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• ASP.Net / MySQL : Translating content into several languages

  - by philwilks

  I have an ASP.Net website which uses a MySQL database for the back end. The website is an English e-commerce system, and we are looking at the possibility of translating it into about five other languages (French, Spanish etc). We will be getting human translators to perform the translation - we've looked at automated services but these aren't good enough. The static text on the site (e.g. headings, buttons etc) can easily be served up in multiple languages via .Net's built in localization features (resx files etc). The thing that I'm not so sure about it how best to store and retrieve the multi-language content in the database. For example, there is a products table that includes these fields... productId (int) categoryId (int) title (varchar) summary (varchar) description (text) features (text) The title, summary, description and features text would need to be available in all the different languages. Here are the two options that I've come up with... Create additional field for each language For example we could have titleEn, titleFr, titleEs etc for all the languages, and repeat this for all text columns. We would then adapt our code to use the appropriate field depending on the language selected. This feels a bit hacky, and also would lead to some very large tables. Also, if we wanted to add additional languages in the future it would be time consuming to add even more columns. Use a lookup table We could create a new table with the following format... textId | languageId | content ------------------------------- 10 | EN | Car 10 | FR | Voiture 10 | ES | Coche 11 | EN | Bike 11 | FR | Vélo We'd then adapt our products table to reference the appropriate textId for the title, summary, description and features instead of having the text stored in the product table. This seems much more elegant, but I can't think of a simple way of getting this data out of the database and onto the page without using complex SQL statements. Of course adding new languages in the future would be very simple compared to the previous option. I'd be very grateful for any suggestions about the best way to achieve this! Is there any "best practice" guidance out there? Has anyone done this before?

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• Recommended ASP.NET Shared Hosting

  - by coffeeaddict

  Ok, I have to admit I'm getting fed up with www.discountasp.net's pricing model and this annoyance has built up over the past 8 years or so. I've been with them for years and absolutely love them on the technical side, however it's getting ridiculously expensive for so little that you get. I mean here's my scenario: 1) I am running 2 SQL Server databases which costs me $10/ea per month so that's $20/month for 2 and I only get 500 mb disk space which is horrible 2) I am paying $10/mo just for the hosting itself which I only get 1 gig of disk space! I mean common! 3) I am simply running 2 small apps (Screwturn Wiki & Subtext Blog)...so I don't really care if it's up 99% or not, it's not worth paying a total of $300 just to keep these 2 apps running over discountasp.net Anyone else feel the same? Yes, I know they have great support, probably have great servers running behind this but in the end I really don't care as long as my site is up 95% or better. Yes, the hosting toolset rocks. But you know I bet you I can find a similar set somewhere else. I like how I can totally control IIS 7 at discountasp and I can control my own app pool etc. That's very powerful and essential. But anyone have any good alternatives to discountasp that gives me close to the same at a much more reasonable cost point? I mean http://www.m6.net/prices.aspx gives you 10 SQL Databases for $7 and 200 gigs disk space! I don't know about their tools or support but just looking at those numbers and some other hosts I've seen, I feel that discountasp.net is way out of line. They don't even offer any purchasing discounts such as it would be nice if my 2nd SQL Server is only $5/month not $10...stuff like this, to make it much more realistic and fair. Opinions (people who do have discountasp.net, people who have left them, or people who have another host they like)??? But geez $300 just to host a couple DBs and lightweight open source apps? Not worth the price they are charging. I'm almost at a price point that enables me to get a decent dedicated server! I really don't care about beta support. Not a big deal to me.

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• codeIgniter: pass parameter to a select query from previous query

  - by krike

  I'm creating a little management tool for the browser game travian. So I select all the villages from the database and I want to display some content that's unique to each of the villages. But in order to query for those unique details I need to pass the id of the village. How should I do this? this is my code (controller): function members_area() { global $site_title; $this->load->model('membership_model'); if($this->membership_model->get_villages()) { $data['rows'] = $this->membership_model->get_villages(); $id = 1;//this should be dynamic, but how? if($this->membership_model->get_tasks($id)): $data['tasks'] = $this->membership_model->get_tasks($id); endif; } $data['title'] = $site_title." | Your account"; $data['main_content'] = 'account'; $this->load->view('template', $data); } and this is the 2 functions I'm using in the model: function get_villages() { $q = $this->db->get('villages'); if($q->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($q->result() as $row) { $data[] = $row; } return $data; } } function get_tasks($id) { $this->db->select('name'); $this->db->from('tasks'); $this->db->where('villageid', $id); $q = $this->db->get(); if($q->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($q->result() as $task) { $data[] = $task; } return $data; } } and of course the view: <?php foreach($rows as $r) : ?> <div class="village"> <h3><?php echo $r->name; ?></h3> <ul> <?php foreach($tasks as $task): ?> <li><?php echo $task->name; ?></li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul> <?php echo anchor('site/add_village/'.$r->id.'', '+ add new task'); ?> </div> <?php endforeach; ?> ps: please do not remove the comment in the first block of code!

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• HTTP Handlers in Win2008/IIS7

  - by Keith Barrows

  We are migrating our web sites from Win2003/IIS6 to Win2008/IIS7. Our .NET code is in a WAP form with compiled binaries. I do dev work on a Win7/IIS7 box so had to learn early how to set up HTTP Handlers in this newer environment. What I have that has worked fine on my box is: <system.webServer> <handlers> <remove name="WebServiceHandlerFactory-Integrated" /> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactory" /> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" /> <remove name="ScriptResource" /> <add name="RivWorks" path="*.riv" verb="*" modules="IsapiModule" scriptProcessor="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll" resourceType="Unspecified" requireAccess="Script" preCondition="classicMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness32" /> <add name="RivWorks2" path="*.riv2" verb="*" modules="IsapiModule" scriptProcessor="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll" resourceType="Unspecified" requireAccess="Script" preCondition="classicMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness32" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactory" verb="*" path="*.asmx" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" verb="*" path="*_AppService.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptResource" verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> </handlers> All I am getting on the new web site when I try to call into the *.riv handler is: 404 - File or directory not found. The resource you are looking for might have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. OK. You see interesting things when writing out these questions. Our server is setup in integrated mode and runs on a x64 system. So, I changed the precondition clause to: preCondition="integratedMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness64" Now I get this instead: 500 - Internal server error. There is a problem with the resource you are looking for, and it cannot be displayed. Any ideas of what I should be doing, where I should be looking? TIA

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• Android - binding to service

  - by tommy

  Hi: I can't seem to get an activity to bind to a service in the same package. The activity looks like this: public class myApp extends TabActivity { static private String TAG = "myApp"; private myService mService = null; private ServiceConnection mServiceConn = new ServiceConnection(){ public void onServiceConnected(ComponentName name, IBinder service) { Log.v(TAG, "Service: " + name + " connected"); mService = ((myService.myBinder)service).getService(); } public void onServiceDisconnected(ComponentName name) { Log.v(TAG, "Service: " + name + " disconnected"); } }; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); doBind(); Log.i(TAG, "Started (UI Thread)"); // set content setContentView(R.layout.main); Resources res = getResources(); // Resource object to get Drawables TabHost tabHost = getTabHost(); // The activity TabHost ... add some tabs here.... tabHost.setCurrentTab(0); } private void doBind(){ Intent i = new Intent(this,myService.class); if( bindService(i, mServiceConn, 0 )){ Log.i(TAG, "Service bound"); } else { Log.e(TAG, "Service not bound"); } } } Then the service: public class myService extends Service { private String TAG = "myService"; private boolean mRunning = false; @Override public int onStartCommand(Intent intent, int flags, int startid) { Log.i(TAG,"Service start"); mRunning = true; Log.d(TAG,"Finished onStartCommand"); return START_STICKY; } /* * Called on service stop */ @Override public void onDestroy(){ Log.i(TAG,"onDestroy"); mRunning = false; super.onDestroy(); } @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent intent) { return mBinder; } boolean isRunning() { return mRunning; } /* * class for binding */ private final IBinder mBinder = new myBinder(); public class myBinder extends Binder { myService getService() { return myService.this; } } } bindService returns true, but onServiceConnection is never called (mService is always null, so I can't do something like mService.isRunning() ) The manifest entry for the service is just: <service android:name=".myService"></service> I was copying the code direct from the Android developers site, but I must have missed something.

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• How to manually (bitwise) perform (float)x? (homework)

  - by Silver

  Now, here is the function header of the function I'm supposed to implement: /* * float_from_int - Return bit-level equivalent of expression (float) x * Result is returned as unsigned int, but * it is to be interpreted as the bit-level representation of a * single-precision floating point values. * Legal ops: Any integer/unsigned operations incl. ||, &&. also if, while * Max ops: 30 * Rating: 4 */ unsigned float_from_int(int x) { ... } We aren't allowed to do float operations, or any kind of casting. Now I tried to implement the first algorithm given at this site: http://locklessinc.com/articles/i2f/ Here's my code: unsigned float_from_int(int x) { // grab sign bit int xIsNegative = 0; int absValOfX = x; if(x < 0){ xIsNegative = 1; absValOfX = -x; } // zero case if(x == 0){ return 0; } //int shiftsNeeded = 0; /*while(){ shiftsNeeded++; }*/ unsigned I2F_MAX_BITS = 15; unsigned I2F_MAX_INPUT = ((1 << I2F_MAX_BITS) - 1); unsigned I2F_SHIFT = (24 - I2F_MAX_BITS); unsigned result, i, exponent, fraction; if ((absValOfX & I2F_MAX_INPUT) == 0) result = 0; else { exponent = 126 + I2F_MAX_BITS; fraction = (absValOfX & I2F_MAX_INPUT) << I2F_SHIFT; i = 0; while(i < I2F_MAX_BITS) { if (fraction & 0x800000) break; else { fraction = fraction << 1; exponent = exponent - 1; } i++; } result = (xIsNegative << 31) | exponent << 23 | (fraction & 0x7fffff); } return result; } But it didn't work (see test error below): Test float_from_int(-2147483648[0x80000000]) failed... ...Gives 0[0x0]. Should be -822083584[0xcf000000] 4 4 0 float_times_four I don't know where to go from here. How should I go about parsing the float from this int?

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• Authlogic Help! Registering a new user when currently logged-in as a user not working.

  - by looloobs

  Hi Just as a disclaimer I am new to rails and programming in general so apologize for misunderstanding something obvious. I have Authlogic with activation up and running. So for my site I would like my users who are logged in to be able to register other users. The new user would pick their login and password through the activation email, but the existing user needs to put them in by email, position and a couple other attributes. I want that to be done by the existing user. The problem I am running into, if I am logged in and then try and create a new user it just tries to update the existing user and doesn't create a new one. I am not sure if there is some way to fix this by having another session start??? If that is even right/possible I wouldn't know how to go about implementing it. I realize without knowing fully about my application it may be difficult to answer this, but does this even sound like the right way to go about this? Am I missing something here? Users Controller: class UsersController < ApplicationController before_filter :require_no_user, :only => [:new, :create] before_filter :require_user, :only => [:show, :edit, :update] def new @user = User.new end def create @user = User.new if @user.signup!(params) @user.deliver_activation_instructions! flash[:notice] = "Your account has been created. Please check your e-mail for your account activation instructions!" redirect_to profile_url else render :action => :new end end def show @user = @current_user end def edit @user = @current_user end def update @user = @current_user # makes our views "cleaner" and more consistent if @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) flash[:notice] = "Account updated!" redirect_to profile_url else render :action => :edit end end end My User_Session Controller: class UserSessionsController < ApplicationController before_filter :require_no_user, :only => [:new, :create] before_filter :require_user, :only => :destroy def new @user_session = UserSession.new end def create @user_session = UserSession.new(params[:user_session]) if @user_session.save flash[:notice] = "Login successful!" if @user_session.user.position == 'Battalion Commander' : redirect_to battalion_path(@user_session.user.battalion_id) else end else render :action => :new end end def destroy current_user_session.destroy flash[:notice] = "Logout successful!" redirect_back_or_default new_user_session_url end end

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• I get an `Cannot read property 'slice' of undefined` message when I use the scrollTo jQuery plugin inside this function

  - by alexchenco

  I'm using the jQuery scrollTo plugin. I get this error in my JS Console: 16827Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'slice' of undefined d.fn.scrollToindex.html.js:16827 jQuery.extend.eachindex.html.js:662 d.fn.scrollToindex.html.js:16827 jQuery.extend.eachindex.html.js:662 jQuery.fn.jQuery.eachindex.html.js:276 d.fn.scrollToindex.html.js:16827 popupPlaceindex.html.js:18034 (anonymous function)index.html.js:17745 jQuery.extend._Deferred.deferred.resolveWithindex.html.js:1018 doneindex.html.js:7247 jQuery.ajaxTransport.send.script.onload.script.onreadystatechange When I place $(".menu").scrollTo( $("li.matched").attr("id"), 800 ); inside it. function popupPlace(dict) { $popup = $('div#dish-popup'); $popup.render(dict,window.dishPopupTemplate); if(typeof(dict.dish) === 'undefined') { $popup.addClass('place-only'); } else { $popup.removeClass('place-only'); } var $place = $('div#dish-popup div.place'); var place_id = dict.place._id; if(liked[place_id]) { $place.addClass('liked'); } else { $place.removeClass('liked'); } if(dict.place.likes) { $place.addClass('has-likes'); } else { $place.addClass('zero-likes'); } var tokens = window.currentSearchTermTokens; var tokenRegex = tokens && new RegExp($.map(tokens, RegExp.escape).join('|'), 'gi'); $.each(dict.place.products, function(n, product) { $product = $('#menu-item-'+product.id); if(liked[place_id+'/'+product.id]) { $product.addClass('liked'); } if(tokens && matchesDish(product, tokens)) { $product.addClass('matched'); $product.highlight(tokenRegex); } else { $product.removeClass('matched'); $product.removeHighlight(); } if(product.likes) { $product.addClass('has-likes'); } else { $product.addClass('zero-likes'); } }); $('#overlay').show(); $('#dish-popup-container').show(); // Scroll to matched dish //$("a#scrolll").attr("href", "#" + $("li.matched").attr("id")); //$("a#scrolll").attr("href", "#" + $("li.matched").attr("id")); //$("a#scrolll").trigger("click"); $(".menu").scrollTo( $("li.matched").attr("id"), 800 ); // Hide dish results on mobile devices to prevent having a blank space at the bottom of the site if (Modernizr.mq('only screen and (max-width: 640px)')) { $('ol.results').hide(); } $(".close-dish-popup").click(function() { $("#overlay").hide(); $("#dish-popup-container").hide(); $('ol.results').show(); changeState({}, ['dish', 'place', 'serp']); }); showPopupMap(dict.place, "dish-popup-map"); } Any suggestion to fix this?

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• How to unset an ajax loading.

  - by metacortex

  Hi, I have this script which loads external content: <script type="text/javascript"> var http_request = false; function makePOSTRequest(url, parameters) { http_request = false; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { http_request = new XMLHttpRequest(); if (http_request.overrideMimeType) { http_request.overrideMimeType('text/html'); } } else if (window.ActiveXObject) { try { http_request = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { try { http_request = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) {} } } if (!http_request) { alert('Cannot create XMLHTTP instance'); return false; } http_request.onreadystatechange = alertContents; http_request.open('POST', url, true); http_request.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); http_request.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameters.length); http_request.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); http_request.send(parameters); } function alertContents() { if (http_request.readyState == 4) { if (http_request.status == 200) { result = http_request.responseText; document.getElementById('opciones').innerHTML = result; } else { alert('Hubo un problema con la operación.'); } } } function get(obj) { var poststr = "port_post=" + encodeURI( document.getElementById("port-post").value ); makePOSTRequest('http://www.site.com/inc/metaform.php?opcion='+ encodeURI( document.getElementById("port-post").value ), poststr); } </script> This is the select that retrieves the content: <select name="port_post" id="port-post" onchange="get(this.parentNode);"> <option value="1">Select one...</option> <option value="2">Pear</option> <option value="3">Pineapple</option> </select> And this is the container div: <div id="opciones">Default content</div> All I whish to know is how I can unset the ajax loading when I change the selection to "Select one...". I wish to say, how restoring the Default content once the "Select one..." option is selected.

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• Improving Javascript Load Times - Concatenation vs Many + Cache

  - by El Yobo

  I'm wondering which of the following is going to result in better performance for a page which loads a large amount of javascript (jQuery + jQuery UI + various other javascript files). I have gone through most of the YSlow and Google Page Speed stuff, but am left wondering about a particular detail. A key thing for me here is that the site I'm working on is not on the public net; it's a business to business platform where almost all users are repeat visitors (and therefore with caches of the data, which is something that YSlow assumes will not be the case for a large number of visitors). First up, the standard approach recommended by tools such as YSlow is to concatenate it, compress it, and serve it up in a single file loaded at the end of your page. This approach sounds reasonably effective, but I think that a key part of the reasoning here is to improve performance for users without cached data. The system I currently have is something like this * All javascript files are compressed and loaded at the bottom of the page * All javascript files have far future cache expiration dates, so will remain (for most users) in the cache for a long time * Pages only load the javascript files that they require, rather than loading one monolithic file, most of which will not be required Now, my understanding is that, if the cache expiration date for a javascript file has not been reached, then the cached version is used immediately; there is no HTTP request sent at to the server at all. If this is correct, I would assume that having multiple tags is not causing any performance penalty, as I'm still not having any additional requests on most pages (recalling from above that almost all users have populated caches). In addition to this, not loading the JS means that the browser doesn't have to interpret or execute all this additional code which it isn't going to need; as a B2B application, most of our users are unfortunately stuck with IE6 and its painfully slow JS engine. Another benefit is that, when code changes, only the affected files need to be fetched again, rather than the whole set (granted, it would only need to be fetched once, so this is not so much of a benefit). I'm also looking at using LabJS to allow for parallel loading of the JS when it's not cached. So, what do people think is a better approach? In a similar vein, what do you think about a similar approach to CSS - is monolithic better?

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• Dynamically loaded jQuery with GreaseMonkey inconsistent on pages (refreshing seems to fix it)... do

  - by uprightnetizen

  Hi, I want a custom page analysis footer on every site I visit... so I've used a method to attach JQuery to unsafeWindow. I then create a floating footer on the page. I want to be able to call commands in a menu, do some processing, then put the results in the footer. Unfortunately it sometimes works, sometimes it doesn't. At least two alerts should happen in the printOutput function. Sometimes it only fires one, then it (crashes?) without error? On other pages, both alerts fire and it finds the element, but it doesn't add the extra text. (e.g. www.linode.com) Refreshing the page, then running the printOutput command again seems to always work. Does anyone know what's going on??? The userscript can be installed at: http://www.captionwizard.com/test/page_analysis.user.js // ==UserScript== // @name page_analysis // @namespace markspace // @description Page Analysis // @include http://*/* // ==/UserScript== (function() { // Add jQuery var GM_JQ = document.createElement('script'); GM_JQ.src = 'http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js'; GM_JQ.type = 'text/javascript'; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(GM_JQ); var jqueryActive = false; //Check if jQuery's loaded function GM_wait() { if(typeof unsafeWindow.jQuery == 'undefined') { window.setTimeout(GM_wait,100); } else { $ = unsafeWindow.jQuery; letsJQuery(); } } GM_wait(); function letsJQuery() { jqueryActive = true; setupOutputFooter(); } /******************************* Analysis FOOTER Functions ******************************/ function printOutput(someText) { alert('printing output'); if($('div.analysis_footer').length) { alert('is here - appending'); $('div.analysis_footer').append('<br>' + someText); } else { alert('not here - trying again'); setupOutputFooter(); $('div.analysis_footer').append('<br>' + someText); } } GM_registerMenuCommand("Test Output", testOutput, "k", "control", "k" ); function testOutput() { printOutput('testing this'); } function setupOutputFooter() { $('<div class="analysis_footer">Page Analysis Footer:</div>').appendTo('body'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('position','fixed').css('bottom', '0px').css('background-color','#F8F8F8'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('width','100%').css('color','#3B3B3B').css('font-size', '0.8em'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('font-family', '"Myriad",Verdana,Arial,Helvetica,sans-serif').css('padding', '5px'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('border-top', '1px solid black').css('text-align', 'left'); } }());

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• jQuery action being called when selector isn't met?

  - by dougoftheabaci

  I've been working on a prototype for a client's web site and I've run into a rather significant snag. You can view the prototype here. As you can see, the way it works is you can scroll a set of slides horizontally and, by clicking one, open a stack containing yet more slides. If you then click again on an image in that stack it opens up a lightbox. Clicking on another stack or the close button will close that stack (and open another, as case may be). That all works great. However you get some weird behavior if you do the following: Click to open any stack. Click to open an image's light box (this works best if you click on the image that's level with the main list). Close the light box and the stack either by clicking the close button or clicking on another stack. Click back to the first stack. Instead of reopening the stack, you get the lightbox. This confuses me as the light box should only ever be called if there is a class on the containing UL and that class is removed when the lightbox is closed. I've checked and double-checked this, it's definitely missing. Here are the respective functions: $("ul.hide a.lightbox").live("click",function(){ $("ul.show").removeClass("show").addClass("hide"); $(this).parent().parent().removeClass("hide").addClass("show"); $("ul.hide").animate({opacity: 0.2}); $("ul.show").animate({opacity: 1}); $("#next").animate({opacity: 0.2}); $("#prev").animate({opacity: 0.2}); return false; }); $("ul.show a.lightbox").live("click",function(){ $(this).fancybox().trigger("click"); return false; }); As you can see, in order for the lightbox to be called the containing UL has to have the class of show. However, if you check it with Firebug it won't. For those who are curious, the added .trigger("click"); is because the lightbox will require a double-click to launch otherwise. Any idea how I can fix this?

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• current_user.user_type_id = @employer ID

  - by sscirrus

  I am building a system with a User model (authenticated using AuthLogic) and three user types in three models: one of these models is Employer. Each of these three models has_many :users, :as = :authenticable. I start by having a new visitor to the site create their own 'User' record with username, password, which user type they are, etc. Upon creation, the user is sent to the 'new' action for one of the three models. So, if they tell us they are an employer, we redirect_to :controller = "employers, :action = "new". Question: When the employer has submitted, I want to set the current_user.user_type_id equal to the employer ID. This should be simple... but it's not working. # Employers Controller / new def new @employer = Employer.new 1.times {@employer.addresses.build} render :layout => 'forms' end # Employers Controller / create def create @employer = Employer.new(params[:employer]) if @employer.save if current_user.blank? redirect_to :controller => "users", :action => "new" else current_user.user_type_id = @employer.id current_user.user_type = "Employer" redirect_to :action => "home", :id => current_user.user_type_id end else render :action => "new" end end ------UPDATE------ Hi guys. In response: I am using this table structure because each of my three user type models have lots of different fields and each has different relationships to the other models, which is why I've avoided STI. By 1.times (@employer.addresses.build) I'm connecting the employer model to the address polymorphic table in one form, so I'm asking the controller to build a new address to go along with the new employer. Averell: you mentioned encapsulating... something in the model using a 'setter' method. I have no idea what you mean by this - could you please explain how this works (or direct me to an example elsewhere)? With tsdbrown's answer I have managed to create the behavior I want... if there's a more elegant way to accomplish the same thing I'd love to learn how. Thanks very much. Thanks to tsdbrown for answering the current_user.save problem!

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• javascript multidimensional array?

  - by megapool020

  Hi there, I hope I can make myself clear in English and in what I want to create. I first start with what I want. I want to make a IBANcalculator that can generate 1-n IBANnumbers and also validate a given IBANnumber. IBANnumbers are used in many countries for payment and the tool I want to make can be used to generate the numbers for testing purpose. On wikipedia (Dutch site) I found a list with countries and their way of defining the IBANnumber. What I want to do it to make a kind of an array that holds all the countries with their name, the code, there IBANlength, the bankingformat and the account format. The array needs to be used to: Generate a select list (for selecting a country) used to check part for generating numbers used to check part for validating number I don't know if an array is the best way, but that's so far the most knowledge I have. I allready made a table like this that holds the info (this table isn't used anyware, but it was a good way for me to show you what I have in mind about how the structure is): <table> <tr> <td>countryname</td> <td>country code</td> <td>valid IBAN length</td> <td>Bank/Branch Code (check1, bank, branch)</td> <td>Account Number (check2, number, check3)</td> <tr> <tr> <td>Andorra</td> <td>AD</td> <td>24</td> <td>0 4n 4n</td> <td>0 12 0 </td> <tr> <tr> <td>België</td> <td>BE</td> <td>16</td> <td>0 3n 0 </td> <td>0 7n 2n</td> <tr> <tr> <td>Bosnië-Herzegovina</td> <td>BA</td> <td>20</td> <td>0 3n 3n</td> <td>0 8n 2n</td> <tr> </table> and many more ;-) I hope someone can help me with this. Tnx in advance

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• C# Getting a node with attributes from SelectSingleNode

  - by bdefreese

  Hi folks, I am quite the n00b but lately I have been playing with parsing some XML data. I actually found a nice feature on this site where I can get to a specific node with a specific attribute by doing: docFoo.SelectSingleNode("foo/bar/baz[@name='qux']); However, the data looks like this: <saving-throws> <saving-throw> <name>Fortitude</name> <abbr>Fort</abbr> <ability>Con</ability> <modifiers> <modifier name="base" value="2"/> <modifier name="ability" value="5"/> <modifier name="magic" value="0"/> <modifier name="feat" value="0"/> <modifier name="race" value="0"/> <modifier name="familar" value="0"/> <modifier name="feature" value="0"/> <modifier name="user" value="0"/> <modifier name="misc" value="0"/> </modifiers> </saving-throw> <saving-throw> <name>Reflex</name> <abbr>Ref</abbr> <ability>Dex</ability> <modifiers> <modifier name="base" value="6"/> <modifier name="ability" value="1"/> <modifier name="magic" value="0"/> <modifier name="feat" value="0"/> <modifier name="race" value="0"/> <modifier name="familar" value="0"/> <modifier name="feature" value="0"/> <modifier name="user" value="0"/> <modifier name="misc" value="0"/> </modifiers> </saving-throw> And I want to be able to get the node with name=base but for each saving-throw node where childnode "abbr" = xx. Can I somehow do that in a single SelectSingleNode or am I going to have to stop at saving throw and walk through the rest of the tree? Thanks!

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• Architecture Suggestions/Recommendations for a Web Application with Sub-Apps

  - by user579218

  Hello. I’m starting to plan an architecture for a big web application, and I wanted to get suggestions and/or recommendations on where to begin and which technologies and/or frameworks to use. The application will be an Intranet-based web site using Windows authentication, running on IIS and using SQL Server and ASP.NET. It’ll need to be structured as a main/shell application with sub-applications that are “pluggable” based on some configuration settings. The main or shell application is to provide the overall user interface structure – header/footer, dynamically built tabs for each available sub-app, and a content area in which the sub-application will be loaded when the user clicks on the sub-application’s tab. So, on start-up of the main/shell application, configuration information will be queried from a database, and, based on the user and which of the sub-apps are available, the main or shell app would dynamically build tabs (or buttons or something) as a way to access each individual application. On start-up, the content area will be populated with the “home” sub-app. But, clicking on an sub-app tab will cause the content area to be populated with the sub-app corresponding to the tab. For example, we’re going to have a reports application, a display application, and probably a couple other distinct applications. On startup of the main/shell application, after determining who the user is, the main app will query the database to determine which sub-apps the user can use and build out the UI. Then the user can navigate between available sub-apps and do their work in each. Finally, the entire app and all sub-apps need to be a layered design with presentation, service, business, and data access layers, as well as cross-cutting objects for things such as logging, exception handling, etc. Anyway, my questions revolve around where to begin to plan something like this application. What technologies/frameworks would work best in developing a solution for this application? MVC? MVP? WCSF? EF? NHibernate? Enterprise Library? Repository Pattern? Others???? I know all these technologies/frameworks are not used for the same purpose, but knowing which ones to focus on is a little overwhelming. Which ones would be the best choice(s) for a solution? Which ones work well together for an end-to-end design? How would one structure the VS project for something like this? Thanks!

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• How to Transfer Large File from MS Word Add-In (VBA) to Web Server?

  - by Ian Robinson

  Overview I have a Microsoft Word Add-In, written in VBA (Visual Basic for Applications), that compresses a document and all of it's related contents (embedded media) into a zip archive. After creating the zip archive it then turns the file into a byte array and posts it to an ASMX web service. This mostly works. Issues The main issue I have is transferring large files to the web site. I can successfully upload a file that is around 40MB, but not one that is 140MB (timeout/general failure). A secondary issue is that building the byte array in the VBScript Word Add-In can fail by running out of memory on the client machine if the zip archive is too large. Potential Solutions I am considering the following options and am looking for feedback on either option or any other suggestions. Option One Opening a file stream on the client (MS Word VBA) and reading one "chunk" at a time and transmitting to ASMX web service which assembles the "chunks" into a file on the server. This has the benefit of not adding any additional dependencies or components to the application, I would only be modifying existing functionality. (Fewer dependencies is better as this solution should work in a variety of server environments and be relatively easy to set up.) Question: Are there examples of doing this or any recommended techniques (either on the client in VBA or in the web service in C#/VB.NET)? Option Two I understand WCF may provide a solution to the issue of transferring large files by "chunking" or streaming data. However, I am not very familiar with WCF, and am not sure what exactly it is capable of or if I can communicate with a WCF service from VBA. This has the downside of adding another dependency (.NET 3.0). But if using WCF is definitely a better solution I may not mind taking that dependency. Questions: Does WCF reliably support large file transfers of this nature? If so, what does this involve? Any resources or examples? Are you able to call a WCF service from VBA? Any examples?

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• Damaged data when gzipping

  - by RadiantHeart

  This is the script I hva written for gzipping content on my site, which is located in 'gzip.php'. The way i use it is that on pages where I want to enable gzipping i include the file at the top and at the bottom i call the output function like this: print_gzipped_page('javascript') If the file is a css-file i use 'css' as the $type-argument and if its a php file i call the function without declaring any arguments. The script works fine in all browsers except Opera which gives an error saying it could not decode the page due to damaged data. Can anyone tell me what I have done wrong? <?php function print_gzipped_page($type = false) { if(headers_sent()){ $encoding = false; } elseif( strpos($_SERVER['HTTP_ACCEPT_ENCODING'], 'x-gzip') !== false ){ $encoding = 'x-gzip'; } elseif( strpos($_SERVER['HTTP_ACCEPT_ENCODING'],'gzip') !== false ){ $encoding = 'gzip'; } else{ $encoding = false; } if ($type!=false) { $type_header_array = array("css" => "Content-Type: text/css", "javascript" => "Content-Type: application/x-javascript"); $type_header = $type_header_array[$type]; } $contents = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $etag = '"' . md5($contents) . '"'; $etag_header = 'Etag: ' . $etag; header($etag_header); if ($type!=false) { header($type_header); } if (isset($_SERVER['HTTP_IF_NONE_MATCH']) and $_SERVER['HTTP_IF_NONE_MATCH']==$etag) { header("HTTP/1.1 304 Not Modified"); exit(); } if($encoding){ header('Content-Encoding: '.$encoding); print("\x1f\x8b\x08\x00\x00\x00\x00\x00"); $size = strlen($contents); $contents = gzcompress($contents, 9); $contents = substr($contents, 0, $size); } echo $contents; exit(); } ob_start(); ob_implicit_flush(0); ?> Additional info: The script works if the length og the document beeing compressed is only 10-15 characters.

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• How to store array of NSManagedObjects in an NSManagedObject

  - by David Tay

  I am loading my app with a property list of data from a web site. This property list file contains an NSArray of NSDictionaries which itself contains an NSArray of NSDictionaries. Basically, I'm trying to load a tableView of restaurant menu categories each of which contains menu items. My property list file is fine. I am able to load the file and loop through the nodes structure creating NSEntityDescriptions and am able to save to Core Data. Everything works fine and expectedly except that in my menu category managed object, I have an NSArray of menu items for that category. Later on, when I fetch the categories, the pointers to the menu items in a category is lost and I get all the menu items. Am I suppose to be using predicates or does Core Data keep track of my object graph for me? Can anyone look at how I am loading Core Data and point out the flaw in my logic? I'm pretty good with either SQL and OOP by themselves, but am a little bewildered by ORM. I thought that I should just be able to use aggregation in my managed objects and that the framework would keep track of the pointers for me, but apparently not. NSError *error; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://foo.com"]; NSArray *categories = [[NSArray alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url]; NSMutableArray *menuCategories = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; for (int i=0; i<[categories count]; i++){ MenuCategory *menuCategory = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"MenuCategory" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]; NSDictionary *category = [categories objectAtIndex:i]; menuCategory.name = [category objectForKey:@"name"]; NSArray *items = [category objectForKey:@"items"]; NSMutableArray *menuItems = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; for (int j=0; j<[items count]; j++){ MenuItem *menuItem = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"MenuItem" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]; NSDictionary *item = [items objectAtIndex:j]; menuItem.name = [item objectForKey:@"name"]; menuItem.price = [item objectForKey:@"price"]; menuItem.image = [item objectForKey:@"image"]; menuItem.details = [item objectForKey:@"details"]; [menuItems addObject:menuItem]; } [menuCategory setValue:menuItems forKey:@"menuItems"]; [menuCategories addObject:menuCategory]; [menuItems release]; } if (![[self managedObjectContext] save:&error]) { NSLog(@"An error occurred: %@", [error localizedDescription]); }

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• DataGridView live display of datatable using virtual mode

  - by Chris

  I have a DataGridView that will display records (log entries) from a database. The amount of records that can exist at a time is very large. I would like to use the virtual mode feature of the DataGridView to display a page of data, and to minimize the amount of data that has to be transferred across a network at a given time. Polling for data is out of the question. There will be several clients running at a time, all of which are on the same network and viewing the records. If they all poll for data, the network will run very slowly. The data is read-only to the user; they won't be able to edit any of it, just view it. I need to know when updates occur in the database, and I need to update the screen with those updates accordingly using virtual mode. If a page of data a user is viewing contains data that has change, he/she will see those updates on that page. If updates were made to data in the database, but not in the data the user is viewing, then not much really changes on the user screen (Maybe just the scroll bar if records were added or removed). My current approach is using SQL server change tracking with the sync framework. Each client has a local SQL Server CE instance and database file that is kept in sync with the main database server. I use the information from the synchronization event to see if any changes were made to the main database and were sync'ed to the client. I need to use the DataGridView virtual mode here because I can't have thousands of records loaded into the DataGridView at once, otherwise memory usage goes through the roof. The main challenge right now is knowing how to use virtual mode to provide a seamless experience to the user by allowing them to scroll up and down through the records, and also have records update on the fly without interfering with the user inappropriately. Has anybody dealt with this issue before, and if so, where I can see how they did it? I've gone through some of the MSDN documentation and examples on virtual mode. So far, I haven't found documentation and/or examples on their site that explains how to do what I am trying to accomplish.

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• Patterns for dynamic CMS components (event driven?)

  - by CitrusTree

  Sorry my title is not great, this is my first real punt at moving 100% to OO as I've been procedural for more years than I can remember. I'm finding it hard to understand if what I'm trying to do is possible. Depending on people's thoughts on the 2 following points, I'll go down that route. The CMS I'm putting together is quote small, however focuses very much on different types of content. I could easily use Drupal which I'm very comfortable with, but I want to give myself a really good reasons to move myself into design patterns / OO-PHP 1) I have created a base 'content' class which I wish to be able to extend to handle different types of content. The base class, for example, handles HTML content, and extensions might handle XML or PDF output instead. On the other hand, at some point I may wish to extend the base class for a given project completely. I.e. if class 'content-v2' extended class 'content' for that site, any calls to that class should actually call 'content-v2' instead. Is that possible? If the code instantiates an object of type 'content' - I actually want it to instantiate one of type 'content-v2'... I can see how to do it using inheritance, but that appears to involve referring to the class explicitly, I can't see how to link the class I want it to use instead dynamically. 2) Secondly, the way I'm building this at the moment is horrible, I'm not happy with it. It feels very linear indeed - i.e. get session details get content build navigation theme page publish. To do this all the objects are called 1-by-1 which is all very static. I'd like it to be more dynamic so that I can add to it at a later date (very closely related to first question). Is there a way that instead of my orchestrator class calling all the other classes 1-by-1, then building the whole thing up at the end, that instead each of the other classes can 'listen' for specific events, then at the applicable point jump in and do their but? That way the orchestrator class would not need to know what other classes were required, and call them 1-by-1. Sorry if I've got this all twisted in my head. I'm trying to build this so it's really flexible.

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• How can I fix this touch event / draw loop "deadlock"?

  - by Josh

  Just want to start out by saying this seems like a great site, hope you guys can help! I'm trying to use the structure laid out in LunarLander to create a simple game in which the user can drag some bitmaps around on the screen (the actual game is more complex, but that's not important). I ripped out the irrelevant parts of LanderLander, and set up my own bitmap drawing, something like BoardThread (an inner class of BoardView): run() { while(mRun) { canvas = lockSurfaceHolder... syncronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* drawStuff using member position fields in BoardView */ } unlockSurfaceHolder } } My drawStuff simply walks through some arrays and throws bitmaps onto the canvas. All that works fine. Then I wanted to start handling touch events so that when the user presses a bitmap, it is selected, when the user unpresses a bitmap, it is deselected, and if a bitmap is selected during a touch move event, the bitmap is dragged. I did this stuff by listening for touch events in the BoardView's parent, BoardActivity, and passing them down into the BoardView. Something like In BoardView handleTouchEvent(MotionEvent e) { synchronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* Modify shared member fields in BoardView so BoardThread can render the bitmaps */ } } This ALSO works fine. I can drag my tiles around the screen no problem. However, every once in a while, when the app first starts up and I trigger my first touch event, the handleTouchEvent stops executing at the synchronized line (as viewed in DDMS). The drawing loop is active during this time (I can tell because a timer changes onscreen), and it usually takes several seconds or more before a bunch of touch events come through the pipeline and everything is fine again. This doesn't seem like deadlock to me, since the draw loop is constantly going in and out of its syncronized block. Shouldn't this allow the event handling thread to grab a lock on mSurfaceHolder? What's going on here? Anyone have suggestions for improving how I've structured this? Some other info. This "hang" only ever occurs on first touch event after activity start. This includes on orientation change after restoreState has been called. Also, I can remove EVERYTHING within the syncronized block in the event handler, and it will still get hung up at the syncronized call. Thanks!

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• Insert Registration Data in MySQL using PHP

  - by J M 4

  I may not be asking this in the best way possible but i will try my hardest. Thank you ahead of time for your help: I am creating an enrollment website which allows an individual OR manager to enroll for medical testing services for professional athletes. I will NOT be using the site as a query DB which anybody can view information stored within the database. The information is instead simply stored, and passed along in a CSV format to our network provider so they can use as needed after the fact. There are two possible scenarios: Scenario 1 - Individual Enrollment If an individual athlete chooses to enroll him/herself, they enter their personal information, submit their payment information (credit/bank account) for processing, and their information is stored in an online database as Athlete1. Scenario 2 - Manager Enrollment If a manager chooses to enroll several athletes he manages/ promotes for, he enters his personal information, then enters the personal information for each athlete he wishes to pay for (name, address, ssn, dob, etc), then submits payment information for ALL athletes he is enrolling. This number can range from 1 single athlete, up to 20 athletes per single enrollment (he can return and complete a follow up enrollment for additional athletes). Initially, I was building the database to house ALL information regardless of enrollment type in a single table which housed over 400 columns (think 20 athletes with over 10 fields per athlete such as name, dob, ssn, etc). Now that I think about it more, I believe create multiple tables (manager(s), athlete(s)) may be a better idea here but still not quite sure how to go about it for the following very important reasons: Issue 1 If I list the manager as the parent table, I am afraid the individual enrolling athlete will not show up in the primary table and will not be included in the overall registration file which needs to be sent on to the network providers. Issue 2 All athletes being enrolled by a manager are being stored in SESSION as F1FirstName, F2FirstName where F1 and F2 relate to the id of the fighter. I am not sure technically speaking how to store multiple pieces of information within the same table under separate rows using PHP. For example, all athleteswill have a first name. The very basic theory of what i am trying to do is: If number_of_athletes 1, store F1FirstName in row 1, column 1 of Table "Athletes"; store F1LastName in row 1, column 2 of Table "Athletes"; store F2FirstName in row 2, column 1 of Table "Athletes"; store F2LastName in row 2, column 2 of table "Athletes"; Does this make sense? I know this question is very long and probably difficult so i appreciate the guidance.

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• Representation of a DateTime as the local to remote user

  - by TwoSecondsBefore

  Hello! I was confused in the problem of time zones. I am writing a web application that will contain some news with dates of publication, and I want the client to see the date of publication of the news in the form of corresponding local time. However, I do not know in which time zone the client is located. I have three questions. I have to ask just in case: does DateTimeOffset.UtcNow always returns the correct UTC date and time, regardless of whether the server is dependent on daylight savings time? For example, if the first time I get the value of this property for two minutes before daylight savings time (or before the transition from daylight saving time back) and the second time in 2 minutes after the transfer, whether the value of properties in all cases differ by only 4 minutes? Or here require any further logic? (Question #1) Please see the following example and tell me what you think. I posted the news on the site. I assume that DateTimeOffset.UtcNow takes into account the time zone of the server and the daylight savings time, and so I immediately get the correct UTC server time when pressing the button "Submit". I write this value to a MS SQL database in the field of type datetime2(0). Then the user opens a page with news and no matter how long after publication. This may occur even after many years. I did not ask him to enter his time zone. Instead, I get the offset of his current local time from UTC using the javascript function following way: function GetUserTimezoneOffset() { var offset = new Date().getTimezoneOffset(); return offset; } Next I make the calculation of the date and time of publication, which will show the user: public static DateTime Get_Publication_Date_In_User_Local_DateTime( DateTime Publication_Utc_Date_Time_From_DataBase, int User_Time_Zone_Offset_Returned_by_Javascript) { int userTimezoneOffset = User_Time_Zone_Offset_Returned_by_Javascript; // For // example Javascript returns a value equal to -300, which means the // current user's time differs from UTC to 300 minutes. Ie offset // is UTC +6. In this case, it may be the time zone UTC +5 which // currently operates summer time or UTC +6 which currently operates the // standard time. // Right? (Question #2) DateTimeOffset utcPublicationDateTime = new DateTimeOffset(Publication_Utc_Date_Time_From_DataBase, new TimeSpan(0)); // get an instance of type DateTimeOffset for the // date and time of publication for further calculations DateTimeOffset publication_DateTime_In_User_Local_DateTime = utcPublicationDateTime.ToOffset(new TimeSpan(0, - userTimezoneOffset, 0)); return publication_DateTime_In_User_Local_DateTime.DateTime;// return to user } Is the value obtained correct? Is this the right approach to solving this problem? (Question #3)

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• This Android SDK requires Android Developer Toolkit version 22.0.0 or above. Current version is 21.x.x.

  - by user2626673

  Hi i have a problem with my Eclipse and the SDK (i have download and install the latest ADT Bundle for windows ) when i start my eclipse i get this problem : This Android SDK requires Android Developer Toolkit version 22.0.0 or above. Current version is 20.0.0. please update your SDK tools to the latest version i have tried the option : Help - check for updates But with no new update find then i try this one : How to Update your ADT to Latest Version In Eclipse go to Help Install New Software ---> Add inside Add Repository write the Name: ADT (or whatever you want) and Location: https://dl-ssl.google.com/android/eclipse/ after loading you should get Developer Tools and NDK Plugins check both if you want to use the Native Developer Kit (NDK) in the future or check Developer Tool only click Next Finish But i dont have the option to click next to finish (the back , next and finish options are grey ) Then i try this method : Go here download latest version of ADT-22.0.4.zip (*) At Eclipse > Help > Install new software... > Uncheck Contact all update sites during install to find required software (last bottom preference) that will avoid any unwanted delays during install. then at the same screen (top) Click Add > Archive > select downloaded ADT-X.X.X.zip > follow on screen installation steps But had the same problem when it was to finish the installation.. no option to click ''next'' then i try this one : Help – Install New Software in the ADT menu. Type https://dl-ssl.google.com/android/eclipse/site.xml in “Work with:” and Enter. You can see the “Developer Tools” item. Select it and click Next. Click Next one more. Click Finish accepting the terms of the license agreements. Click OK in the “Security Warning” window. Let the installer restart ADT after installing the tools. But and in this option have the same problem as above.. can click the ''next'' to finish http://i30.photobucket.com/albums/c316/caslor_1978/diafora/atdproblem_zps0d141b7b.jpg i check my version and it is the latest but have the problem http://i30.photobucket.com/albums/c316/caslor_1978/diafora/atdproblem2_zps81de6317.jpg How can i fix this problem ? any suggestion? Win7 / 32bit / java SE Development kit7 update 25

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