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  • Error using to_char // to_timestamp

    - by pepersview
    Hello, I have a database in PostgreSQL and I'm developing an application in PHP using this database. The problem is that when I execute the following query I get a nice result in phpPgAdmin but in my PHP application I get an error. The query: SELECT t.t_name, t.t_firstname FROM teachers AS t WHERE t.id_teacher IN (SELECT id_teacher FROM teacher_course AS tcourse JOIN course_timetable AS coursetime ON tcourse.course = coursetime.course AND to_char(to_timestamp('2010-4-12', 'YYYY-MM-DD'),'FMD') = (coursetime.day +1)) AND t.id_teacher NOT IN (SELECT id_teacher FROM teachers_fill WHERE date = '2010-4-12') ORDER BY t.t_name ASC And this is the error in PHP operator does not exist: text = integer (to_timestamp('', 'YYYY-MM-DD'),'FMD') = (courset... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. The purpose to solve this error is to use the ORIGINAL query in php with : $date = "2010"."-".$selected_month."-".$selected_day; SELECT t.t_name, t.t_firstname FROM teachers AS t WHERE t.id_teacher IN (SELECT id_teacher FROM teacher_course AS tcourse JOIN course_timetable AS coursetime ON tcourse.course = coursetime.course AND to_char(to_timestamp('$date', 'YYYY-MM-DD'),'FMD') = (coursetime.day +1)) AND t.id_teacher NOT IN (SELECT id_teacher FROM teachers_fill WHERE date = '$date') ORDER BY t.t_name ASC

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  • What is the preferred way to update database schemas in multiple production environments

    - by rmarimon
    I am about to install some 20 servers with the same web application in multiple locations connected to their own local database. I will be updating the web applications remotely (perhaps using debian's package manager) and I'm sure will eventually need to update the database schemas. Since each server could be eventually be using a different release of the web application, I need a way to apply the incremental changes to the servers. I'm thinking something like this. Let's start with database.schema.1 as the original release of the database and assume this number increases with each new version of the schema. I eventually could end up with database.schema.17 as the current release. For a new installation this would be the schema to install. It seems to me that I would need consecutive translations like database.translation.1.2 which would convert database.schema.1 into database.schema.2, database.translation.2.3 to convert from 2 to 3 and so on until 17. It seems that whenever I change a schema I need to alter the database but perhaps I need to run some script to update the data which might be done with SQL but might require an external non sql script. What is the appropriate way to organize all these files? What is the automatic way to apply those upgrades to the schema? Where do I store the current version number of the schema?

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  • Visual Studio 2008 Setup Project - Include .NET Framework 3.5

    - by rajadiga
    I built a Visual Studio 2008 setup Project wich depends on .NET 3.5. I added Prerequisites like: .NET 3.5, Microsoft office interoperability, VS tools for office System 3.0 Run time, .etc. After that Selected "Download Prerequisite from Same location as my application" in Specify install location for Prerequisite. I Built the setup and found mysetup.msi in Release directory. In a new machine I started fresh installation of my application. A dialog shows like this "This Setup Requires .NET framework 3.5 , Please install .NET setup then run this setup, .NET Framework can be obtained from web Do you want to do that now?" it gives "Yes" and "No" option - if I press yes it goes to Microsoft website. How can avoid it? I wanted setup take .NET Framework to be installed from same location where I put all setup files including mysetup.msi? In case of quiet installation cmd /c "msiexec /package mysetup.msi /quiet /log install.log" ..in log I can see only half way through installation then error Property(S): HideFatalErrorForm = TRUE MSI (s) (D0:24) [00:07:08:015]: Product: my product-- Installation failed. === Logging stopped: 3/23/2010 0:07:08 === How can complete I the installation without user intervention and without error using VS2008 setup project? Thanks for all the help in advance for any input.

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  • SQL - Updating records based on most recent date

    - by Remnant
    I am having difficulty updating records within a database based on the most recent date and am looking for some guidance. By the way, I am new to SQL. As background, I have a windows forms application with SQL Express and am using ADO.NET to interact with the database. The application is designed to enable the user to track employee attendance on various courses that must be attended on a periodic basis (e.g. every 6 months, every year etc.). For example, they can pull back data to see the last time employees attended a given course and also update attendance dates if an employee has recently completed a course. I have three data tables: EmployeeDetailsTable - simple list of employees names, email address etc., each with unique ID CourseDetailsTable - simple list of courses, each with unique ID (e.g. 1, 2, 3 etc.) AttendanceRecordsTable - has 3 columns { EmployeeID, CourseID, AttendanceDate, Comments } For any given course, an employee will have an attendance history i.e. if the course needs to be attended each year then they will have one record for as many years as they have been at the company. What I want to be able to do is to update the 'Comments' field for a given employee and given course based on the most recent attendance date. What is the 'correct' SQL syntax for this? I have tried many things (like below) but cannot get it to work: UPDATE AttendanceRecordsTable SET Comments = @Comments WHERE AttendanceRecordsTable.EmployeeID = (SELECT EmployeeDetailsTable.EmployeeID FROM EmployeeDetailsTable WHERE (EmployeeDetailsTable.LastName =@ParameterLastName AND EmployeeDetailsTable.FirstName =@ParameterFirstName) AND AttendanceRecordsTable.CourseID = (SELECT CourseDetailsTable.CourseID FROM CourseDetailsTable WHERE CourseDetailsTable.CourseName =@CourseName)) GROUP BY MAX(AttendanceRecordsTable.LastDate) After much googling, I discovered that MAX is an aggregate function and so I need to use GROUP BY. I have also tried using the HAVING keyword but without success. Can anybody point me in the right direction? What is the 'conventional' syntax to update a database record based on the most recent date?

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  • Publishing a WCF Server and client and their endpoints

    - by Ahmadreza
    Imagine developing a WCF solution with two projects (WCF Service/ and web application as WCF Client). As long as I'm developing these two projects in visual studio and referencing service to client (Web Application) as server reference there is no problem. Visual studio automatically assign a port for WCF server and configure all needed configuration including Server And Client binging to something like this in server: <service behaviorConfiguration="DefaultServiceBehavior" name="MYWCFProject.MyService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="MYWCFProject.IMyService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8731/MyService.svc" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> and in client: <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8731/MyService.svc" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSHttpBinding_IMyService" contract="MyWCFProject.IMyService" name="WSHttpBinding_IMyService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> </client> The problem is I want to frequently publish this two project in two different servers as my production servers and Service url will be "http://mywcfdomain/MyService.svc". I don't want to change config file every time I publish my server project. The question is: is there any feature in Visual Studio 2008 to automatically change the URLs or I have to define two different endpoints and I set them within my code (based on a parameter in my configuration for example Development/Published).

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  • Spring MVC + Hibernate encoding problem

    - by Bar
    I work on Spring MVC + Hibernate application, use MySQL (ver. 5.0.51a) with the InnoDB engine. The problem appears when I am sending a form with cyrillic characters. As the result, database contains senseless chars in unknown encoding. All the JSP pages, database (+ tables and fields) created using UTF-8. Hibernate config also contains property which sets encoding to UTF-8. I had solved this by creating filter which encodes request content with UTF-8. Exemplary code: … encoding = "UTF-8"; request.setCharacterEncoding(encoding); chain.doFilter(request, response); … But it visibly slows down the app. The interesting thing is that executing insert query directly from the app (i.e. running from Eclipse as Java Application) works perfect. Any suggestions are welcome. TIA, Michael.

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  • 401 Unauthorized returned on GET request (https) with correct credentials

    - by Johnny Grass
    I am trying to login to my web app using HttpWebRequest but I keep getting the following error: System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized. Fiddler has the following output: Result Protocol Host URL 200 HTTP CONNECT mysite.com:443 302 HTTPS mysite.com /auth 401 HTTP mysite.com /auth This is what I'm doing: // to ignore SSL certificate errors public bool AcceptAllCertifications(object sender, System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates.X509Certificate certification, System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates.X509Chain chain, System.Net.Security.SslPolicyErrors sslPolicyErrors) { return true; } try { // request Uri uri = new Uri("https://mysite.com/auth"); HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(uri) as HttpWebRequest; request.Accept = "application/xml"; // authentication string user = "user"; string pwd = "secret"; string auth = "Basic " + Convert.ToBase64String(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetBytes(user + ":" + pwd)); request.Headers.Add("Authorization", auth); ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback = new System.Net.Security.RemoteCertificateValidationCallback(AcceptAllCertifications); // response. HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); // Display Stream dataStream = response.GetResponseStream(); StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(dataStream); string responseFromServer = reader.ReadToEnd(); Console.WriteLine(responseFromServer); // Cleanup reader.Close(); dataStream.Close(); response.Close(); } catch (WebException webEx) { Console.Write(webEx.ToString()); } I am able to log in to the same site with no problem using ASIHTTPRequest in a Mac app like this: NSURL *login_url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"https://mysite.com/auth"]; ASIHTTPRequest *request = [ASIHTTPRequest requestWithURL:login_url]; [request setDelegate:self]; [request setUsername:name]; [request setPassword:pwd]; [request setRequestMethod:@"GET"]; [request addRequestHeader:@"Accept" value:@"application/xml"]; [request startAsynchronous];

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  • how to intercept processing when Session.IsNewSession is true

    - by Cen
    I have a small 4-page application for my customers to work through. They fill out information. If they let it sit too long, and the Session timeout out, I want to pop up a javascript alert that their session has expired, and that they need to start over. At that point, then redirected to the beginning page of the application. I'm getting some strange behavior. I'm stepping through code, forcing my Sessioni.IsNewSession to be true. At this point, I write out a call to Javascript to a Literal Control placed at the bottom of the . The javascript is called, and the redirection occurs. However, what is happening is.. I am pressing a button which is more or less a "Next Page" button and triggering this code. The next page is being displayed, and then the Alert and redirection occurs. The result I was expecting was to stay on the same page I received the "Timeout", with the alert to pop-up over it, then redirection. I'm checking for Session.IsNewSession in a BaseClass for these pages, overriding the OnInit event. Any ideas why I am getting this behavior? Thanks!

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  • iphone crash log with dSym not loading debug information

    - by AngeDeLaMort
    Hello, I was trying to see why my application crashed on the device (iPhone) using the dSym generated along the executable (in ad hoc), but I don't know why, there isn't any useful information. It seems that "Organizer" is able to find the appropriate dSym and translate some data into more readable one, but when it comes to my application, I just have an address. Since I know how to reproduce it, I've tried to setup my build so it can help me in the future. So, I've tried to find if I had all the proper flags set int the project build properties and everything seems fine. So after doing some research, it seems that all information are stripped during link time and the dSym seems completely useless. I've played with some flags, but nothing changed. So, is there something special to do in order to get the crash file human readable? Or is it impossible in the ad hoc setting? The closest thing near to work that I've done was to build a debug version and look up the address in it. At least it seems to give the right file. So, I made a sample app and here what I have: (the line I want is #4): Thread 0 Crashed: 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00003ebc objc_msgSend + 20 1 UIKit 0x0005c970 -[UIView dealloc] + 60 2 UIKit 0x0005c840 -[UIImageView dealloc] + 76 3 CoreFoundation 0x0003963a -[NSObject release] + 28 4 MyApplication 0x000046a6 0x1000 + 13990 5 UIKit 0x00069750 -[UIViewController view] + 44 6 MyApplication 0x000053fa 0x1000 + 17402 The crash is made using 2 successive releases on an object. Thanks in advance.

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  • Trying to calculate large numbers in Python with gmpy. Python keeps crashing?

    - by Ryan Peschel
    I was recommended to use gmpy to assist with calculating large numbers efficiently. Before I was just using python and my script ran for a day or two and then ran out of memory (not sure how that happened because my program's memory usage should basically be constant throughout.. maybe a memory leak?) Anyways, I keep getting this weird error after running my program for a couple seconds: mp_allocate< 545275904->545275904 > Fatal Python error: mp_allocate failure This application has requested the Runtime to terminate it in an unusual way. Please contact the application's support team for more information. Also, python crashes and Windows 7 gives me the generic python.exe has stopped working dialog. This wasn't happening with using standard python integers. Now that I switch to gmpy I am getting this error just seconds in to running my script. I thought gmpy was specialized in dealing with large number arithmetic? For reference, here is a sample program that produces the error: import gmpy2 p = gmpy2.xmpz(3000000000) s = gmpy2.xmpz(2) M = s**p for x in range(p): s = (s * s) % M I have 10 gigs of RAM and without gmpy this script ran for days without running out of memory (still not sure how that happened considering s never really gets larger.. Anyone have any ideas? EDIT: Forgot to mention I am using Python 3.2

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  • Uploading Binary iPhone App "The signature was invalid" again again and again...

    - by user338386
    Hello! I'm going crazy! I'm trying to upload the binary of my first application but I have always the same error! "The binary you uploaded was invalid. The signature was invalid, or it was not signed with an Apple submission certificate." I did everything, EVERYTHING!! I created the request for the certificate, used it for both developer and distribution certificate, created the provisioning profile (12 times!!!) always cleaning my keychain and my Xcode deleting the old certificates and profiles.. I reboot the machine, reboot Xcode, the log is correct, but... I can't upload my app!!!! Checked if my iPhone is connected (i tried with iPhone disconneted too). I checked the certificate in both my project settings "Distribuition" Configuration (duplicate of "Release" configuration) and in my target settings. Reveal in finder, compress the app and sent the zip... I tried with Application Loader and iTunes connect online.. but nothing! NOTHING!! I've spent 8 hours! And again i can't have my app uploaded!!! I'm really going crazy! Can anyone help me pleeease? Thx!

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  • Am I a discoverer of a bug in the WPF engine?

    - by bitbonk
    We have a MFC 8 application compiled with /CLR that contains a larger amount of Windows Forms UserControls wich again contain WPF user controls using ElementHost. Due to the architecture of our software we can not use HwndHost directly. We observed an extremely strange behavior here that we can not make any sense of: When the CPU load is very high during startup of the application and there are a lot live of ElementHost instances, the whole property engine completely stops working. For example animations that usually just work fine now never update the values of the bound properties, they just stay at some random value after startup. When I set a property that is not bound to anything the value is correctly stored in the dependency property (calling the getter returns the new value) but the visual representation never reflects that. I set the background to red but the background color does not change. We tested this on a lot of different machines all running Windows XP SP2 and it is pretty reproducible. The funny thing here is, that there is in fact one situation where the bound properties actually pickup a new value from the animation and the visual gets updated based on the property values. It is when I resize the ElementHost or when I hide and reshow the parent native control. As soon as I do this, properties that are bound to an animation pickup a new value and the visuals rerender based on the new property values - but just once - if I want to see another update I have to resize the ElementHost. Do you have any explanation of what could be happening here or how I could approach this problem to find it out? What can I do to debug this? Is there a way I can get more information about what WPF actually does or where WPF might have crashed? To me it currently seems like a bug in WPF itself since it only happens at high CPU load at startup.

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  • rabbitmq-erlang-client, using rebar friendly pkg, works on dev env fails on rebar release

    - by lfurrea
    I am successfully using the rebar-friendly package of rabbitmq-erlang-client for a simple Hello World rebarized and OTP "compliant" app and things work fine on the dev environment. I am able to fire up an erl console and do my application:start(helloworld). and connect to the broker, open up a channel and communicate to queues. However, then I proceed to do rebar generate and it builds up the release just fine, but when I try to fire up from the self contained release package then things suddenly explode. I know rebar releases are known to be an obscure art, but I would like to know what are my options as far as deployment for an app using the rabbitmq-erlang-client. Below you will find the output of the console on the crash: =INFO REPORT==== 18-Dec-2012::16:41:35 === application: session_record exited: {{{badmatch, {error, {'EXIT', {undef, [{amqp_connection_sup,start_link, [{amqp_params_network,<<"guest">>,<<"guest">>,<<"/">>, "127.0.0.1",5672,0,0,0,infinity,none, [#Fun<amqp_auth_mechanisms.plain.3>, #Fun<amqp_auth_mechanisms.amqplain.3>], [],[]}], []}, {supervisor2,do_start_child_i,3, [{file,"src/supervisor2.erl"},{line,391}]}, {supervisor2,handle_call,3, [{file,"src/supervisor2.erl"},{line,413}]}, {gen_server,handle_msg,5, [{file,"gen_server.erl"},{line,588}]}, {proc_lib,init_p_do_apply,3, [{file,"proc_lib.erl"},{line,227}]}]}}}}, [{amqp_connection,start,1, [{file,"src/amqp_connection.erl"},{line,164}]}, {hello_qp,start_link,0,[{file,"src/hello_qp.erl"},{line,10}]}, {session_record_sup,init,1, [{file,"src/session_record_sup.erl"},{line,55}]}, {supervisor_bridge,init,1, [{file,"supervisor_bridge.erl"},{line,79}]}, {gen_server,init_it,6,[{file,"gen_server.erl"},{line,304}]}, {proc_lib,init_p_do_apply,3, [{file,"proc_lib.erl"},{line,227}]}]}, {session_record_app,start,[normal,[]]}} type: permanent

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  • Have I found a security problem in an API or do I just not understand SSL?

    - by jamieb
    I'm working on building a set of Python bindings around an XML-based API provided by a vendor. The vendor requires that all transactions be conducted over SSL. Using a Linux box, I created a key file and a CSR for my application. Using their self-service web portal, I then generate a certificate using that CSR. Both the key file and the certificate are used when making the SSL request to the API. I'm now working on designing exception classes to make error messages more verbose (and, hopefully, more useful to developers using my bindings). Part of my testing has included altering the key file: transpose a couple characters here, replace 4 or 5 with random characters there, etc. To my surprise, altering the key file had no effect! As long as I didn't change the total length of it, the API didn't complain about a bad key file. The only way I was able to throw an error was by swapping in a completely different key from another application. At that point, the API complained about the Common Name not matching. Is this normal behavior or has the vendor not properly implemented SSL?

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  • Access Violation in std::pair

    - by sameer karjatkar
    I have an application which is trying to populate a pair. Out of nowhere the application crashes. The Windbg analysis on the crash dump suggests: PRIMARY_PROBLEM_CLASS: INVALID_POINTER_READ DEFAULT_BUCKET_ID: INVALID_POINTER_READ STACK_TEXT: 0389f1dc EPFilter32!std::vector<std::pair<unsigned int,unsigned int>,std::allocator<std::pair<unsigned int,unsigned int> > >::size+0xc INVALID_POINTER_READ_c0000005_Test.DLL!std::vector_std::pair_unsigned_int, unsigned_int_,std::allocator_std::pair_unsigned_int,unsigned_int_____::size Following is the code snap in the code where it fails: for (unsigned i1 = 0; i1 < size1; ++i1) { for (unsigned i2 = 0; i2 < size2; ++i2) { const branch_info& b1 = en1.m_branches[i1]; //Exception here :crash const branch_info& b2 = en2.m_branches[i2]; } } where branch_info is std::pair<unsigned int,unsigned int> and the en1.m_branches[i1] fetches me a pair value.

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  • CakePHP: Missing database table

    - by Justin
    I have a CakePHP application that is running fine locally. I uploaded it to a production server and the first page that uses a database connection gives the "Missing Database Table" error. When I look at the controller dump, it's complaining about the first table. I've tried a variety of things to fix this problem, with no luck: I've confirmed that at the command line I can login with the given MySQL credentials in database.php I've confirmed this table exists I've tried using the MySQL root credentials (temporarily) to see if the problem lies with permissions of the user. The same error appeared. My debug level is currently set to 3 I've deleted the entire contents of /app/tmp/cache I've set 777 permissions on /app/tmp* I've confirmed that I can run DESCRIBE commands at the commant line MySQL when logged in with the MySQL credentials used by by the application I've verified that the CakePHP log file only contains the error I'm setting in the browser window. I've tried all the suggestions I could find in similar postings on SO I've Googled around and didn't find any other ideas I think I've eliminating the obvious problems and my research isn't turning anything up. I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas?

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  • C# WebBrowser Invoke issue

    - by James Jeffrey
    I am logging into facebook using a web browser. Everything works, but the problem is when I invoke the button click I need to check if the password is correct but, the check seems to happen before the button is invoked which makes no sense at all because the checking code is after the invoke. private void Facebook_Login(String username, String password) { webBrowser1.Url = new Uri("http://m.facebook.com"); while (webBrowser1.ReadyState != WebBrowserReadyState.Complete) Application.DoEvents(); HtmlElementCollection inputs = webBrowser1.Document.GetElementsByTagName("input"); foreach(HtmlElement input in inputs) { if (input.GetAttribute("name") == "email") { input.SetAttribute("value", "[email protected]"); } if (input.GetAttribute("name") == "pass") { input.SetAttribute("value", "kelaroostj"); // dont worry that pass wont work lol. } if (input.GetAttribute("name") == "login") { input.InvokeMember("click"); } } while (webBrowser1.ReadyState != WebBrowserReadyState.Complete) Application.DoEvents(); HtmlElementCollection bs = webBrowser1.Document.GetElementsByTagName("b"); foreach(HtmlElement b in bs) { MessageBox.Show(b.InnerHtml); } Log_Message("Logged into Facebook with: [email protected]"); }

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  • Django install on a shared host, .htaccess help

    - by redconservatory
    I am trying to install Django on a shared host using the following instructions: docs.google.com/View?docid=dhhpr5xs_463522g My problem is with the following line on my root .htaccess: RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /cgi-bin/wcgi.py/$1 [QSA,L] When I include this line I get a 500 error with almost all of my domains on this account. My cgi-bin directory is home/my-username/public_html/cgi-bin/ The wcgi.py file contains: #!/usr/local/bin/python import os, sys sys.path.insert(0, "/home/username/django/") sys.path.insert(0, "/home/username/django/projects") sys.path.insert(0, "/home/username/django/projects/newprojects") import django.core.handlers.wsgi os.chdir("/home/username/django/projects/newproject") # optional os.environ['DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE'] = "newproject.settings" def runcgi(): environ = dict(os.environ.items()) environ['wsgi.input'] = sys.stdin environ['wsgi.errors'] = sys.stderr environ['wsgi.version'] = (1,0) environ['wsgi.multithread'] = False environ['wsgi.multiprocess'] = True environ['wsgi.run_once'] = True application = django.core.handlers.wsgi.WSGIHandler() if environ.get('HTTPS','off') in ('on','1'): environ['wsgi.url_scheme'] = 'https' else: environ['wsgi.url_scheme'] = 'http' headers_set = [] headers_sent = [] def write(data): if not headers_set: raise AssertionError("write() before start_response()") elif not headers_sent: # Before the first output, send the stored headers status, response_headers = headers_sent[:] = headers_set sys.stdout.write('Status: %s\r\n' % status) for header in response_headers: sys.stdout.write('%s: %s\r\n' % header) sys.stdout.write('\r\n') sys.stdout.write(data) sys.stdout.flush() def start_response(status,response_headers,exc_info=None): if exc_info: try: if headers_sent: # Re-raise original exception if headers sent raise exc_info[0], exc_info[1], exc_info[2] finally: exc_info = None # avoid dangling circular ref elif headers_set: raise AssertionError("Headers already set!") headers_set[:] = [status,response_headers] return write result = application(environ, start_response) try: for data in result: if data: # don't send headers until body appears write(data) if not headers_sent: write('') # send headers now if body was empty finally: if hasattr(result,'close'): result.close() runcgi() Only I changed the "username" to my username...

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  • Images in Applet not showing in web page

    - by Leanne C
    I am trying to display a JPEG image and a moving dot on a Java applet which I am using on a web based application. However, when I run the applet it works fine, but when I display the applet from the JSP page, I get the moving dot but not the JPEG image. Is there a specific folder where the JPEG needs to be? These are the 2 methods i use for drawing the picture and the moving dot on the screen. public class mapplet extends Applet implements Runnable { int x_pos = 10; int y_pos = 100; int radius = 20; Image img, img2; Graphics gr; URL base; MediaTracker m; @Override public void init() { mt = new MediaTracker(this); try { //getDocumentbase gets the applet path. base = getCodeBase(); img = getImage(base, "picture.jpg"); m.addImage(img, 1); m.waitForAll(); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { Logger.getLogger(movement.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } public void paint (Graphics g) { g.drawImage(img, 0, 0, this); // set color g.setColor (Color.red); // paint a filled colored circle g.fillOval (x_pos - radius, y_pos - radius, 2 * radius, 2 * radius); } The code one below is the call from the jsp page <applet archive="mapplet.jar" code="myapplets/mapplet.class" width=350 height=200> </applet> The jar file and the picture are in the same folder as the jsp page, and there is also a folder containing the contents of the class and image of the applet in the web section of the application. The applet loads fine however the picture doesn't display. I think it's not the code but the location of the picture that is causing a problem. Thanks

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  • How can a link within a WebView load another layout using javascript?

    - by huffmaster
    So I have 2 layout files (main.xml, featured.xml) and both each have a single WebView. When the application starts "main.xml" loads a html file into it's WebView. In this html file I have a link that calls javascript that runs code in the Activity that loaded the html. Once back in this Activity code though I try running setContentView(R.layout.featured) but it just bombs out on me. If I debug it just dies without any real error and if I run it the application just Force closes. Am I going about this correctly or should I be doing something differently? final private int MAIN = 1; final private int FEATURED = 2; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); webview = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.wvMain); webview.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); webview.getSettings().setSupportZoom(false); webview.addJavascriptInterface(new EHJavaScriptInterface(), "eh"); webview.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/default.html"); } final class EHJavaScriptInterface { EHJavaScriptInterface() { } public void loadLayout(final String lo) { int i = Integer.parseInt(lo.trim()); switch (i) { /****** THIS IS WHERE I'M BOMBING OUT *********/ case FEATURED: setContentView(R.layout.featured);break; case MAIN: setContentView(R.layout.main);break; } } }

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  • Django and json request

    - by Hulk
    In a template i have the following code <script> var url="/mypjt/my_timer" $.post(url, paramarr, function callbackHandler(dict) { alert('got response back'); if (dict.flag == 2) { alert('1'); $.jGrowl("Data could not be saved"); } else if(dict.ret_status == 1) { alert('2'); $.jGrowl("Data saved successfully"); window.location = "/mypjt/display/" + dict.rid; } }, "json" ); </script> In views i have the following code, def my_timer(request): dict={} try: a= timer.objects.get(pk=1) dict({'flag':1}) return HttpResponse(simplejson.dumps(dict), mimetype='application/javascript') except: dict({'flag':1}) return HttpResponse(simplejson.dumps(dict), mimetype='application/javascript') My question is since we are making a json request and in the try block ,after setting the flag ,cant we return a page directly as return render_to_response('mypjt/display.html',context_instance=RequestContext(request,{'dict': dict})) instead of sending the response, because on success again in the html page we redirect the code Also if there is a exception then only can we return the json request. My only concern is that the interaction between client and server should be minimal. Thanks..

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  • When i run rake db:create ,Error rake aborted! uninitialized constant Cucumber

    - by Big Bang Theory
    Hi I am trying to experiment on an open source application application . when i run $ rake db:create Following is the stacktrace rake aborted! uninitialized constant Cucumber /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:443:in `load_missing_constant' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:80:in `const_missing' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:92:in `const_missing' /home/BigBangTheory/Desktop/spot-us/lib/tasks/cucumber.rake:13 /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:1882:in `in_namespace' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:910:in `namespace' /home/BigBangTheory/Desktop/spot-us/lib/tasks/cucumber.rake:12 /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:145:in `load_without_new_constant_marking' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:145:in `load' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:521:in `new_constants_in' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:145:in `load' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.2/lib/tasks/rails.rb:8 /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.2/lib/tasks/rails.rb:8:in `each' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.2/lib/tasks/rails.rb:8 /usr/local/lib/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `gem_original_require' /usr/local/lib/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `require' /home/BigBangTheory/Desktop/spot-us/Rakefile:9 /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2383:in `load' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2383:in `raw_load_rakefile' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2017:in `load_rakefile' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2068:in `standard_exception_handling' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2016:in `load_rakefile' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2000:in `run' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2068:in `standard_exception_handling' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:1998:in `run' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/bin/rake:31 /usr/bin/rake:19:in `load' /usr/bin/rake:19 Any help ?

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  • Loading enumerations from database

    - by Mosh
    Hello, I have a problem with mapping .NET enumerations to database tables. Imagine I have a table called Statuses with the following values: StatusID | Name 1 Draft 2 Ready ... ... In the application layer, I can either use a Repository to get all Statuses as an IList object. However, the problem with this approach is that I cannot reference a certain status in my business logic. For example, how can I implement something like this? if (myObject.Status is Ready) do this else if (myObject.Status is Draft) do that... Since the statuses are loaded dynamically, I cannot tell for sure what particular Status object in the List represents the Draft or Ready status. Alternatively, I could just use an enumeration like public enum Statuses { Draft, Ready }; Then I could easily use an enumeration in my business logic. if (myObject.Status == Statuses.Draft) // do something... However, the problem with this approach is that every time the user wants to modify the list of Statuses (adding a new status, or renaming an existing status) the application has to be re-compiled. We cannot load the statuses dynamically from the database. Has anyone else come across a similar situation? Any solutions/patterns? Cheers, Mosh

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  • Constraining to parent container with MouseDragElementBehavior

    - by anonymous
    Hi all, I just had a question regarding constraining a control's drag and drop movement to its parent canvas. I tried using the ConstrainToParentBounds property on the MouseDragElementBehavior, however, when this is used the drag must be done really slowly or the movement of the control is choppy or stops altogether. So I am attempting to implement my own boundary constraints. I seem to be running into difficulty though. I am still using the MouseDragElementBehavior but am attempting to supplement it by also handling mouseleftbuttondown, mousemove, mouseleftbuttonup events. I know that these are working (haven't been overridden by the MouseDragElementBehavior) as I have tested them using other methods. I will post my current code below: private void Control_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { MyControl mc = (MyControl)sender; Canvas canvas = (Canvas)mc.parent; GeneralTransform ct = canvas.TransformToVisual(Application.Current.RootVisual as UIElement; Point canvas_offset = ct.Transform(new Point(0,0)); double canvasTop = canvas_offset.Y; double canvasLeft = canvas_offset.X; GeneralTransform gt = mc.TransformToVisual(Application.Current.RootVisual as UIElement); Point offset = gt.Transform(new Point(0,0)); double controlTop = offset.Y; double controlLeft = offset.X; if(isMouseCaptured) { if(controlTop < canvasTop) { mc.Opacity = 1; //to test if conditions are being met, seems to indicate ok mc.setValue(Canvas.TopProperty, canvasTop); } if(controlLeft < canvasLeft) { mc.Opacity = 1; mc.setValue(Canvas.TopProperty, canvasTop); } } } This is what my code looks like at the moment (I realize there is nothing there for right/bottom). I've tried a bunch of different things at this point and none of them seem to give the desired result; the control's movement is still not constrained to the canvas. Any help/pointers would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Form Encoding Problems on GRAILS 2.0

    - by ArmlessJohn
    I have an Grails application that is configured everywhere to function as UTF-8. While running a debug version, headers say Content-Type:text/html;charset=utf-8, and meta tags agree. Browser identified page as UTF-8 and shows characters correctly. When posting a form, the browser correctly sends it encoded as UTF-8. When reading the data via params.paramname, however, the data looks garbled; maçã becomes maçã. Upon further inspection, it seems the form is sending UTF-8 data, but Grails seem to try and read it as if it was ISO-8859-1. Setting accept-charset="ISO-8859-1" on the form confirms this problem, as it fixes the problem. I also have this on applicationContext.xml: <bean id="characterEncodingFilter" class="org.springframework.web.filter.CharacterEncodingFilter"> <property name="encoding"> <value>utf-8</value> </property> <property name="forceEncoding"> <value>true</value> </property> </bean> Is there an solution for this besides adding accept-charset="ISO-8859-1" to all forms in the application? Thanks.

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