsky

  I enter command apt-get install apache2 --fix-missing (under the root user) and this is what I receive: Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree Reading state information... Done The following extra packages will be installed: apache2-mpm-worker apache2-utils apache2.2-bin apache2.2-common libapr1 libaprutil1 libaprutil1-dbd-sqlite3 libaprutil1-ldap ssl-cert Suggested packages: apache2-doc apache2-suexec apache2-suexec-custom openssl-blacklist The following NEW packages will be installed: apache2 apache2-mpm-worker apache2-utils apache2.2-bin apache2.2-common libapr1 libaprutil1 libaprutil1-dbd-sqlite3 libaprutil1-ldap ssl-cert 0 upgraded, 10 newly installed, 0 to remove and 36 not upgraded. Need to get 2,945 kB/3,141 kB of archives. After this operation, 10.4 MB of additional disk space will be used. Do you want to continue [Y/n]? y Err http://us-west-1.ec2.archive.ubuntu.com/ubuntu/ oneiric-updates/main apache2.2-bin i386 2.2.20-1ubuntu1.1 404 Not Found [IP: 10.161.51.124 80] Err http://security.ubuntu.com/ubuntu/ oneiric-security/main apache2.2-bin i386 2.2.20-1ubuntu1.1 404 Not Found [IP: 91.189.92.167 80] Err http://security.ubuntu.com/ubuntu/ oneiric-security/main apache2-utils i386 2.2.20-1ubuntu1.1 404 Not Found [IP: 91.189.92.167 80] Err http://security.ubuntu.com/ubuntu/ oneiric-security/main apache2.2-common i386 2.2.20-1ubuntu1.1 404 Not Found [IP: 91.189.92.167 80] Err http://security.ubuntu.com/ubuntu/ oneiric-security/main apache2-mpm-worker i386 2.2.20-1ubuntu1.1 404 Not Found [IP: 91.189.92.167 80] Err http://security.ubuntu.com/ubuntu/ oneiric-security/main apache2 i386 2.2.20-1ubuntu1.1 404 Not Found [IP: 91.189.92.167 80] Failed to fetch http://security.ubuntu.com/ubuntu/pool/main/a/apache2/apache2.2-bin_2.2.20-1ubuntu1.1_i386.deb 404 Not Found [IP: 91.189.92.167 80] Failed to fetch http://security.ubuntu.com/ubuntu/pool/main/a/apache2/apache2-utils_2.2.20-1ubuntu1.1_i386.deb 404 Not Found [IP: 91.189.92.167 80] Failed to fetch http://security.ubuntu.com/ubuntu/pool/main/a/apache2/apache2.2-common_2.2.20-1ubuntu1.1_i386.deb 404 Not Found [IP: 91.189.92.167 80] Failed to fetch http://security.ubuntu.com/ubuntu/pool/main/a/apache2/apache2-mpm-worker_2.2.20-1ubuntu1.1_i386.deb 404 Not Found [IP: 91.189.92.167 80] Failed to fetch http://security.ubuntu.com/ubuntu/pool/main/a/apache2/apache2_2.2.20-1ubuntu1.1_i386.deb 404 Not Found [IP: 91.189.92.167 80] Unable to correct missing packages. E: Aborting install. Any help is appreciated.

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• read user Input of custom dialogs

  - by urobo

  I built a custom dialog starting from an AlertDialog to obtain login information from a user. So the dialog contains two EditText fields, using the layoutinflater service I obtain the layout and I'm saving a reference to the fields. LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) Home.this.getSystemService(LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); layoutLogin = inflater.inflate(R.layout.login,(ViewGroup) findViewById(R.id.rl)); usernameInput =((EditText)findViewById(R.id.getNewUsername)); passwordInput = ((EditText)findViewById(R.id.getNewPassword)); Then I have my overridden onCreateDialog(...) : { AlertDialog d = null; AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); switch(id){ ... case Home.DIALOG_LOGIN: builder.setView(layoutLogin); builder.setMessage("Sign in to your DyCaPo Account").setCancelable(false); d=builder.create(); d.setTitle("Login"); Message msg = new Message(); msg.setTarget(Home.this.handleLogin); Bundle data = new Bundle(); data.putString("username", usernameInput.getText().toString());// <---null pointer Exception data.putString("password", passwordInput.getText().toString()); msg.setData(data); d.setButton(Dialog.BUTTON_NEUTRAL,"Sign in",msg); break; ... return d; } and the handler set in the Message: private Handler handleLogin= new Handler(){ /* (non-Javadoc) * @see android.os.Handler#handleMessage(android.os.Message) */ @Override public void handleMessage(Message msg) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Log.d("Message Received", msg.getData().getString("username")+ msg.getData().getString("password")); } }; which for now works as a debugging tool. That's all. The Question is: what am I doing wrong? Because when I reach the line highlighted in the code ( the line in which I read the fields in the dialog ) I always get a null pointer exception. Could somebody please tell me the reason why it is so? And give some guidelines to work with dialogs. Thanks in advance!

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• Spring ROO issue with UrlRewrite in STS (eclipse)

  - by user224270

  Hi. I'm having trouble figuring out how to solve this issue. I have a file called: "urlrewrite.xml" which was automatically generated by spring ROO after running the "controller" command in ROO Shell. However, I still get the following error: "Referenced file contains errors (http://tuckey.org/res/dtds/urlrewrite3.0.dtd). For more information, right click on the message in the Problems View and select "Show Details..." Here's the content of the urlrewrite.xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!DOCTYPE urlrewrite PUBLIC "-//tuckey.org//DTD UrlRewrite 3.0//EN" "http://tuckey.org/res/dtds/urlrewrite3.0.dtd"> <urlrewrite default-match-type="wildcard"> <rule> <from>/resources/**</from> <to last="true">/resources/$1</to> </rule> <rule> <from>/static/WEB-INF/**</from> <set type="status">403</set> <to last="true">/static/WEB-INF/$1</to> </rule> <rule> <from>/static/**</from> <to last="true">/$1</to> </rule> <rule> <from>/</from> <to last="true">/app/index</to> </rule> <rule> <from>/app/**</from> <to last="true">/app/$1</to> </rule> <rule> <from>/**</from> <to>/app/$1</to> </rule> <outbound-rule> <from>/app/**</from> <to>/$1</to> </outbound-rule> </urlrewrite> Any thoughts on how to get rid of this error?

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• How to use multiple flatpages models in a django app?

  - by the_drow

  I have multiple models that can be converted to flatpages but have to have some extra information (For example I have an about us page but I also have a blog). However I understand that there must be only one flatpages model since the middleware only returns the flatpages instance and does not resolve the child models. What do I have to do? EDIT: It seems I need to change the views. Here's the current code: from django.contrib.flatpages.models import FlatPage from django.template import loader, RequestContext from django.shortcuts import get_object_or_404 from django.http import HttpResponse, HttpResponseRedirect from django.conf import settings from django.core.xheaders import populate_xheaders from django.utils.safestring import mark_safe from django.views.decorators.csrf import csrf_protect DEFAULT_TEMPLATE = 'flatpages/default.html' # This view is called from FlatpageFallbackMiddleware.process_response # when a 404 is raised, which often means CsrfViewMiddleware.process_view # has not been called even if CsrfViewMiddleware is installed. So we need # to use @csrf_protect, in case the template needs {% csrf_token %}. # However, we can't just wrap this view; if no matching flatpage exists, # or a redirect is required for authentication, the 404 needs to be returned # without any CSRF checks. Therefore, we only # CSRF protect the internal implementation. def flatpage(request, url): """ Public interface to the flat page view. Models: `flatpages.flatpages` Templates: Uses the template defined by the ``template_name`` field, or `flatpages/default.html` if template_name is not defined. Context: flatpage `flatpages.flatpages` object """ if not url.endswith('/') and settings.APPEND_SLASH: return HttpResponseRedirect("%s/" % request.path) if not url.startswith('/'): url = "/" + url # Here instead of getting the flat page it needs to find if it has a page with a child model. f = get_object_or_404(FlatPage, url__exact=url, sites__id__exact=settings.SITE_ID) return render_flatpage(request, f) @csrf_protect def render_flatpage(request, f): """ Internal interface to the flat page view. """ # If registration is required for accessing this page, and the user isn't # logged in, redirect to the login page. if f.registration_required and not request.user.is_authenticated(): from django.contrib.auth.views import redirect_to_login return redirect_to_login(request.path) if f.template_name: t = loader.select_template((f.template_name, DEFAULT_TEMPLATE)) else: t = loader.get_template(DEFAULT_TEMPLATE) # To avoid having to always use the "|safe" filter in flatpage templates, # mark the title and content as already safe (since they are raw HTML # content in the first place). f.title = mark_safe(f.title) f.content = mark_safe(f.content) # Here I need to be able to configure what I am passing in the context c = RequestContext(request, { 'flatpage': f, }) response = HttpResponse(t.render(c)) populate_xheaders(request, response, FlatPage, f.id) return response

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• Asp.net MVC and MOSS 2010 integration

  - by Robert Koritnik

  Just a sidenote: I'm not sure whether I should post this to serverfault as well, because some MOSS admin may have some info for me as well? A bit of explanation first (without Asp.net MVC) Is it possible to integrate the two? Is it possible to write an application that would share at least credential information with MOSS? I have to write a MOSS application that has to do with these technologies: MOSS 2010 Personal client certificates authentication (most probably on USB keys) Active Directory Federation Services Separate SQL DB that would serve application specific data (separate as not being part of MOSS DB) How should it work? Users should authenticate using personal certificates into MOSS 2010 There would be a certain part of MOSS that would be related to my custom application This application should only authorize certain users via AD FS - I guess these users should have a certain security claim attached to them This application should manage users (that have access to this app) with additional (app specific) security claims related to this application (as additional application level authorization rights for individual application parts) This application should use custom SQL 2008 DB heavily with its own data This application should have the possibility to integrate with external systems as well (Exchange for instance to inject calendar entries, ERP systems etc) This application should be able to export its data (from its DB) to files. I don't know if it's possible, but it would be nice if the app could add these files to MOSS and attach authorization info to them so only users with sufficient rights would be able to view/open these files. Why Asp.net MVC then? I'm very well versed in Asp.net MVC (also with the latest version) and I haven't done anything on Sharepoint since version 2003 (which doesn't do me no good or prepare me for the latest version in any way shape or form). This project will most probably be a death march project so I would rather write my application as a UI rich Asp.net MVC application and somehow integrate it into MOSS. But not only via a link, because I would like to at least share credentials, so users wouldn't need to re-login when accessing my app. Using Asp.net MVC I would at least have the possibility to finish on time or be less death marching. Is this at all possible? Questions Is it possible to integrate Asp.net MVC into MOSS as described above? If integration is not possible, would it be possible to create a completely MOSS based application that would work as described? Which parts of MOSS 2010 should I use to accomplish what I need?

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• .NET MVC Ajax Form - How do you hide it?

  - by Tommy

  Ok, everything is 'functionally' working with what I am attempting to accomplish and once again, I am sure this is something dumb, but I cannot figure out how to do this one thing. I have an edit form for an entity, lets say a car. This 'car' can have 0 - many passengers. So on my edit form, I have all the fields for the car, then a list view showing each passenger (partial). I also have a 'add new passenger' button that will render a new partial view that allows you to enter a passenger. This has a cancel link and an add button to submit an Ajax form. When you add a passenger, the passenger is automatically added to the list, but I need the enter passenger form to go away. I have tried using the onSuccess and onComplete functions to hide the div that the form is in, but both render just the partial view HTML elements (white screen, text) and not the partialView in the context of the entire page. Sources: 1) Main Edit View <script type="text/javascript"> Function hideForm(){ document.getElementById('newPassenger').style.display = 'none'; } </script> <h2>Edit</h2> <%-- The following line works around an ASP.NET compiler warning --%> <%= ""%> <%Html.RenderPartial("EditCar", Model)%> <h2>Passengers for this car</h2> <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Add New Passenger", "AddPassenger", New With {.ID = Model.carID}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "newPassenger", .InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace})%> <div id="newPassenger"></div> <div id="passengerList"> <%Html.RenderPartial("passengerList", Model.Passengers)%> </div> <div> <%= Html.ActionLink("Back to List", "Index") %> </div> 2) AddPassenger View. The cancel link below is an action that returns nothing, thus removing the information in the div. <% Using Ajax.BeginForm("AddPassengerToCar", New With {.id = ViewData("carID")}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "passengerList", .InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace})%> <%=Html.DropDownList("Passengers")%> <input type="submit" value="Add" /> <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Cancel", "CancelAddControl", _ New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "newPassenger", .InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace})%><% end using %>

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• Should an event-sourced aggregate root have query access to the event sourcing repository?

  - by JD Courtoy

  I'm working on an event-sourced CQRS implementation, using DDD in the application / domain layer. I have an object model that looks like this: public class Person : AggregateRootBase { private Guid? _bookingId; public Person(Identification identification) { Apply(new PersonCreatedEvent(identification)); } public Booking CreateBooking() { // Enforce Person invariants var booking = new Booking(); Apply(new PersonBookedEvent(booking.Id)); return booking; } public void Release() { // Enforce Person invariants // Should we load the booking here from the aggregate repository? // We need to ensure that booking is released as well. var booking = BookingRepository.Load(_bookingId); booking.Release(); Apply(new PersonReleasedEvent(_bookingId)); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonBookedEvent @event) { _bookingId = @event.BookingId; } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonReleasedEvent @event) { _bookingId = null; } } public class Booking : AggregateRootBase { private DateTime _bookingDate; private DateTime? _releaseDate; public Booking() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingCreatedEvent()); } public void Release() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingReleasedEvent()); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingCreatedEvent @event) { _bookingDate = SystemTime.Now(); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingReleasedEvent @event) { _releaseDate = SystemTime.Now(); } // Some other business activities unrelated to a person } With my understanding of DDD so far, both Person and Booking are seperate aggregate roots for two reasons: There are times when business components will pull Booking objects separately from the database. (ie, a person that has been released has a previous booking modified due to incorrect information). There should not be locking contention between Person and Booking whenever a Booking needs to be updated. One other business requirement is that a Booking can never occur for a Person more than once at a time. Due to this, I'm concerned about querying the query database on the read side as there could potentially be some inconsistency there (due to using CQRS and having an eventually consistent read database). Should the aggregate roots be allowed to query the event-sourced backing store for objects (lazy-loading them as needed)? Are there any other avenues of implementation that would make more sense?

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• heroku time zone problem, logging local server time

  - by Ole Morten Amundsen

  UPDATE: Ok, I didn't formulate a good Q to be answered. I still struggle with heroku being on -07:00 UTC and I at +02:200 UTC. Q: How do I get the log written in the correct Time.zone ? The 9 hours difference, heroku (us west) - norway, is distracting to work with. I get this in my production.log (using heroku logs): Processing ProductionController#create to xml (for 81.26.51.35 at 2010-04-28 23:00:12) [POST] How do I get it to write 2010-04-29 08:00:12 +02:00 GMT ? Note that I'm running at heroku and cannot set the server time myself, as one could do at your amazon EC2 servers. Below is my previous question, I'll leave it be as it holds some interesting information about time and zones. Why does Time.now yield the server local time when I have set the another time zone in my environment.rb config.time_zone = 'Copenhagen' I've put this in a view <p> Time.zone <%= Time.zone %> </p> <p> Time.now <%= Time.now %> </p> <p> Time.now.utc <%= Time.now.utc %> </p> <p> Time.zone.now <%= Time.zone.now %> </p> <p> Time.zone.today <%= Time.zone.today %> </p> rendering this result on my app at heroku Time.zone (GMT+01:00) Copenhagen Time.now Mon Apr 26 08:28:21 -0700 2010 Time.now.utc Mon Apr 26 15:28:21 UTC 2010 Time.zone.now 2010-04-26 17:28:21 +0200 Time.zone.today 2010-04-26 Time.zone.now yields the correct result. Do I have to switch from Time.now to Time.zone.now, everywhere? Seems cumbersome. I truly don't care what the local time of the server is, it's giving me loads of trouble due to extensive use of Time.now. Am I misunderstanding anything fundamental here?

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• How to get NHProf reports in TeamCity running MSBUILD

  - by Jon Erickson

  I'm trying to get NHProf reports on my integration tests as a report in TeamCity I'm not sure how to get this set up correctly and my first attempts are unsuccessful. Let me know if there is any more information that would be helpful... I'm getting the following error, when trying to generate html reports with MSBUILD (which is being run by TeamCity) error MSB3073: The command "C:\CI\Tools\NHProf\NHProf.exe /CmdLineMode /File:"E:\CI\BuildServer\RMS-Winform\Group\dev\NHProfOutput.html" /ReportFormat:Html" exited with code -532459699 I tell TeamCity to run MSBUILD w/ CIBuildWithNHProf target The command line parameters that I pass from TeamCity are... /property:NHProfExecutable=%system.NHProfExecutable%;NHProfFile=%system.teamcity.build.checkoutDir%\NHProfOutput.html;NHProfReportFormat=Html The portion of my MSBUILD script that runs my tests is as follows... <UsingTask TaskName="NUnitTeamCity" AssemblyFile="$(teamcity_dotnet_nunitlauncher_msbuild_task)"/> <!-- Set Properties --> <PropertyGroup> <Configuration Condition=" '$(Configuration)' == '' ">Debug</Configuration> <Platform Condition=" '$(Platform)' == '' ">x86</Platform> <NHProfExecutable></NHProfExecutable> <NHProfFile></NHProfFile> <NHProfReportFormat></NHProfReportFormat> </PropertyGroup> <!-- Test Database --> <Target Name="DeployDatabase"> <!-- ... --> </Target> <!-- Database Used For Integration Tests --> <Target Name="DeployTestDatabase"> <!-- ... --> </Target> <!-- Build All Projects --> <Target Name="BuildProjects"> <MSBuild Projects="..\MySolutionFile.sln" Targets="Build"/> </Target> <!-- Stop NHProf --> <Target Name="NHProfStop"> <Exec Command="$(NHProfExecutable) /Shutdown" /> </Target> <!-- Run Unit/Integration Tests --> <Target Name="RunTests"> <CreateItem Include="..\**\bin\debug\*Tests.dll"> <Output TaskParameter="Include" ItemName="TestAssemblies" /> </CreateItem> <NUnitTeamCity Assemblies="@(TestAssemblies)" NUnitVersion="NUnit-2.5.3"/> </Target> <!-- Start NHProf --> <Target Name="NHProfStart"> <Exec Command="$(NHProfExecutable) /CmdLineMode /File:&quot;$(NHProfFile)&quot; /ReportFormat:$(NHProfReportFormat)" /> </Target> <Target Name="CIBuildWithNHProf" DependsOnTargets="BuildProjects;DeployTestDatabase;NHProfStart;RunTests;NHProfStop;DeployDatabase"> </Target>

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• Maven nexus with jetty 7 and apache2 reverse proxy

  - by user613154

  Hello stackoverflow ! Here is my problem : i try to run a maven nexus behind an apache reverse proxy. As i have multiples war in my jetty, i want the nexus to run here : http://localhost:8080/nexus I made a jetty context file as follow : {jetty.home}/contexts/nexus.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <!DOCTYPE Configure PUBLIC "-//Jetty//Configure//EN" "http://www.eclipse.org/jetty/configure.dtd"> <Configure class="org.eclipse.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext"> <Set name="contextPath">/nexus</Set> <Set name="war"><SystemProperty name="jetty.home" default="."/>/webapps/nexus.war</Set> </Configure> My jetty connector in jetty.xml is as follow : <Call name="addConnector"> <Arg> <New class="org.eclipse.jetty.server.nio.SelectChannelConnector"> <Set name="host"><Property name="jetty.host" /></Set> <Set name="port"><Property name="jetty.port" default="8080"/></Set> <Set name="maxIdleTime">300000</Set> <Set name="Acceptors">2</Set> <Set name="forwarded">true</Set> <Set name="statsOn">false</Set> <Set name="confidentialPort">8443</Set> <Set name="lowResourcesConnections">20000</Set> <Set name="lowResourcesMaxIdleTime">5000</Set> </New> </Arg> </Call> I want http://maven.foo.com/ as an end point for the nexus, so i made this apache2 configuration file : ProxyRequests Off ProxyVia Off ProxyPreserveHost On <Proxy *> AddDefaultCharset off Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName maven.foo.com ProxyPass / http://localhost:8080/nexus/ ProxyPassReverse / http://localhost:8080/nexus/ ErrorLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/error_nexus.log </VirtualHost> But i can't manage to make it work. The error message displayed in the browser is "The server has not found anything matching the request URI". I tried to read docs on jetty and apache web site, but didn't find information for mapping a subdomain "sub.foo.com" to a context "localhost:8080/sub" ... Any help welcome ! Thanks

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• How to configure Spring JavaMailSenderImpl for Gmail

  - by Andrew Carlson

  I am trying to find the correct properties to use to connect to the Gmail SMTP sever using the JavaMailSenderImpl class. Let me first say that I have tried the approach found here. This worked fine. But when I tried the configuration below that post with the exact same authentication information I received a javax.mail.AuthenticationFailedException. My currently configuration looks like this. <bean id="mailSender" class ="org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl" > <property name="username" value="[email protected]" /> <property name="password" value="XXX" /> <property name="javaMailProperties"> <props> <prop key="mail.smtp.host">smtp.gmail.com</prop> <prop key="mail.smtp.port">587</prop> <prop key="mail.smtp.auth">true</prop> <prop key="mail.smtp.starttls.enable">true</prop> </props> </property> </bean> Why am I still getting this javax.mail.AuthenticationFailedException if I know that my credentials are correct. Update Here is my updated code based on the answers below. I am still receiving the same exception. <bean id="mailSender" class ="org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl" > <property name="username" value="[email protected]" /> <property name="password" value="XXX" /> <property name="javaMailProperties"> <props> <prop key="mail.smtp.from">[email protected]</prop> <prop key="mail.smtp.user">[email protected]</prop> <prop key="mail.smtp.password">XXX</prop> <prop key="mail.smtp.host">smtp.gmail.com</prop> <prop key="mail.smtp.port">587</prop> <prop key="mail.smtp.auth">true</prop> <prop key="mail.smtp.starttls.enable">true</prop> </props> </property> </bean>

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• How can I take the first 100 characters of html content ( without stripping the TAGS! )

  - by Atomiton

  There are lots of questions on how to strip html tags, but not many on functions/methods to close them. Here's the situation. I have a 500 character Message summary ( which includes html tags ), but I only want the first 100 characters. Problem is if I truncate the message, it could be in the middle of an html tag... which messes up stuff. Assuming the html is something like this: <div class="bd">"Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. <br/> <br/>Some Dates: April 30 - May 2, 2010 <br/> <p>Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. <em>Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit</em> in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum. <br/> </p> For more information about Lorem Ipsum doemdloe, visit: <br/> <a href="http://www.somesite.com" title="Some Conference">Some text link</a><br/> </div> How would I take the first ~100 characters or so? ( Although, ideally that would be the first approximately 100 characters of "CONTENT" ( in between the html tags ) I'm assuming the best way to do this would be a recursive algorithm that keeps track of the html tags and appends any tags that would be truncated, but that may not be the best approach. My first thoughts are using recursion to count nested tags, and when we reach 100 characters, look for the next "<" and then use recursion to write the closing html tags needed from there. The reason for doing this is to make a short summary of existing articles without requiring the user to go back and provide summaries for all the articles. I want to keep the html formatting, if possible. NOTE: Please ignore that the html isn't totally semantic. This is what I have to deal with from my WYSIWYG. EDIT: I added a potential solution ( that seems to work ) I figure others will run into this problem as well. I'm not sure it's the best... and it's probably not totally robust ( in fact, I know it isn't ), but I'd appreciate any feedback

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• foreach loop corrupting my array?

  - by WmasterJ

  Explanation I have a multidimensional array that is iterated over to created a categorized view of people with different research interests. The main array look something like this: Array ( ... ['Cell Biology'] => Array(4 elements) ['Molecular'] => Array(6 elements) ['Biology Education'] => Array(14 elements) ['Plant Biology'] => Array(19 elements) <--- Last element in array ) I know that the entire array is intact and correctly structured. The only information that is inside these array is an user id, like so: Array ('Plant Biology') 19 elements ( [0] => 737 [1] => 742 [2] => 748 ... ) My problem is that after i run the main array through a foreach loop the last 'sub-array' gets messed up. By messed up I mean that what you see about instead look like: String (13 characters) 'Plant Biology' This is without doing at all anything inside the loop with to the array that gets corrupted. Any tips to what it might be? PHP Code // ---> Array is OK here echo "<h2>Research divided</h2>"; // Loop areas and list them in 2 columns foreach($research['areas'] as $area => $areaArray) { // ---> Here it is already corrupted $count = count($areaArray); if($count > 0) { echo "<h3>$area</h3><hr/>"; echo "<table class='area_list'><tr>"; // Loop users within areas, divided up in 2 columns for($i=0 ; $i<$count ; $i++) { $uid = $areaArray[$i]; echo "<li>$uid</li>"; } echo "</tr></table>"; } }

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• Get HDD (and NOT Volume) Serial Number on Vista Ultimate 64 bit

  - by TheAgent

  Hi all. I was once looking for getting the HDD serial number without using WMI, and I found it. The code I found and posted on StackOverFlow.com works very well on 32 bit Windows, both XP and Vista. The trouble only begins when I try to get the serail number on 64 bit OSs (Vista Ultimate 64, specifically). The code returns String.Empty, or a Space all the time. Anyone got an idea how to fix this? EDIT: I used the tools Dave Cluderay suggested, with interesting results: Here is the output from DiskId32, on Windows XP SP2 32-bit: To get all details use "diskid32 /d" Trying to read the drive IDs using physical access with admin rights Drive 0 - Primary Controller - - Master drive Drive Model Number________________: [MAXTOR STM3160215AS] Drive Serial Number_______________: [ 6RA26XK3] Drive Controller Revision Number__: [3.AAD] Controller Buffer Size on Drive___: 2097152 bytes Drive Type________________________: Fixed Drive Size________________________: 160041885696 bytes Trying to read the drive IDs using the SCSI back door Drive 4 - Tertiary Controller - - Master drive Drive Model Number________________: [MAXTOR STM3160215AS] Drive Serial Number_______________: [ 6RA26XK3] Drive Controller Revision Number__: [3.AAD] Controller Buffer Size on Drive___: 2097152 bytes Drive Type________________________: Fixed Drive Size________________________: 160041885696 bytes Trying to read the drive IDs using physical access with zero rights **** STORAGE_DEVICE_DESCRIPTOR for drive 0 **** Vendor Id = [] Product Id = [MAXTOR STM3160215AS] Product Revision = [3.AAD] Serial Number = [] **** DISK_GEOMETRY_EX for drive 0 **** Disk is fixed DiskSize = 160041885696 Trying to read the drive IDs using Smart Drive 0 - Primary Controller - - Master drive Drive Model Number________________: [MAXTOR STM3160215AS] Drive Serial Number_______________: [ 6RA26XK3] Drive Controller Revision Number__: [3.AAD] Controller Buffer Size on Drive___: 2097152 bytes Drive Type________________________: Fixed Drive Size________________________: 160041885696 bytes Hard Drive Serial Number__________: 6RA26XK3 Hard Drive Model Number___________: MAXTOR STM3160215AS And DiskId32 run on Windows Vista Ultimate 64-bit: To get all details use "diskid32 /d" Trying to read the drive IDs using physical access with admin rights Trying to read the drive IDs using the SCSI back door Trying to read the drive IDs using physical access with zero rights **** STORAGE_DEVICE_DESCRIPTOR for drive 0 **** Vendor Id = [MAXTOR S] Product Id = [TM3160215AS] Product Revision = [3.AA] Serial Number = [] **** DISK_GEOMETRY_EX for drive 0 **** Disk is fixed DiskSize = 160041885696 Trying to read the drive IDs using Smart Hard Drive Serial Number__________: Hard Drive Model Number___________: Notice how much lesser the information is on Vista, and how the Serial Number is not returned. Also the other tool, EnumDisk, refers to my hard disks on Vista as "SCSI" as opposed to "ATA" on Windows XP. Any ideas? EDIT 2: I'm posting the results from EnumDisks: On Windows XP SP2 32-bit: Properties for Device 1 Device ID: IDE\DiskMAXTOR_STM3160215AS_____________________3.AAD___ Adapter Properties ------------------ Bus Type : ATA Max. Tr. Length: 0x20000 Max. Phy. Pages: 0xffffffff Alignment Mask : 0x1 Device Properties ----------------- Device Type : Direct Access Device (0x0) Removable Media : No Product ID : MAXTOR STM3160215AS Product Revision: 3.AAD Inquiry Data from Pass Through ------------------------------ Device Type: Direct Access Device (0x0) Vendor ID : MAXTOR S Product ID : TM3160215AS Product Rev: 3.AA Vendor Str : *** End of Device List

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• Flex/Flash 4 datagrid displays raw xml

  - by Setori

  Problem: Flex/Flash4 client (built with FlashBuilder4) displays the xml sent from the server exactly as is - the datagrid keeps the format of the xml. I need the datagrid to parse the input and place the data in the correct rows and columns of the datagrid. flow: click on a date in the tree and it makes a server request for batch information in xml form. Using a CallResponder I then update the datagrid's dataProvider. [code] <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.Alert; [Bindable]public var selectedTreeNode:XML; public function taskTreeChanged(event:Event):void { selectedTreeNode=Tree(event.target).selectedItem as XML; var searchHubId:String = selectedTreeNode.@hub; var searchDate:String = selectedTreeNode.@lbl; if((searchHubId == "") || (searchDate == "")){ return; } findShipmentBatches(searchDate,searchHubId); } protected function findShipmentBatches(searchDate:String, searchHubId:String):void{ findShipmentBatchesResult.token = actWs.findShipmentBatches(searchDate, searchHubId); } protected function updateBatchDataGridDP():void{ task_list_dg.dataProvider = findShipmentBatchesResult.lastResult; } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <actws:ActWs id="actWs" fault="Alert.show(event.fault.faultString + '\n' + event.fault.faultDetail)" showBusyCursor="true"/> <s:CallResponder id="findShipmentBatchesResult" result="updateBatchDataGridDP()"/> </fx:Declarations> <mx:AdvancedDataGrid id="task_list_dg" width="100%" height="95%" paddingLeft="0" paddingTop="0" paddingBottom="0"> <mx:columns> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="Receiving date" dataField="rd"/> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="Msg type" dataField="mt"/> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="SSD" dataField="ssd"/> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="Shipping site" dataField="sss"/> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="File name" dataField="fn"/> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="Batch number" dataField="bn"/> </mx:columns> </mx:AdvancedDataGrid> //xml example from server <batches> <batch> <rd>2010-04-23 16:31:00.0</rd> <mt>SC1REVISION01</mt> <ssd>2010-02-18 00:00:00.0</ssd> <sss>100000009</sss> <fn>Revision 1-DF-Ocean-SC1SUM-Quanta-PACT-EMEA-Scheduled Ship Date 20100218.csv</fn> <bn>10041</bn> </batch> <batches> [/code] and the xml is pretty much displayed exactly as is shown in the example above in the datagrid columns... I would appreciate your assistance.

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• What do you expect from a package manager for Emacs

  - by tarsius

  Although several hundred Emacs Lisp libraries exist GNU Emacs does not have an (internal) package manager. I guess that most users would agree that it is currently rather inconvenient to find, install and especially keep up-to-date Emacs Lisp libraries. These pages make life a bit easier Emacs Lisp List - Problem: I see dead people (links). Emacswiki - Problem: May contain traces of nuts (malicious code). These are some package managers XEmacs package manager package.el - ELPA pases install.el install-elisp.el plugin.el use-package.el jem-pkg.el epkg/elm - the one I am working. And this are some packages that provide functionality that might be useful in a package manager ell.el - Browse the Emacs Lisp List genauto.el - helps generate autoloads for your elisp packages date-calc.el - date calculation and parsing routines strptime.el - partial implementation of POSIX date and time parsing wikirel.el - Visit relevant pages on the Emacs Wiki loadhist.el, lib-requires.el, elisp-depend.el - Commands to list Emacs Lisp library dependencies. project-root.el - Define a project root and take actions based upon it So I would like to know from you what you consider important/unimportant/supplementary... in a package manager for Emacs. Some ideas Many packages (incorporate the Emacs Lisp List and other lists of libraries). Only packages that have been tested. Support for more than one package archive (so people can choose between many/tested packages). Dependency calculated based on required features only. Dependencies take particular versions into account. Only use versions that have been released upstream. Use versions from version control systems if available. Packages are categorized. Packages can be uninstalled and updated not only installed. Support creating fork of upstream version of packages. Support publishing these forks. Support choosing a fork. After installation packages are activated. Generate autoloads. Integration with Emacswiki (see wikirel.el). Users can tag, comment ... packages and share that information. Only FSF-assigned/GPL/FOSS software or don't care about license. Package manager should be integrated in Emacs. Support contacting author. Lots of metadata. Suggest alternatives before installing a particular package. Some discussions about the subject at hand emacs-devel 20080801 comp.emacs 20021121 RationalElispPackaging I am hoping for these kinds of answers Pointers to more implementations, discussions etc. Lengthy descriptions of a set of features that make up your ideal package manager. Descriptions of one particular disired/undisired feature. This has the advantage that the regular voting mechanism allows us to see what features are most welcomed. Feel free to elaborate on my ideas from above. Surprise me.

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• What does this WCF error mean: "Custom tool warning: Cannot import wsdl:portType"

  - by stiank81

  I created a WCF service library project in my solution, and have service references to this. I use the services from a class library, so I have references from my WPF application project in addition to the class library. Services are set up straight forward - only changed to get async service functions. Everything was working fine - until I wanted to update my service references. It failed, so I eventually rolled back and retried, but it failed even then! So - updating the service references fails without doing any changes to it. Why?! The error I get is this one: Custom tool error: Failed to generate code for the service reference 'MyServiceReference'. Please check other error and warning messages for details. The warning gives more information: Custom tool warning: Cannot import wsdl:portType Detail: An exception was thrown while running a WSDL import extension: System.ServiceModel.Description.DataContractSerializerMessageContractImporter Error: List of referenced types contains more than one type with data contract name 'Patient' in namespace 'http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/MyApp.Model'. Need to exclude all but one of the following types. Only matching types can be valid references: "MyApp.Dashboard.MyServiceReference.Patient, Medski.Dashboard, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" (matching) "MyApp.Model.Patient, MyApp.Model, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" (matching) XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:portType[@name='ISomeService'] There are two similar warnings too saying: Custom tool warning: Cannot import wsdl:binding Detail: There was an error importing a wsdl:portType that the wsdl:binding is dependent on. XPath to wsdl:portType: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:portType[@name='ISomeService'] XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:binding[@name='WSHttpBinding_ISomeService'] And the same for: Custom tool warning: Cannot import wsdl:port .. I find this all confusing.. I don't have a Patient class on the client side Dashboard except the one I got through the service reference. So what does it mean? And why does it suddenly show? Remember: I didn't even change anything! Now, the solution to this was found here, but without an explanation to what this means. So; in the "Configure service reference" for the service I uncheck the "Reuse types in the referenced assemblies" checkbox. Rebuilding now it all works fine without problems. But what did I really change? Will this make an impact on my application? And when should one uncheck this? I do want to reuse the types I've set up DataContract on, but no more. Will I still get access to those without this checked?

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• Universal iPad App rejected because of launch crash that I can't reproduce

  - by Enrique R.

  Hello everyone, I'm very frustrated with this problem. After one week of waiting my universal iPad app has been rejected because "is crashing on launch on iPad running iPhone OS 3.2 and iPhone 3GS running iPhone OS 3.1.3 and Mac OS X 10.6.2." Unfortunately I can't replicate the problem, I've tested in debug and release modes and the app works just fine. I even created an ad-hoc configuration and test it in other devices and everything works fine. I should clarify that this is an update to a current iPhone application and I'm using the same distribution profile as the original iPhone app. Also, I checked everything before building the universal app following this entry: http://iphonedevelopment.blogspot.com/2010/04/converting-iphone-apps-to-universal.html Here are the crash logs that Apple sent me: Incident Identifier: 3E0D4A3B-2896-444D-BCBE-6C0CA1A66A90 CrashReporter Key: 18b5124ea5f657227c5f202a27ed707379b3e2e7 Process: Transfer [982] Path: /var/mobile/Applications/E9062465-7EA6-424C-9C61-D9DBCC7C915A/Transfer.app/Transfer Identifier: Transfer Version: ??? (???) Code Type: ARM (Native) Parent Process: launchd [1] Date/Time: 2010-05-04 15:35:57.399 -0700 OS Version: iPhone OS 3.1.3 (7E18) Report Version: 104 Exception Type: EXC_BAD_INSTRUCTION (SIGILL) Exception Codes: 0x00000001, 0x3eaa2188 Highlighted Thread: 0 Backtrace not available Unknown thread crashed with ARM Thread State: r0: 0x00002f90 r1: 0x00000000 r2: 0x385242d8 r3: 0x0000010d r4: 0x00000000 r5: 0x00000000 r6: 0x00000000 r7: 0x00000000 r8: 0x2ffffba0 r9: 0x2fffef90 r10: 0x00000000 r11: 0x00000000 ip: 0x0000000c sp: 0x2ffffba4 lr: 0x2fe08727 pc: 0x00002f94 cpsr: 0x40000010 Binary Images: 0x1000 - 0x25fff +Transfer armv7 /var/mobile/Applications/E9062465-7EA6-424C-9C61-D9DBCC7C915A/Transfer.app/Transfer 0x2fe00000 - 0x2fe24fff dyld armv7 /usr/lib/dyld .... And the one for the iPad: Incident Identifier: 3B170A28-C8E2-4018-8166-E69432A65070 CrashReporter Key: 4a0194e3f60559127faef2b014df605e4c47b981 Hardware Model: iPad1,1 Process: Transfer [533] Path: /var/mobile/Applications/400EE394-7BEE-45CA-942D-DBDC106360FF/Transfer.app/Transfer Identifier: Transfer Version: ??? (???) Code Type: ARM (Native) Parent Process: launchd [1] Date/Time: 2010-05-04 15:37:17.505 -0700 OS Version: iPhone OS 3.2 (7B367) Report Version: 104 Exception Type: 00000020 Exception Codes: 0x8badf00d Highlighted Thread: 0 Application Specific Information: com.erclab.iphone.photodownload failed to launch in time elapsed total CPU time (seconds): 1.150 (user 0.560, system 0.590), 6% CPU elapsed application CPU time (seconds): 0.150, 1% CPU Thread 0: 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x33561996 0x33560000 + 6550 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x33564986 0x33560000 + 18822 2 libobjc.A.dylib 0x33564cb2 0x33560000 + 19634 ... The app does not do anything other than loading a local HTML into a web view after the app it's launched so I don't understand why it says "failed to launch in time" Any help will be very much appreciated.

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• Using OpenID as the only authentication method

  - by iconiK

  I have read the other questions and they mostly talk about the security of doing so. That's not entirely my concern, mostly because the website is question is a browser-based game. However, the larger issue is the user - not every user is literate enough to understand OpenID. Sure RPX makes this pretty easy, which is what I'll use, but what if the user does not have an account at Google or Facebook or whatever, or does not trust the system to log in with an existing account? They'd have to get an account at another provide - I'm sure most will know how to do it, let alone be bothered to do it. There is also the problem of how to manage it in the application. A user might want to use multiple identities with a single account, so it's not as simple as username + password to deal with. How do I store the OpenID identities of a user in the database? Using OpenID gives me a benefit too: RPX can provide extensive profile information, so I can just prefill the profile form and ask the user to edit as required. I currently have this: UserID Email ------ --------------- 86000 [email protected] 86001 [email protected] UserOpenID OpenID ---------- ------ 86000 16733 86001 16839 86002 19361 OpenID Provider Identifier ------ -------- ---------------- 16733 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bob#d36bd 16839 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bigbobby#x75af 19361 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\alice#c19fd Is that the right way to store OpenID identifiers in the database? How would I match the identifier RPX gave me with one in the database to log in the user (if the identifier is known). So here are concrete questions: How would I make it accessible to users not having an OpenID or not wanting to use one? (security concerns over say, logging in with their Google account for example) How do I store the identifier in the database? (I'm not sure if the tables above are right) What measures do I need to take in order to prevent someone from logging in as another user and happily doing anything with their account? (as I understand RPX sends the identifier via HTTP, so what anyone would have to do is to just somehow grab it then enter it in the "OpenID" field) What else do I need to be aware of when using OpenID?

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• Fixed point math in c#?

  - by x4000

  Hi there, I was wondering if anyone here knows of any good resources for fixed point math in c#? I've seen things like this (http://2ddev.72dpiarmy.com/viewtopic.php?id=156) and this (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/79677/whats-the-best-way-to-do-fixed-point-math), and a number of discussions about whether decimal is really fixed point or actually floating point (update: responders have confirmed that it's definitely floating point), but I haven't seen a solid C# library for things like calculating cosine and sine. My needs are simple -- I need the basic operators, plus cosine, sine, arctan2, PI... I think that's about it. Maybe sqrt. I'm programming a 2D RTS game, which I have largely working, but the unit movement when using floating-point math (doubles) has very small inaccuracies over time (10-30 minutes) across multiple machines, leading to desyncs. This is presently only between a 32 bit OS and a 64 bit OS, all the 32 bit machines seem to stay in sync without issue, which is what makes me think this is a floating point issue. I was aware from this as a possible issue from the outset, and so have limited my use of non-integer position math as much as possible, but for smooth diagonal movement at varying speeds I'm calculating the angle between points in radians, then getting the x and y components of movement with sin and cos. That's the main issue. I'm also doing some calculations for line segment intersections, line-circle intersections, circle-rect intersections, etc, that also probably need to move from floating-point to fixed-point to avoid cross-machine issues. If there's something open source in Java or VB or another comparable language, I could probably convert the code for my uses. The main priority for me is accuracy, although I'd like as little speed loss over present performance as possible. This whole fixed point math thing is very new to me, and I'm surprised by how little practical information on it there is on google -- most stuff seems to be either theory or dense C++ header files. Anything you could do to point me in the right direction is much appreciated; if I can get this working, I plan to open-source the math functions I put together so that there will be a resource for other C# programmers out there. UPDATE: I could definitely make a cosine/sine lookup table work for my purposes, but I don't think that would work for arctan2, since I'd need to generate a table with about 64,000x64,000 entries (yikes). If you know any programmatic explanations of efficient ways to calculate things like arctan2, that would be awesome. My math background is all right, but the advanced formulas and traditional math notation are very difficult for me to translate into code.

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• ASP.NET MVC, Webform hybrid

  - by Greg Ogle

  We (me and my team) have a ASP.NET MVC application and we are integrating a page or two that are Web Forms. We are trying to reuse the Master Page from our MVC part of the app in the WebForms part. We have found a way of rendering an MVC partial view in web forms, which works great, until we try and do a postback, which is the reason for using a WebForm. The Error: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. The Code to render the partial view from a WebForm (credited to "How to include a partial view inside a webform"): public static class WebFormMVCUtil { public static void RenderPartial(string partialName, object model) { //get a wrapper for the legacy WebForm context var httpCtx = new HttpContextWrapper(System.Web.HttpContext.Current); //create a mock route that points to the empty controller var rt = new RouteData(); rt.Values.Add("controller", "WebFormController"); //create a controller context for the route and http context var ctx = new ControllerContext( new RequestContext(httpCtx, rt), new WebFormController()); //find the partial view using the viewengine var view = ViewEngines.Engines.FindPartialView(ctx, partialName).View; //create a view context and assign the model var vctx = new ViewContext(ctx, view, new ViewDataDictionary { Model = model }, new TempDataDictionary()); //ERROR OCCURS ON THIS LINE view.Render(vctx, System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Output); } } My only experience with this error is in context of a web farm, which is not the case. Also, I understand that the machine key is used for decrypting the ViewState. Any information on how to diagnose this issue would be appreciated. A Work-around: So far the work-around is to move the header content to a PartialView, then use an AJAX call to call a page with just the Partial View from the WebForms, and then using the PartialView directly on the MVC Views. Also, we are still able to share non-tech-specific parts of the Master Page, i.e. anything that is not MVC specific. Still yet, this is not an ideal solution, a server-side solution is still desired. Also, this solutino has issues when working with controls that have more sophisticated controls, using JavaScript, particularly dynamically generated script as used by 3rd party controls.

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• Determine the 'Overtype' mode using Javascript

  - by Snorkpete

  We are creating a web app to replace an old-school green-screen application. In the green-screen app, as the user presses the Insert key to switch between overtype and insert modes, the cursor changes to indicate which input mode the user is currently in. In IE (which is the official browser of the company), overtype mode also works, but there's no visual indication as to whether overtype mode is on or not, until the user starts typing and possibly over-writes existing information unexpectedly. I'd like to put some sort of visual indicator on the screen if in overtype mode. How can you determine if the browser is in 'overtype mode' from Javascript? Is there some property or function i can query to determine if the browser is in overtype mode? Even an IE-specific solution would be helpful, since our corporate policy dictates the browser to use as IE7 (pure torture, btw). (I do know that one solution is to do check for key presses of the Insert key. However, it's a solution that I'd prefer to avoid since that method seems a bit flaky & error-prone because I can't guarantee what mode the user would be in BEFORE he/she hits my page. ) The reasoning behind this question: The functionality of this portion of the green-screen app is such that the user can select from a list of 'preformatted bodies of text'. crude eg. The excess for this policy is: $xxxxxx and max limit is:$xxxxxx Date of policy is: xx/xx/xxxx and expires : xx/xx/xxxx Some other irrelevant text After selecting this 'preformatted text', the user would then use overtype to replace the x's with actual values, without disturbing the alignment of the rest of the text. (To be clear, they can still edit any part of the 'preformatted text' if they so wished. It's just that usually, they just wish to replace specific portions of the text. Keeping the alignment is important since these sections of text can end up on printed documents.) Of course, the same effect can be achieved by just selecting the x's to replace first, but it would be helpful (with respect to easing the transition to the web app) to allow old methods of doing things to continue to work, while still allowing 'web methods' to be used by the more tech-savvy users. Essentially, we're trying to make the initial transition from the green-screen app to the web app be as seemless as possible to minimise the resistance from the long-time green-screeners.

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• Creating meaningful routes in wizard style ASP.NET MVC form

  - by R0MANARMY

  I apologize in advance for a long question, figured better have a bit more information than not enough. I'm working on an application with a fairly complex form (~100 fields on it). In order to make the UI a little more presentable the fields are organized into regions and split across multiple (~10) tabs (not unlike this, but each tab does a submit/redirect to next tab). This large input form can also be in one of 3 views (read only, editable, print friendly). The form represents a large domain object (let's call it Foo). I have a controller for said domain object (FooController). It makes sense to me to have the controller be responsible for all the CRUD related operations. Here are the problems I'm having trouble figuring out. Goals: I'd like to keep to conventions so that Foo/Create creates a new record Foo/Delete deletes a record Foo/Edit/{foo_id} takes you to the first tab of the form ...etc I'd like to be able to not repeat the data access code such that I can have Foo/Edit/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/View/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/Print/{foo_id}tab1 ...etc use the same data access code to get the data and just specify which view to use to render it. My current implementation has a massive FooController with Create, Delete, Tab1, Tab2, etc actions. Tab actions are split out into separate files for organization (using partial classes, which may or may not be abuse of partial classes). Problem I'm running into is how to organize my controller(s) and routes to make that happen. I have the default route {controller}/{action}/{id} Which handles goal 1 properly but doesn't quite play nice with goal 2. I tried to address goal 2 by defining extra routes like so: routes.MapRoute( "FooEdit", "Foo/Edit/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Edit", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooView", "Foo/View/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "View", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooPrint", "Foo/Print/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Print", id = (string)null } ); However defining these extra routes causes the Url.Action to generate routs like Foo/Edit/Create instead of Foo/Create. That leads me to believe I designed something very very wrong, but this is my first attempt an asp.net mvc project and I don't know any better. Any advice with this particular situation would be awesome, but feedback on design in similar projects is welcome.

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