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  • ASP.NET MVC: How to validate an Ajax form with a specified UpdateTargetID?

    - by Bryan Roth
    I'm trying to figure out how to show validation errors after a user submits an Ajax form that has its UpdateTargetID property set. I'm stumped on how to update the Ajax form with the validation errors without returning the Create PartialView into the results div. If the form is valid, then it should return the Records PartialView. Create.ascx <% Using Ajax.BeginForm("Create", "Record", New Record With {.UserID = Model.UserID}, New AjaxOptions With { .UpdateTargetId = "results", .LoadingElementId = "loader" })%> Date Located <%= Html.TextBoxFor(Function(model) model.DateLocated)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(Function(model) model.DateLocated) %> Description <%= Html.TextBoxFor(Function(model) model.Description)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(Function(model) model.Description) %> <input id="btnSave" type="submit" value="Create" /> <span id="loader" class="loader">Saving...</span> <%End Using%> Records.ascx <div id="results"> ... </div> RecordController.vb Function Create(ByVal newRecord As Record) As ActionResult ValidateRecord(newRecord) If Not ModelState.IsValid Then Return PartialView("Create", newRecord) End If _repository.Add(newRecord) _repository.Save() Dim user = _repository.GetUser(newRecord.UserID) Return PartialView("Records", user) End Function

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  • When onblur occurs, how can I find out which element focus went *to*?

    - by Michiel Borkent
    Suppose I attach an onblur function to an html input box like this: <input id="myInput" onblur="function() { ... }"></input> Is there a way to get the ID of the element which caused the onblur event to fire (the element which was clicked) inside the function? How? For example, suppose I have a span like this: <span id="mySpan">Hello World</span> If I click the span right after the input element has focus, the input element will lose its focus. How does the function know that it was mySpan that was clicked? PS: If the onclick event of the span would occur before the onblur event of the input element my problem would be solved, because I could set some status value indicating a specific element had been clicked. PPS: The background of this problem is that I want to trigger an Ajax.AutoCompleter control externally (from a clickable element) to show its suggestions, without the suggestions disappearing immediately because of the onblur event on the input element. So I want to check in the OnBlur function if one specific element has been clicked, and if so, ignore the blur event.

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  • Firefox and IE - Firefox handling of <span> inside tables (html and css)

    - by jasrpg
    Hello, I am having difficulties getting a span tag to work properly inside a table. It appears as if the entire span tag is being ignored that is defined anywhere in between table tags in firefox, but in IE this shows up correctly. Maybe I am missing something, but I have created a small example css and html file that displays differently in Firefox and IE. Hopefully someone can tell me why it is behaving this way or how I can rearrange the html to resolve the issue in firefox. ---main.css--- .class1 A:link {color:#960033; text-decoration: none} .class1 A:visited {color:#960033; text-decoration: none} .class1 A:hover {color:#0000FF; font-weight: bold; text-decoration: none} .class1 A:active {color:#0000FF; font-weight: bold; text-decoration: none} .class2 A:link {color:#960033; text-decoration: none} .class2 A:visited {color:#960033; text-decoration: none} .class2 A:hover {color:#0000FF; text-decoration: none} .class2 A:active {color:#0000FF; text-decoration: none} ---test.htm--- <HTML> <HEAD> <title>Title Page</title> <style type="text/css">@import url("/css/main.css");</style> </HEAD> <span class="class1"> <BODY> <table><tr><td> ---Insert Hyperlink---<br> </td></tr> </span><span class="class2"> <tr><td> ---Insert Hyperlink---<br> </td></tr></table> </span> </BODY> </HTML>

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  • Database Design Question regaurding duplicate information.

    - by galford13x
    I have a database that contains a history of product sales. For example the following table CREATE TABLE SalesHistoryTable ( OrderID, // Order Number Unique to all orders ProductID, // Product ID can be used as a Key to look up product info in another table Price, // Price of the product per unit at the time of the order Quantity, // quantity of the product for the order Total, // total cost of the order for the product. (Price * Quantity) Date, // Date of the order StoreID, // The store that created the Order PRIMARY KEY(OrderID)); The table will eventually have millions of transactions. From this, profiles can be created for products in different geographical regions (based on the StoreID). Creating these profiles can be very time consuming as a database query. For example. SELECT ProductID, StoreID, SUM(Total) AS Total, SUM(Quantity) QTY, SUM(Total)/SUM(Quantity) AS AvgPrice FROM SalesHistoryTable GROUP BY ProductID, StoreID; The above query could be used to get the Information based on products for any particular store. You could then determine which store has sold the most, has made the most money, and on average sells for the most/least. This would be very costly to use as a normal query run anytime. What are some design descisions in order to allow these types of queries to run faster assuming storage size isn’t an issue. For example, I could create another Table with duplicate information. Store ID (Key), Product ID, TotalCost, QTY, AvgPrice And provide a trigger so that when a new order is received, the entry for that store is updated in a new table. The cost for the update is almost nothing. What should be considered when given the above scenario?

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  • Jeditable setting default selected value after change.

    - by Dk589
    My app allows the user to update a field via a drop down box using jeditable. When the program is loaded i created this function to get the selected value and set it as the selected value in jeditable. But after i change the value, the selected tag stays set as the old value. how can i make it change to the new value? this is the function function updateType(ID,type){ $(document).ready(function(){ $('#tweekType-'+ID).editable("edit.php?type=tweekType", { data : " {'copywriting':'Copywriting','design':'Design','code':'Code', 'selected':'"+type+"'}", type : 'select' }); }); this is the wrapper around the tag. <span id="tweekType-<?php echo $getTweaksReturned->tweekID; ?>"> <?php type($getTweaksReturned->type); ?> <script>updateType('<?php echo $getTweaksReturned->tweekID; ?>','<? echo $getTweaksReturned->type; ?>'); </script> </span> The same tag is replicated on the page the returns the new variable.

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  • C# Multi CheckboxList update inserts checked records but doesn't delete unchecked records

    - by DLL
    I have a multi checkboxlist on a formview. Both use queries in a tableadapter. I'm using VS 2012. When the user updates the form, I use the following code to update the checkbox data. If a user checks a new box, a new record is inserted correctly, however if the user unchecks a box the existing record is not deleted. The delete query works fine if I run it from the query builder in the table adapter, it's reaching the expected line in the code correctly, all values are correct and I receive no errors. I use a similar query to delete records when the form level data is deleted which works fine. The very last line is the one that doesn't work. Query: DELETE FROM [SLA_Categories] WHERE (([SLA_ID] = @SLA_ID) AND ([Choice_ID] = @Choice_ID)) protected void FormView1_ItemUpdating(object sender, FormViewUpdateEventArgs e) { if (FormView1.DataKey.Value != null) { Categs = (CheckBoxList)FormView1.FindControl("CheckBoxList1"); CurrentSLA_ID = (int)FormView1.DataKey.Value; } if (CurrentSLA_ID > 0) { foreach (ListItem li in Categs.Items) { // See if there's a record for the current sla in this category int CurrentChoice_ID = Convert.ToInt32(li.Value); SLADataSetTableAdapters.SLA_CategoriesTableAdapter myAdapter; myAdapter = new SLADataSetTableAdapters.SLA_CategoriesTableAdapter(); int myCount = (int)myAdapter.FindCategoryBySLA_IDAndChoice_ID(CurrentSLA_ID, CurrentChoice_ID); // If this category is checked and there is not an existing rec, insert one if (li.Selected == true && myCount < 1) { // Insert a rec for this sla myAdapter.InsertCategory(CurrentChoice_ID, CurrentSLA_ID); } // If this category is unchecked and there is and existing rec, delete it if (li.Selected == false && myCount > 0) { // Delete this rec myAdapter.DeleteCategoryBySLA_IDAndChoice_ID(CurrentChoice_ID, CurrentSLA_ID); } } } }

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  • Best approach, Dynamic OpenXML in T-SQL

    - by Martin Ongtangco
    hello, i'm storing XML values to an entry in my database. Originally, i extract the xml datatype to my business logic then fill the XML data into a DataSet. I want to improve this process by loading the XML right into the T-SQL. Instead of getting the xml as string then converting it on the BL. My issue is this: each xml entry is dynamic, meaning it can be any column created by the user. I tried using this approach, but it's giving me an error: CREATE PROCEDURE spXMLtoDataSet @id uniqueidentifier, @columns varchar(max) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @name varchar(300); DECLARE @i int; DECLARE @xmlData xml; (SELECT @xmlData = data, @name = name FROM XmlTABLES WHERE (tableID = ISNULL(@id, tableID))); EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @i OUTPUT, @xmlData DECLARE @tag varchar(1000); SET @tag = '/NewDataSet/' + @name; DECLARE @statement varchar(max) SET @statement = 'SELECT * FROM OpenXML(@i, @tag, 2) WITH (' + @columns + ')'; EXEC (@statement); EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @i END where i pass a dynamically written @columns. For example: spXMLtoDataSet 'bda32dd7-0439-4f97-bc96-50cdacbb1518', 'ID int, TypeOfAccident int, Major bit, Number_of_Persons int, Notes varchar(max)' but it kept on throwing me this exception: Msg 137, Level 15, State 2, Line 1 Must declare the scalar variable "@i". Msg 319, Level 15, State 1, Line 1 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'with'. If this statement is a common table expression or an xmlnamespaces clause, the previous statement must be terminated with a semicolon.

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  • jQuery Autocomplete & jTemplates - handling response

    - by Diegos Grace
    Has anyone had any experience with using jTemplates to display autocomplete results. I have the following $("#address-search").autocomplete({ source: "/Address/SearchAddress", minLength: 2, delay: 400, focus: function (event, ui) { $('#address-search').val(ui.item.name); return false; }, parse: function(data) { $("#autocomplete-results").setTemplate($("#templateHolder").html()); $("#autocomplete-results").processTemplate(data); }, select: function (event, ui) { $('#address-search').val(ui.item.name); $('#search-address-id').val(ui.item.id); $('#search-description').html(ui.item.address); }); and the simple jtemplate holder: <script type="text/html" id="templateHolder"> <ul class="autocomplete"> {#foreach $T as data} <li>{$T.name}</li> {#/for} </ul> </script> Above i'm using 'Parse' to format results, I've also tried the autocomplete result method but not having any luck so far. The only success I've had is by using the private method ._renderItem and formatting the data that way but we want to render the output using the jTemplate. Any advice appreciated.

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  • Entity Framework 4 and SYSUTCDATETIME ()

    - by GIbboK
    Hi, I use EF4 and C#. I have a Table in my DataBase (MS SQL 2008) with a default value for a column SYSUTCDATETIME (). The Idea is to automatically add Date and Time as soon as a new record is Created. I create my Conceptual Model using EF4, and I have created an ASP.PAGE with a DetailsView Control in INSERT MODE. My problems: When I create a new Record. EF is not able to insert the actual Date and Time value but it inserts instead this value 0001-01-01 00:00:00.00. I suppose the EF is not able to use SYSUTCDATETIME () defined in my DataBase Any idea how to solve it? Thanks Here my SQL script CREATE TABLE dbo.CmsAdvertisers ( AdvertiserId int NOT NULL IDENTITY CONSTRAINT PK_CmsAdvertisers_AdvertiserId PRIMARY KEY, DateCreated dateTime2(2) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_CmsAdvertisers_DateCreated DEFAULT sysutcdatetime (), ReferenceAdvertiser varchar(64) NOT NULL, NoteInternal nvarchar(256) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_CmsAdvertisers_NoteInternal DEFAULT '' ); My Temporary solution: Please guys help me on this e.Values["DateCreated"] = DateTime.UtcNow; More info here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb387157.aspx How to use the default Entity Framework and default date values http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd296755.aspx

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  • Passing data to a non-static listBox, by calling function from another class

    - by Andrew A
    I have a simple forms program that I have been fighting with for a while now. I simply want to be able to call a method from a different class file (when a certain step is triggered in the code in that class file) in order to insert a string in the listBox. Here is my main method, pretty standard: class Program { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new MainForm()); } } Here is the function which resides in my MainForm.cs file, which I can call just fine from that class file (via 'TextToBox(myString);'): public partial class MainForm : Form { ... // Function to output results to main Listbox window public void TextToBox(string aString) { // Place messages in Main Display list box window this.listBox1.Items.Insert(0, aString); } ... } But my problem is when I am in another class and I want to call 'TextToBox(myString);'. If I create another object reference of the MainForm, the code compiles fine but nothing will show up in the listBox. How do I do this? I cannot simply make TextToBox() static. I know I must create the object reference but I can't figure out how to reference the ORIGINAL MainForm, the one that was created in the Main method. Thanks in advance...

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  • PHP XML - Inserting a XML node at a specific location

    - by Blueboye
    Hi Guys, I want to insert a node with children at a specific location in the XML file. How do I do it? For eg. If I have an XML like: <myvalues> <image name="img01"> <src>test</src> </image> <image name="img02"> <src>test</src> </image> <image name="img03"> <src>test</src> </image> </myvalues> I want to insert: <image name="img11"> <src>test2</src> </image> between <image name="img01"> & <image name="img02">. How do I do this? I am using SimpleXML right now to read the XML. Thanks.

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  • Architecture with NHibernate and Repositories

    - by Matthew
    I've been reading up on MVC 2 and the recommended patterns, so far I've come to the conclusion (amongst much hair pulling and total confusion) that: Model - Is just a basic data container Repository - Provides data access Service - Provides business logic and acts as an API to the Controller The Controller talks to the Service, the Service talks to the Repository and Model. So for example, if I wanted to display a blog post page with its comments, I might do: post = PostService.Get(id); comments = PostService.GetComments(post); Or, would I do: post = PostService.Get(id); comments = post.Comments; If so, where is this being set, from the repository? the problem there being its not lazy loaded.. that's not a huge problem but then say I wanted to list 10 posts with the first 2 comments for each, id have to load the posts then loop and load the comments which becomes messy. All of the example's use "InMemory" repository's for testing and say that including db stuff would be out of scope. But this leaves me with many blanks, so for a start can anyone comment on the above?

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  • how to write css for nth child in css

    - by steven spielberg
    <div id="boxcontent"> <div>some content this div may be missing [dynamic genrated]</div> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> </div> <div id="boxcontent"> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> </div> <div id="boxcontent"> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> </div> i want to write some css on every 3rd div who have class .elem if i try nth-child to select them then sometime they select other. How i can select 3rd .elem class div when parent div have some other div as child or not. any way to select 3rd div who have class .elem

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  • PHP and CURL under Windows 7 64 bits and Apache

    - by supermogx
    I'm trying to use curl with PHP on my box without any success. My Config : OS : win 7 64 bits, PHP : 5.3.1, Apache : 2.2.14 I was able to use the mysql extension, so the configuration of my php.ini seems fine. But I get and error in Apache log with curl : PHP Warning: PHP Startup: Unable to load dynamic library 'C:/php-5.3.1/ext/php_curl.dll' - The specified module could not be found.\r\n in Unknown on line 0 The file is right there, and it's loading php_mysql.dll without any problem. I tried everything : to put the dll file in apache\bin, windows\system32, put the path of the php EXT in the PATH environment variable. to put some lib (libeay.dll and sssomething.dll) in windows 32 Well, I think this might have something to do with my Windows being 64 bits or with the version of PHP.. maybe. I don't know anymore :( Any idea? Update I'm not using Wamp because I like to know what I do to my system, and ultimately choose the version that I want of apache, php and MySql. My Solution I added the path of PHP in my PATH environement variable and it worked. I'll try to find out what was the DLL needed. Update : Well it looks like it was libeay32.dll and sslleay32.dll had to be in the PATH environment variable. I added to the bin subdirectory of Apache and it worked.

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  • Warning: passing Argument 1 of "sqlite3_bind_text" from incompatible pointer type" What should I do

    - by Amarpreet
    Hi All, i am pretty new in iphone development. I have created one function to insert data into database. The code compiles successfully. But when comes to statement sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement, 1, [s UTF8String], -1, SQLITE_TRANSIENT); it does not do anything but hangs AND in warning it says "passing Argument 1 of "sqlite3_bind_text" from incompatible pointer type"" for all statements in Red colour The same code i am using to fetch the data from database and its working on other viewController. Below in the code. Its pretty straightforward. Please help guys. -(void) SaveData: (NSString *)FirstName: (NSString *)LastName: (NSString *)State: (NSString *)Street: (NSString *)PostCode { databaseName = @"Zen.sqlite"; NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDire ctory, NSUserDomainMask,YES); NSString *documentsDir=[documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; databasePath=[documentsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:databaseName]; sqlite3 *database; if(sqlite3_open([databasePath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { const char *sqlStatement = "insert into customers (FirstName, LastName, State, Street, PostCode) values(?, ?, ?, ?, ?)"; sqlite3_stmt *compiledStatement; sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sqlStatement, -1, &compiledStatement, NULL); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement, 1, [FirstName UTF8String], -1, SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,2,[LastName UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,3,[State UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,4,[Street UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,5,[PostCode UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_step(sqlStatement); sqlite3_finalize(compiledStatement); } sqlite3_close(database); }

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  • PDO bindparam not working.

    - by jim
    I am trying to save data into a database using PDO. All columns save correctly with the exception of one. No matter what I try, I cannot get the data to go in. myfunc($db, $data) { echo $data; // <----- Outputs my data. example: 'jim jones' $stmt = $db->prepare("CALL test(:id, :data, :ip, :expires)"); $stmt->bindParam(':id', $id, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':data', $data, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':ip', $ip, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':expires', $expires, PDO::PARAM_STR); ... } So even after verifying that the data variable in fact holds my data, the bindParam method will not bind. When I echo the data variable, I can see the data is there. It will not save though. If I copy the echo'd output of the data variable to screen and paste it into a new variable, it WILL save. I'm at this now for a couple of hours. Can someone please have a look? EDIT: I want to also mention that I have tried using bindValue() in place of bindParam() and the data for the data variable will still not save.

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  • Why do child elements cause 'dropleave' to be called (drag-n-drop file upload)?

    - by tundoopani
    I have a HTML5 drag-n-drop script that allows users to drop files in #droparea. The #droparea div has child elements that are also div elements. <div id="droparea"> <div id="showif_no_dragover">Drag files here!</div> <div id="showif_dragover">Drop the files!</div> </div> The associated javascript/jquery is: var droptarget = "#droparea"; $(droptarget).live('dragenter', dragEnter); $(droptarget).live('dragleave', dragExit); $(droptarget).live('dragover', nothing); $(droptarget).live('drop', dropGo); (Side question: should I use .live(), .on() or .bind() here?) I have created a sample jsFiddle with some additional code here: http://jsfiddle.net/PwFr9/3/ If you look at the console, you will notice that as you drag a file within #droparea, dragenter() and dragleave() are called multiple times, even though the drag is still inside #droparea. If you remove the child elements (#child1 and #child2), the problem is gone because the child elements are gone. How can I keep the child elements and prevent them from messing up the drag events? I have searched Stackoverflow and Google for hours without much help. I found this questions here at Stackoverflow: How to keep child elements from interfering with HTML5 dragover and drop events? I don't know why it works, though. I have tried placing 2 div elements on top of each other (via CSS positioning). The top-most div has the drag events attached whereas the bottom-most div has the child elements. I do not like this approach because it doesn't work with the rest of my page and does not allow mouse-click interaction with the bottom-most div. Any help is appreciated! Thank you in advance. Regards, tundoo

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  • Using multiple named outlets and a wrapper view with no content in Emberjs

    - by user1889776
    I'm trying to use multiple named outlets with Ember.js. Is my approach below correct? Markup: <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="application"> <div id="mainArea"> {{outlet main_area}} </div> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="home"> <ul id="sections"> {{outlet sections}} </ul> <ul id="categories"> {{outlet categories}} </ul> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="sections"> {{#each section in controller}} <li><img {{bindAttr src="section.image"}}></li> {{/each}} </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="categories"> {{#each category in controller}} <img {{bindAttr src="category.image"}}> {{/each}} </script>? JS Code: Here I set the content of the various controllers to data grabbed from a server and connect outlets with their corresponding views. Since the HomeController has no content, set its content to an empty object - a hack to get the rid of this error message: Uncaught Error: assertion failed: Cannot delegate set('categories' ) to the 'content' property of object proxy : its 'content' is undefined. App.Router = Ember.Router.extend({ enableLogging: false, root: Ember.Route.extend({ index: Ember.Route.extend({ route: '/', connectOutlets: function(router){ router.get('sectionsController').set('content',App.Section.find()); router.get('categoriesController').set('content', App.Category.find()); router.get('applicationController').connectOutlet('main_area', 'home'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('home', {}); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('categories', 'categories'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('sections', 'sections'); } }) }) });

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  • Fixed div background

    - by Fahad
    I want to create a layout where I want to display an image to the left and content on the right. The image should stay constant when the content scrolls. The css I'm using: <style type="text/css"> html, body { margin:0; padding:0; } #page-container { margin:auto; width:900px; background-color:Black; background-image:url('images/desired_layout.png'); background-attachment: fixed; background-repeat:no-repeat; } #main-image { float:left; width:250px; height:687px; background-image:url('images/desired_layout.png'); background-attachment:fixed; background-repeat:no-repeat; } #content { margin-left:250px; background-color:Olive; height:800px; width:650px; } </style> The HTML: <div id="page-container"> <div id="main-image"></div> <div id="content"></div> </div> Alot of time on this site and I have understood that background-attachment:fixed positions the image in the entire viewport and not the element it is applied to. My question is how do I go about creating that kind of layout? I do not want to give that image as a background image, as if the window is resized, it might get hidden. I want scrollbars to appear if the window size is less than 900px( my page width) so that the image can be viewed at all times. That happens with this code, however I would like the image to start at my element instead. How do I go about doing this?? Thanks in Advance :)

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  • org.hibernate.hql.ast.QuerySyntaxException: TABLE NAME is not mapped

    - by Coronatus
    I have two models, Item and ShopSection. They have a many-to-many relationship. @Entity(name = "item") public class Item extends Model { @ManyToMany(cascade = CascadeType.PERSIST) public Set<ShopSection> sections; } @Entity(name = "shop_section") public class ShopSection extends Model { public List<Item> findActiveItems(int page, int length) { return Item.find("select distinct i from Item i join i.sections as s where s.id = ?", id).fetch(page, length); } } findActiveItems is meant to find items in a section, but I get this error: org.hibernate.hql.ast.QuerySyntaxException: Item is not mapped [select distinct i from Item i join i.sections as s where s.id = ?] at org.hibernate.hql.ast.util.SessionFactoryHelper.requireClassPersister(SessionFactoryHelper.java:180) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.FromElementFactory.addFromElement(FromElementFactory.java:111) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.FromClause.addFromElement(FromClause.java:93) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.HqlSqlWalker.createFromElement(HqlSqlWalker.java:322) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.fromElement(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:3441) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.fromElementList(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:3325) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.fromClause(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:733) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.query(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:584) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.selectStatement(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:301) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.statement(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:244) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.analyze(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:254) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.doCompile(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:185) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.compile(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:136) at org.hibernate.engine.query.HQLQueryPlan.<init>(HQLQueryPlan.java:101) at org.hibernate.engine.query.HQLQueryPlan.<init>(HQLQueryPlan.java:80) at org.hibernate.engine.query.QueryPlanCache.getHQLQueryPlan(QueryPlanCache.java:124) at org.hibernate.impl.AbstractSessionImpl.getHQLQueryPlan(AbstractSessionImpl.java:156) at org.hibernate.impl.AbstractSessionImpl.createQuery(AbstractSessionImpl.java:135) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.createQuery(SessionImpl.java:1770) at org.hibernate.ejb.AbstractEntityManagerImpl.createQuery(AbstractEntityManagerImpl.java:272) ... 8 more What am I doing wrong?

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  • Retactoring advanced has_many example

    - by atmorell
    Hello, My user model has three relations for the same message model, and is using raw SQL :/ Is there a better more rails way to achieve the same result? Could the foreign key be changed dynamically? e.g User.messages.sent (foreign key = author_id) and User.messages.received (foreign key = recipient ) I have been trying to move some of the logic into scopes in the message model, but the user.id is not available from the message model... Any thoughts? Table layout: create_table "messages", :force => true do |t| t.string "subject" t.text "body" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" t.integer "author_id" t.integer "recipient_id" t.boolean "author_deleted", :default => false t.boolean "recipient_deleted", :default => false end This is my relations for my user model: has_many :messages_received, :foreign_key => "recipient_id", :class_name => "Message", :conditions => ['recipient_deleted = ?', false] has_many :messages_sent, :foreign_key => "author_id", :class_name => "Message", :conditions => ['author_deleted = ?', false] has_many :messages_deleted, :class_name => "Message", :finder_sql => 'SELECT * FROM Messages WHERE author_id = #{self.id} AND author_deleted = true OR recipient_id = #{self.id} AND recipient_deleted = true' Best regards. Asbjørn Morell

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  • Horizontally and Vertically Center Modal Div IE Issue

    - by aherrick
    I'm trying to horizontally and vertically center a modal window inside a div. I want it to be cross browser compatible. You can see from the picture below that when I resize IE8 then click, "show modal" button it displays not exactly horizontally centered. This does not seem to be an issue with Chrome. Any thoughts? How would you guys accomplish this? <html> <head> <title>test</title> <style type="text/css"> * { margin: 0px; padding: 0px; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#modal').click(function() { // overlay $('<div id="overlay" />').css({ position: 'absolute', top: 0, left: 0, width: '100%', height: '100%', backgroundColor: 'black', opacity: 0 }).appendTo('body'); $('<div id="datamodal" />').css({ backgroundColor: '#FFFFFF', border: '10px solid #999', height: '200px', width: '600px', position: 'absolute', top: '50%', left: '50%', marginTop: '-120px', marginLeft: '-320px', color: '#111111', fontWeight: 'bold', padding: '10px', display: 'none' }).append('<input type="text" />').appendTo('#overlay'); $('#overlay').fadeTo(300, 0.7); $('#datamodal').fadeIn(300); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <input id="modal" type="button" value="show modal" /> </body> </html>

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  • Prevent Navigation to CreateUserWizardStep in the Postback event of nextbutton

    - by Aparna
    I am working with CreateUserWizard tool for creating a registration page. This is the first time and I am encountering problem with the following: I defined two steps in WizardSteps in the page: <WizardSteps> <asp:WizardStep ID="CreateUserWizardStep0" runat="server" Title="Sign Up for your new Account !!"> <asp:TextBox ID="Email" runat="server"> In the first wizard step, the user provides email, and we need to check if this email meets certain criteria (if he exists in our internal database, country is US etc) and if he/she is eligible navigate to CreateUserWizardStep1. I have a StartNextButton in the Start Navigation template for the WizardStep0. <StartNavigationTemplate> <br /> <asp:Button ID="StartNextButton" runat="server" CommandName="MoveNext" OnClick="StartNextButton_Click" Text="Check My Eligibility" /> </StartNavigationTemplate> I do all the logic of checking eligibility in the post-back event OnClick="StartNextButton_Click . If he is not eligible, I should display the error message in the step0 textbox and prevent navigation to CreateUserWizardStep1. I tried the following: if(noteligible) { lblError1.Visible = true; lblError1.Text = this.hfUserAlreadyRegistered.Value.ToString(); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = this.CreateUserWizard1.WizardSteps.IndexOf(this.CreateUserWizardStep0); this.CreateUserWizard1.Controls.Remove(CreateUserWizardStep1); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = 0; break; } But this is not working. I am taken out of step0 and step1 is coming irrespective of this. How can I just remain in Step0 and display the error message when the user is not eligible and navigate to Step1 only when he is eligible to register ? Thank you very much.

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  • Spring MVC: How to resolve the path to subdirectories of the root 'JSP' folder in a web application

    - by chrisjleu
    What is a simple way to resolve the path to a JSP file that is not located in the root JSP directory of a web application using SpringMVCs viewResolvers? For example, suppose we have the following web application structure: web-app |-WEB-INF |-jsp |-secure |-admin.jsp |-admin2.jsp index.jsp login.jsp I would like to use some out-of-the-box components to resolve the JSP files within the jsp root folder and the secure subdirectory. I have a *-servlet.xml file that defines: an out-of-the-box, InternalResourceViewResolver: <bean id="jspViewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"></property> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/jsp/"></property> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"></property> </bean> a handler mapping: <bean id="handlerMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.SimpleUrlHandlerMapping"> <property name="mappings"> <props> <prop key="/index.htm">urlFilenameViewController</prop> <prop key="/login.htm">urlFilenameViewController</prop> <prop key="/secure/**">urlFilenameViewController</prop> </props> </property> </bean> an out-of-the-box UrlFilenameViewController controller: <bean id="urlFilenameViewController" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.UrlFilenameViewController"> </bean> The problem I have is that requests to the JSPs in the secure directory cannot be resolved, as the jspViewResolver only has a prefix defined as /jsp/ and not /jsp/secure/. Is there a way to handle subdirectories like this? I would prefer to keep this structure because I'm also trying to make use of Spring Security and having all secure pages in a subdirectory is a nice way to do this. There's probably a simple way to acheive this but I'm new to Spring and the Spring MVC framework so any pointers would be appreciated.

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  • Does NHibernate LINQ support ToLower() in Where() clauses?

    - by Daniel T.
    I have an entity and its mapping: public class Test { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } } public class TestMap : EntityMap<Test> { public TestMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); Map(x => x.Description); } } I'm trying to run a query on it (to grab it out of the database): var keyword = "test" // this is coming in from the user keyword = keyword.ToLower(); // convert it to all lower-case var results = session.Linq<Test> .Where(x => x.Name.ToLower().Contains(keyword)); results.Count(); // execute the query However, whenever I run this query, I get the following exception: Index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection. Parameter name: index Am I right when I say that, currently, Linq to NHibernate does not support ToLower()? And if so, is there an alternative that allows me to search for a string in the middle of another string that Linq to NHibernate is compatible with? For example, if the user searches for kap, I need it to match Kapiolani, Makapuu, and Lapkap.

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