Search Results

Search found 3004 results on 121 pages for 'just plain me'.

Page 96/121 | < Previous Page | 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103  | Next Page >

  • getSharedPreferences not working for me with concerns to ListPreferences and Integers

    - by ideagent
    I'm stuck at a point where I'm trying to get my project to read a preference value (from a ListPreference listing) and then use that value in a basic mathematical subtraction instance. The problem is that the "seek" preference is not being seen by my Java code, and yet the default value is (I've tried the default value with 3000 and now 0). Am i missing something, is there a bug here, known or unknown? Java code chunk where the issues manifests itself: public static final String PREF_FILE_NAME = "preferences"; seekback.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View view) { try { SharedPreferences preferences = getSharedPreferences(PREF_FILE_NAME, MODE_PRIVATE); Integer storedPreference = preferences.getInt("seek", 0); (mediaPlayer.getCurrentPosition()-storedPreference); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } }); Here are some other code bits for my project: From preferences file: <ListPreference android:entries="@array/seconds" android:entryValues="@array/seconds_values" android:summary="sets the seek interval for the seekback and seekforward buttons" android:title="Seek Interval" android:defaultValue="5000" android:key="@string/seek" From strings file: seek From an array file: Five seconds Fifteen seconds Thirty seconds Sixty seconds 5000 15000 30000 60000 let me know if you need to see more code to figure this one out Thanks in advance for any help that can be offered. I've worked over this issue now for a few hours and I'm burnt, a second pair of eyes on it would be very much appreciated. Arg, not sure how to get the code and plain text to format nicely here, even tried the options, like Code Sample, no luck AndroidCoder

    Read the article

  • send post data in jsf

    - by milostrivun
    I just cannot figure this out, it looks really simple but I'm relatively new at jsf. Here is the old stuff: Plain old html form tag like this: <form name="someForm" action="somewhere" method="post"> <input name="param1"/> <input name="param2" /> </form That is sending data by post to a location specified in the action attribute of the form. The new stuff: <h:form id="paymentForm"> <h:panelGroup> <h:inputText id="param1" value="#{facesView.param1}" ></h:inputText> <h:inputText id="param1" value="#{facesView.param2}" ></h:inputText> <h:panelGroup> <h:commandLink>Submit</h:commandLink> </h:panelGroup> </h:form> This other new stuff doesn't work. 1.How do I specify to this h:form where to go(like setting action in old html) because I need it to go to a totally new url. 2.how to pass params with POST? Any help is appreciated. Milos

    Read the article

  • C# ...extract email address from inside 100's of text files

    - by Developer
    My SMTP server got 100's of errors when sending lots of emails. Now have lots of .BAD files each one containing an error message and somewhere in the middle, the actual email address it was supposed to be sent to. What is the easiest way to extract from each file "just" the "email address", so that I can have a list of the actual failed emails? I can code in C# and any suggestion will be truly welcomed. BAD SAMPLE TEXT: From: [email protected] To: [email protected] Date: Tue, 25 Sep 2012 12:12:09 -0700 MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: multipart/report; report-type=delivery-status; boundary="9B095B5ADSN=_01CD9B35032DF58000000066my.server.co" X-DSNContext: 7ce717b1 - 1386 - 00000002 - C00402D1 Message-ID: Subject: Delivery Status Notification (Failure) This is a MIME-formatted message. Portions of this message may be unreadable without a MIME-capable mail program. --9B095B5ADSN=_01CD9B35032DF58000000066my.server.co Content-Type: text/plain; charset=unicode-1-1-utf-7 This is an automatically generated Delivery Status Notification. Unable to deliver message to the following recipients, due to being unable to connect successfully to the destination mail server. [email protected] --9B095B5ADSN=_01CD9B35032DF58000000066my.server.com Content-Type: message/delivery-status Reporting-MTA: dns;my.server.com Received-From-MTA: dns;Social Arrival-Date: Tue, 25 Sep 2012 11:45:15 -0700 Final-Recipient: rfc822;[email protected] Action: failed Status: 4.4.7 --9B095B5ADSN=_01CD9B35032DF58000000066my.server.com Content-Type: message/rfc822 Received: from Social ([127.0.0.1]) by my.server.com with Microsoft SMTPSVC(7.5.7601.17514); Tue, 25 Sep 2012 11:45:15 -0700 ====================================== ...and lots more text after ===================== Mainly I want to find the "[email protected]" email right in the middle...

    Read the article

  • SQL query for an access database needed

    - by masfenix
    Hey guys, first off all sorry, i can't login using my yahoo provider. anyways I have this problem. Let me explain it to you, and then I'll show you a picture. I have a access db table. It has 'report id', 'recpient id', and 'recipient name' and 'report req'. What the table "means" is that do the user using that report still require it or can we decommission it. Here is how the data looks like (blocked out company userids and usernames): *check the link below, I cant post pictures cuz yahoo open id provider isnt working. So basically I need to have 3 select queries: 1) Select all the reports where for each report, ALL the users have said no to 'reportreq'. In plain English, i want a listing of all the reports that we have to decommission because no user wants it. 2) Select all the reports where the report is required, and the batchprintcopy is more then 0. This way we can see which report needs to be printed and save paper instead of printing all the reports. 3)A listing of all the reports where the reportreq field is empty. I think i can figure this one out myself. This is using Access/VBA and the data will be exported to an excel spreadsheet. I just a simple query if it exists, OR an alogorithm to do it quickly. I just tried making a "matrix" and it took about 2 hours to populate. https://docs.google.com/uc?id=0B2EMqbpeBpQkMTIyMzA5ZjMtMGQ3Zi00NzRmLWEyMDAtODcxYWM0ZTFmMDFk&hl=en_US

    Read the article

  • Combining two .png images into one image using .NET

    - by Omega
    I have two (actually many) .png images in my application. Both have transparent areas here and there. I want, in my application, to take both images, combine them, and display the result in a picture box. Later I want to save the result through a button. So far I managed to find the two images and combine them, but it seems the transparency thing won't work. I mean, if you put one image over another, only the top image is visible as the result because, apparently, the image's background is a plain white box. Which is not. Here is a bit of my code: Dim Result As New Bitmap(96, 128) Dim g As Graphics = Graphics.FromImage(Result) Dim Name As String For Each Name In BasesCheckList.CheckedItems Dim Layer As New Bitmap(resourcesPath & "Bases\" & Name) For x = 0 To Layer.Width - 1 For y = 0 To Layer.Height - 1 Result.SetPixel(x, y, Layer.GetPixel(x, y)) Next Next Layer = Nothing Next resourcesPath is the path to my resources folder. Bases is a folder in it. And Name is the image's name. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • What is the purpose of the Html "no-js" class?

    - by Swader
    I notice that in a lot of template engines, in the HTML5 Boilerplate, in various frameworks and in plain php sites there is the no-js class added onto the html element. Why is this done? Is there some sort of default browser behavior that reacts to this class? Why include it always? Does that not render the class itself obsolete, if there is no no-"no-js" case and html can be addressed directly? Here is an example from the HTML5 Boilerplate index.html: <!--[if lt IE 7 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie6"> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 7 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie7"> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 8 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie8"> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 9 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie9"> <![endif]--> <!--[if (gt IE 9)|!(IE)]><!--> <html lang="en" class="no-js"> <!--<![endif]--> As you can see, the html element will always have this class. Can someone explain why this is done so often?

    Read the article

  • Strict pointer aliasing: is access through a 'volatile' pointer/reference a solution?

    - by doublep
    On the heels of a specific problem, a self-answer and comments to it, I'd like to understand if it is a proper solution, workaround/hack or just plain wrong. Specifically, I rewrote code: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <int*> (&x) == 0) ... As: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <volatile int*> (&x) == 0) ... with a volatile qualifier to the pointer. Let's just assume that treating T as int in my situation makes sense. Does this accessing through a volatile reference solve pointer aliasing problem? For a reference, from specification: [ Note: volatile is a hint to the implementation to avoid aggressive optimization involving the object because the value of the object might be changed by means undetectable by an implementation. See 1.9 for detailed semantics. In general, the semantics of volatile are intended to be the same in C++ as they are in C. — end note ] EDIT: The above code did solve my problem at least on GCC 4.5.

    Read the article

  • How to match a period in Regex coming from Firefox browser?

    - by Dr. Zim
    I have the following C# code which should match a quantity / $ price string like "4/$3.99". It works all day long until we use it against a string returned from Firefox Browser. 77.77 becomes 77 (dropping the .77 cents). var matches = Regex.Match(_priceText, @"^\s?((?<qty>\d+)\s?/)?\s?[$]?\s?(?<price>[0-9]?\.?[0-9]?[0-9]?)"); if( matches.Success) { if (!Decimal.TryParse(matches.Groups["price"].Value, out this._price)) this._price = 0.0m; if (!Int32.TryParse(matches.Groups["qty"].Value, out this._qty)) this._qty = (this._price > 0 ? 1 : 0); else if (this._price > 0 && this._qty == 0) this._qty = 1; } Any idea why the period wouldn't match coming from a Firefox string, but the C# string matches? There isn't any special about the Firefox we used. It's a plain Jane 1252 code page download right off the Firefox site. The computer's local settings are unaltered North American, etc. We have two different computers showing the same effects. It's Firefox 3.6.4, nothing fancy or beta.

    Read the article

  • HTML Helper/Text Box validation

    - by slandau
    I have this input on the view: <%= Html.TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission("EffectiveDate", Model.EffectiveDate.HasValue ? Model.EffectiveDate.Value.ToString("dd-MMM-yyyy") : "", new string[] { PERMISSIONS.hasICAdvanced }, new { @class = "economicTextBox", propertyName = "EffectiveDate", onchange = "parseAndSetDt(this); ", dataType = "Date" })%> Here is the custom HTML Helper: public static MvcHtmlString TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission( this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string name, object value, string[] permissions, object htmlAttributes ) { foreach (string permission in permissions) { if (Chatham.Web.UI.Extranet.SessionManager.DisplayUser.IsInRole(permission)) { // the user has the permission => render the textbox return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value, htmlAttributes); } } // the user has no permission => render a readonly checkbox var mergedHtmlAttributes = new RouteValueDictionary(htmlAttributes); mergedHtmlAttributes["disabled"] = "disabled"; return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value == "" ? DateTime.Now : value, mergedHtmlAttributes); } The way this works now is, when a user does NOT have the permission passed in, the box is disabled. The way it needs to be -- if the user does NOT have the permission passed in, it needs to be enabled, however the only dates it can accept are todays date AND dates in the future. So I need JQuery validation (or just plain JS), for this textbox on the page for the following case: If the textbox is enabled AND the user does not have the permission, allow the user to input the current date or future dates ONLY.

    Read the article

  • php how to serialize array of objects?

    - by hequ
    Hello, I have small class called 'Call' and I need to store these calls into a flat file. I've made another class called 'CallStorage' which contains an array where I put these calls into. My problem is that I would like to store this array to disk so I could later read it back and get the calls from that array. I've tried to achieve this using serialize() and unserialize() but these seems to act somehow strange and part of the information gets lost. This is what I'm doing: //write array to disk $filename = $path . 'calls-' . $today; $serialized = serialize($this->array); $fp = fopen($filename, 'a'); fwrite($fp, $serialized); fclose($fp); //read array from serialized file $filename = $path . 'calls-' . $today; if (file_exists($filename)) { $handle = fopen($filename, 'r'); $contents = fread($handle, filesize($filename)); fclose($handle); $unserialized = unserialize($contents); $this->setArray($unserialized); } Can someone see what I'm doing wrong, or what. I've also tried to serialize and write arrays that contains plain strings. I didn't manage to get that working either.. I have a Java background so I just can't see why I couldn't just write an array to disk if it's serialized. :)

    Read the article

  • Fluent / NHibernate Collections of the same class

    - by Charlie Brown
    I am new to NHibernate and I am having trouble mapping the following relationships within this class. public class Category : IAuditable { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name{ get; set; } public virtual Category ParentCategory { get; set; } public virtual IList<Category> SubCategories { get; set; } public Category() { this.Name = string.Empty; this.SubCategories = new List<Category>(); } } Class Maps (although, these are practically guesses) public class CategoryMap : ClassMap<Category> { public CategoryMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); References(x => x.ParentCategory) .Nullable() .Not.LazyLoad(); HasMany(x => x.SubCategories) .Cascade.All(); } } Each Category may have a parent category, some Categories have many subCategories, etc, etc I can get the Category to Save correctly (correct subcategories and parent category fk exist in the database) but when loading, it returns itself as the parent category. I am using Fluent for the class mapping, but if someone could point me in the right direction for just plain NHibernate that would work as well.

    Read the article

  • C# & SQL Server Authentication

    - by Peter
    Hello, I'm currently developing a C# app with an SQL Server DB back-end. I'm approaching the point of deployment and hitting a problem. The applicaiton will be deployed within an active directory network. As far as SQL authentication goes, I understand that I have 2 options - Windows Authenticaiton or Server Authenticaiton. If I use Server Authentication, I'm concerned that the username and password for the account will be stored in plain text in the app.config file, and therefore leave the database vulnerable. Using Windows Authenticaiton will avoid this issue, however it would mean giving every member of staff within our organisation read/write access to the database in order to run the app correctly. Whilst this is ok, it also means that they can easily connect to the database themselves via other means and directly alter the data outside of the app. I'm guessing there is someting really obvious I'm missing here, but I've been googling all evening to no avail. Any advice/guidance would be much appreciated! Peter Addition - my project is Windows Form based not ASP.NET - is encrypting the app.config file still the right answer? If it is, does anyone have any examples that are not ASP.NET based?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET: I'm getting strange output when styling a Label control...

    - by pkiyan
    .labelOne { border-width:thin; border-style:solid; border-color:Red; background-color:Silver; } <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" CssClass="labelOne"> <h1>Hello world</h1> </asp:Label> <br /><br /> <asp:Label ID="Label2" runat="server" BorderColor="Black" BorderStyle="Solid" BorderWidth="1px" BackColor="Silver"> <h1>Hello world</h1> </asp:Label> Hello. In the code sample above I have 2 Label controls with their contents set to an h1 header tag. The first Label is styled using css, and the second with the Label's inline properties (both Labels have identical styling). But the first Label doesn't output properly, it's border is broken. If I replace the first Label's markup with plain "Hello world" text it renders properly, but it breaks again when I use markup. Can someone explain why this is happening?

    Read the article

  • Best practice how to store HTML in a database column

    - by tbrandao
    I have an application that modifies a table dynamically, think spreadsheet), then upon saving the form (which the table is part of) ,I store that changed table (with user modifications) in a database column named html_Spreadhseet,along with the rest of the form data. right now I'm just storing the html in a plain text format with basic escaping of characters... I'm aware that this could be stored as a separate file, the source table (html_workseeet) already is. But from a data handling perspective its easier to save the changed html table to and from a column so as to avoid having to come up with a file management strategy (which folder will this live in, now must include folder in backups, security issues now need to apply to files, how to sync db security with file system etc.), so to minimize these issues I'm only storing the ... part in the database column. My question is should I gzip the HTML , maybe use JSON, or some other format to easily store and retrieve the HTML from the database column, what is the best practice to store HTML content in a datbase? Or just store it as I currently am as an escaped text column?

    Read the article

  • How to map a 0..1 to 1 relationship in Entity Framework 3

    - by sako73
    I have two tables, Users, and Address. A the user table has a field that maps to the primary key of the address table. This field can be null. In plain english, Address exist independent of other objects. A user may be associated with one address. In the database, I have this set up as a foreign key relationship. I am attempting to map this relationship in the Entity Framework. I am getting errors on the following code: <Association Name="fk_UserAddress"> <End Role="User" Type="GenesisEntityModel.Store.User" Multiplicity="1"/> <End Role="Address" Type="GenesisEntityModel.Store.Address" Multiplicity="0..1" /> <ReferentialConstraint> <Principal Role="Address"> <PropertyRef Name="addressId"/> </Principal> <Dependent Role="User"> <PropertyRef Name="addressId"/> </Dependent> </ReferentialConstraint> </Association> It is giving a "The Lower Bound of the multiplicity must be 0" error. I would appreciate it if anyone could explain the error, and the best way to solve it. Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • Enforcing default time when only date in timestamptz provided

    - by Incognito
    Assume I have the table: postgres=# create table foo (datetimes timestamptz); CREATE TABLE postgres=# \d+ foo Table "public.foo" Column | Type | Modifiers | Storage | Description -----------+--------------------------+-----------+---------+------------- datetimes | timestamp with time zone | | plain | Has OIDs: no So lets insert some values into it... postgres=# insert into foo values ('2012-12-12'), --This is the value I want to catch for. (null), ('2012-12-12 12:12:12'), ('2012-12-12 12:12'); INSERT 0 4 And here's what we have: postgres=# select * from foo ; datetimes ------------------------ 2012-12-12 00:00:00+00 2012-12-12 12:12:12+00 2012-12-12 12:12:00+00 (4 rows) Ideally, I'd like to set up a default time-stamp value when a TIME is not provided with the input, rather than the de-facto time of 2012-12-12 being 00:00:00, I would like to set a default of 15:45:10. Meaning, my results should look like: postgres=# select * from foo ; datetimes ------------------------ 2012-12-12 15:45:10+00 --This one gets the default time. 2012-12-12 12:12:12+00 2012-12-12 12:12:00+00 (4 rows) I'm not really sure how to do this in postgres 8.4, I can't find anything in the datetime section of the manual or the sections regarding column default values.

    Read the article

  • Need Help with .NET OpenId HttpHandler

    - by Mark E
    I'm trying to use a single HTTPHandler to authenticate a user's open id and receive a claimresponse. The initial authentication works, but the claimresponse does not. The error I receive is "This webpage has a redirect loop." What am I doing wrong? public class OpenIdLogin : IHttpHandler { private HttpContext _context = null; public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { _context = context; var openid = new OpenIdRelyingParty(); var response = openid.GetResponse(); if (response == null) { // Stage 2: user submitting Identifier openid.CreateRequest(context.Request.Form["openid_identifier"]).RedirectToProvider(); } else { // Stage 3: OpenID Provider sending assertion response switch (response.Status) { case AuthenticationStatus.Authenticated: //FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage(response.ClaimedIdentifier, false); string identifier = response.ClaimedIdentifier; //****** TODO only proceed if we don't have the user's extended info in the database ************** ClaimsResponse claim = response.GetExtension<ClaimsResponse>(); if (claim == null) { //IAuthenticationRequest req = openid.CreateRequest(identifier); IAuthenticationRequest req = openid.CreateRequest(Identifier.Parse(identifier)); var fields = new ClaimsRequest(); fields.Email = DemandLevel.Request; req.AddExtension(fields); req.RedirectingResponse.Send(); //Is this correct? } else { context.Response.ContentType = "text/plain"; context.Response.Write(claim.Email); //claim.FullName; } break; case AuthenticationStatus.Canceled: //TODO break; case AuthenticationStatus.Failed: //TODO break; } } }

    Read the article

  • jQuery form zip code to state function

    - by Dakota R.
    I'm trying to convert a preexisting javascript function into a jQuery function. The function comes from http://javascript.internet.com/forms/zip-to-state.html and aims to convert a user-entered zip code into a state. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2, with all the necessary plugins, but I'm not very familiar with jQuery syntax and how to convert this from plain ol' Javascript syntax. The setState function takes two parameters, the zip code element and the state element, so I'm trying to do something like this: $('$zip_code').change( function () { setState($(this), $('#state')); }); Any thoughts on this syntax? Thanks, Dakota function getState(zip) { if ((parseInt(zipString.substr(zip / 4, 1), 16) & Math.pow(2, zip % 4)) && (zip.length == 5)) for (var i = 0; i < stateRange.length; i += 7) if (zip <= 1 * stateRange.substr(i, 5)) return stateRange.substr(i + 5, 2); return null; } function setState(txtZip, optionBox) { if (txtZip.value.length != 5 || isNaN(txtZip.value / 4)) { optionBox.options[0].selected = true; alert("Please enter a 5 digit, numeric zip code."); return; } var state = getState(txtZip.value); for (var i = 0; i < optionBox.options.length; i++) if (optionBox.options[i].value == state) return optionBox.options[i].selected = true; for (var i = 0; i < optionBox.options.length; i++) if (optionBox.options[i].value == "XX") return optionBox.options[i].selected = true; }

    Read the article

  • Is there a recommended way to communicate scientific/engineering programming to C developers?

    - by ggkmath
    Hi, I have a lot of MATLAB code that needs to get ported to C (execution speed is critical for this work) as part of a back-end process for a web application. When I attempt to outsource this code to a C developer, I assume (correct me if I'm wrong) few C developers also understand MATLAB code (things like indexing and memory management are different, etc.). I wonder if there are any C developers out there that can recommend a procedure for me to follow to best communicate what the code does? For example, should I provide the MATLAB code and explain what it's doing line by line? Or, should I just provide the math/algorithm, explain it in plain English, and let the C developer implement it with this understanding in his/her own way (e.g. can I assume the developer understands how to work with complex math (i.e. imaginary numbers), how to generate histograms, perform an FFT, etc.)? Or, is there a better method? I expect I'm not the first to need to do this, so I wonder if any C developers out there ran into this situation and can share any conventional wisdom how they'd like this task to be transferred? Thanks in advance for any comments.

    Read the article

  • Slightly different execution times between python2 and python3

    - by user557634
    Hi. Lastly I wrote a simple generator of permutations in python (implementation of "plain changes" algorithm described by Knuth in "The Art... 4"). I was curious about the differences in execution time of it between python2 and python3. Here is my function: def perms(s): s = tuple(s) N = len(s) if N <= 1: yield s[:] raise StopIteration() for x in perms(s[1:]): for i in range(0,N): yield x[:i] + (s[0],) + x[i:] I tested both using timeit module. My tests: $ echo "python2.6:" && ./testing.py && echo "python3:" && ./testing3.py python2.6: args time[ms] 1 0.003811 2 0.008268 3 0.015907 4 0.042646 5 0.166755 6 0.908796 7 6.117996 8 48.346996 9 433.928967 10 4379.904032 python3: args time[ms] 1 0.00246778964996 2 0.00656183719635 3 0.01419159912 4 0.0406293644678 5 0.165960511097 6 0.923101452814 7 6.24257639835 8 53.0099868774 9 454.540967941 10 4585.83498001 As you can see, for number of arguments less than 6, python 3 is faster, but then roles are reversed and python2.6 does better. As I am a novice in python programming, I wonder why is that so? Or maybe my script is more optimized for python2? Thank you in advance for kind answer :)

    Read the article

  • Understanding REST: is GET fundamentally incompatible with any "number of views" counter?

    - by cocotwo
    I'm trying to understand REST. Under REST a GET must not trigger something transactional on the server (this is a definition everybody agrees upon, it is fundamental to REST). So imagine you've got a website like stackoverflow.com (I say like so if I got the underlying details of SO wrong it doesn't change anything to my question), where everytime someone reads a question, using a GET, there's also some display showing "This question has been read 256 times". Now someone else reads that question. The counter now is at 257. The GET is transactional because the number of views got incremented and is now incremented again. The "number of views" is incremented in the DB, there's no arguing about that (for example on SO the number of time any question has been viewed is always displayed). So, is a REST GET fundamentally incompatible with any kind of "number of views" like functionality in a website? So should it want to be "RESTFUL", should the SO main page either stop display plain HTML links that are accessed using GETs or stop displaying the "this question has been viewed x times"? Because incrementing a counter in a DB is transactional and hence "unrestful"? EDIT just so that people Googling this can get some pointers: From http://www.xfront.com/REST-Web-Services.html : 4. All resources accessible via HTTP GET should be side-effect free. That is, the request should just return a representation of the resource. Invoking the resource should not result in modifying the resource. Now to me if the representation contains the "number of views", it is part of the resource [and in SO the "number of views" a question has is a very important information] and accessing it definitely modifies the resource. This is in sharp contrast with, say, a true RESTFUL HTTP GET like the one you can make on an Amazon S3 resource, where your GET is guaranteed not to modify the resource you get back. But then I'm still very confused.

    Read the article

  • Why does Python sometimes upgrade a string to unicode and sometimes not?

    - by samtregar
    I'm confused. Consider this code working the way I expect: >>> foo = u'Émilie and Juañ are turncoats.' >>> bar = "foo is %s" % foo >>> bar u'foo is \xc3\x89milie and Jua\xc3\xb1 are turncoats.' And this code not at all working the way I expect: >>> try: ... raise Exception(foo) ... except Exception as e: ... foo2 = e ... >>> bar = "foo2 is %s" % foo2 ------------------------------------------------------------ Traceback (most recent call last): File "<ipython console>", line 1, in <module> UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode characters in position 0-1: ordinal not in range(128) Can someone explain what's going on here? Why does it matter whether the unicode data is in a plain unicode string or stored in an Exception object? And why does this fix it: >>> bar = u"foo2 is %s" % foo2 >>> bar u'foo2 is \xc3\x89milie and Jua\xc3\xb1 are turncoats.' I am quite confused! Thanks for the help! UPDATE: My coding buddy Randall has added to my confusion in an attempt to help me! Send in the reinforcements to explain how this is supposed to make sense: >>> class A: ... def __str__(self): return "string" ... def __unicode__(self): return "unicode" ... >>> "%s %s" % (u'niño', A()) u'ni\xc3\xb1o unicode' >>> "%s %s" % (A(), u'niño') u'string ni\xc3\xb1o' Note that the order of the arguments here determines which method is called!

    Read the article

  • How to access the members of this data in PHP?

    - by George Edison
    Okay. Now I give up. I have been playing with this for hours. I have a variable name $data. The variable contains these contents: (extracted by using var_export()) array ( 'headers' => array ( 'content-type' => 'multipart/alternative; boundary="_689e1a7d-7a0a-442a-bd6c-a1fb1dc2993e_"', ), 'ctype_parameters' => array ( 'boundary' => '_689e1a7d-7a0a-442a-bd6c-a1fb1dc2993e_', ), 'parts' => array ( 0 => stdClass::__set_state(array( 'headers' => array ( 'content-type' => 'text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"', 'content-transfer-encoding' => 'quoted-printable', ), 'ctype_primary' => 'text', )), ), ) I removed some non-essential data. I want to access the headers value (on the second line above) - simple: $data->headers I want to access the headers value (on the fourteenth line after the stdClass:: stuff) - how? How can I possibly access the values within the stdClass::__set_state section? I tried var_export($data->parts); but all I get is NULL

    Read the article

  • Generating jquery 'rules' from business model to UI in asp.net mvc

    - by jim
    Hi all, I've had a good look around and am certain that there's no matching question on SO, so here goes. Has anyone created a 'helper' method on their model that generates jquery (or plain javascript) rules validation dynamically, based on the criteria/rules that are contained within the object and taken from a repository (i.e. DB). What i'm thinking of is a discrete set of partial views (and associated models) that have rules at the business logic 'level' and rather than (or in combination with) validating the rule(s) at postback, translating the same rules into tightly focussed jquery methods that work identically at client (js) and server (c#) levels. I can see benefits here re performance. Also, the rules definitions could be created in a single place (in c#) and the jquery generated off of that, thus allowing single edits to update both code streams. I appreciate that there would be limitations imposed by language specific contstraints but the general principle could be quite interesting if used appropriately. I'm also aware that testibility could be an issue when using two different language structures and hoping to achieve similar test outcomes - but those aside... any thoughts or experiences of similar out there?? cheers jimi

    Read the article

  • useer degined Copy ctor, and copy-ctors further down the chain - compiler bug ? programers brainbug

    - by J.Colmsee
    Hi. i have a little problem, and I am not sure if it's a compiler bug, or stupidity on my side. I have this struct : struct BulletFXData { int time_next_fx_counter; int next_fx_steps; Particle particles[2];//this is the interesting one ParticleManager::ParticleId particle_id[2]; }; The member "Particle particles[2]" has a self-made kind of smart-ptr in it (resource-counted texture-class). this smart-pointer has a default constructor, that initializes to the ptr to 0 (but that is not important) I also have another struct, containing the BulletFXData struct : struct BulletFX { BulletFXData data; BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr; BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr; BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr; BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr; BulletFX( BulletFXData data, BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr, BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr, BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr, BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr) :data(data), render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } /* //USER DEFINED copy-ctor. if it's defined things go crazy BulletFX(const BulletFX& rhs) :data(data),//this line of code seems to do a plain memory-copy without calling the right ctors render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } */ }; If i use the user-defined copy-ctor my smart-pointer class goes crazy, and it seems that calling the CopyCtor / assignment operator aren't called as they should. So - does this all make sense ? it seems as if my own copy-ctor of struct BulletFX should do exactly what the compiler-generated would, but it seems to forget to call the right constructors down the chain. compiler bug ? me being stupid ? Sorry about the big code, some small example could have illustrated too. but often you guys ask for the real code, so well - here it is :D

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103  | Next Page >