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• Spring 3.0 vs J2EE 6.0

  - by StudiousJoseph

  Hi everybody, I'm confronted with a situation... I've been asked to give an advise regarding which approach to take, in terms of J2EE development between Spring 3.0 and J2EE 6.0. I was, and still am, a promoter of Spring 2.5 over classic J2EE 5 development, specially with JBoss, I even migrated old apps to Spring and influenced the re-definition of the development policy here to include Spring specific APIs, and helped the development of a strategic plan to foster more lightweight solutions like Spring + Tomcat, instead of the heavier ones of JBoss, right now, we're using JBoss merely as a Web container, having what i call the "container inside the container paradox", that is, having Spring apps, with most of its APIs, running inside JBoss, So we're in the process of migrating to tomcat. However, with the coming of J2EE 6.0 many features, that made Spring attractive at that time, easy deployment, less-coupling, even some sort of D.I, etc, seems to have been mimicked, in one way or the other. JSF 2.0, JPA 2.0, WebBeans, WebProfiles, etc. So, the question goes... From your point of view, how save, and logical, it is to continue to invest in a non-standard J2EE development framework like Spring given the new perspectives offered by J2EE 6.0? Can we talk about maybe 3 or 4 more years of Spring development, or do you recommend early adoption of J2EE 6.0 APIs and it's practices? I'll appreciate any insights with this...

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• Should java try blocks be scoped as tightly as possible?

  - by isme

  I've been told that there is some overhead in using the Java try-catch mechanism. So, while it is necessary to put methods that throw checked exception within a try block to handle the possible exception, it is good practice performance-wise to limit the size of the try block to contain only those operations that could throw exceptions. I'm not so sure that this is a sensible conclusion. Consider the two implementations below of a function that processes a specified text file. Even if it is true that the first one incurs some unnecessary overhead, I find it much easier to follow. It is less clear where exactly the exceptions come from just from looking at statements, but the comments clearly show which statements are responsible. The second one is much longer and complicated than the first. In particular, the nice line-reading idiom of the first has to be mangled to fit the readLine call into a try block. What is the best practice for handling exceptions in a funcion where multiple exceptions could be thrown in its definition? This one contains all the processing code within the try block: void processFile(File f) { try { // construction of FileReader can throw FileNotFoundException BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(f)); // call of readLine can throw IOException String line; while ((line = in.readLine()) != null) { process(line); } } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { handle(ex); } catch (IOException ex) { handle(ex); } } This one contains only the methods that throw exceptions within try blocks: void processFile(File f) { FileReader reader; try { reader = new FileReader(f); } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { handle(ex); return; } BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(reader); String line; while (true) { try { line = in.readLine(); } catch (IOException ex) { handle(ex); break; } if (line == null) { break; } process(line); } }

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• Initializing objects on the fly

  - by pocoa

  I have a vector called players and a class called Player. And what I'm trying to do is to write: players.push_back(Player(name, Weapon(bullets))); So I want to be able to create players in a loop. But I see an error message says "no matching function for call Player::Player..." Then I've changed that to: Weapon w(bullets); Player p(name, w); players.push_back(p); Here is my Player definition: class Player { public: Player(string &name, Weapon &weapon); private string name; Weapon weapon; } I'm just trying to learn what is the difference between these definitions. And is this the right way to pass an object to an object constructor. Note: These are not my actual class definitions. I'm just trying to learn something about object oriented programming in C++ with coding it. I mean I know that Weapon should be initialized in Player :)

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• Form (or Formset?) to handle multiple table rows in Django

  - by Ben

  Hi, I'm working on my first Django application. In short, what it needs to do is to display a list of film titles, and allow users to give a rating (out of 10) to each film. I've been able to use the {{ form }} and {{ formset }} syntax in a template to produce a form which lets you rate one film at a time, which corresponds to one row in a MySQL table, but how do I produce a form that iterates over all the movie titles in the database and produces a form that lets you rate lots of them at once? At first, I thought this was what formsets were for, but I can't see any way to automatically iterate over the contents of a database table to produce items to go in the form, if you see what I mean. Currently, my views.py has this code: def survey(request): ScoreFormSet = formset_factory(ScoreForm) if request.method == 'POST': formset = ScoreFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES) if formset.is_valid(): return HttpResponseRedirect('/') else: formset = ScoreFormSet() return render_to_response('cf/survey.html', { 'formset':formset, }) And my survey.html has this: <form action="/survey/" method="POST"> <table> {{ formset }} </table> <input type = "submit" value = "Submit"> </form> Oh, and the definition of ScoreForm and Score from models.py are: class Score(models.Model): movie = models.ForeignKey(Movie) score = models.IntegerField() user = models.ForeignKey(User) class ScoreForm(ModelForm): class Meta: model = Score So, in case the above is not clear, what I'm aiming to produce is a form which has one row per movie, and each row shows a title, and has a box to allow the user to enter their score. If anyone can point me at the right sort of approach to this, I'd be most grateful. Thanks, Ben

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• Get updated size of QGraphicsView

  - by onurozcelik

  Hi, In my Qt Application I am dynamically creating QGraphicsView(s) and adding them inside a QGridLayout. When I add first view inside grid, the view covers all the available space inside grid. Then I add second view and there are now two equally sized views inside grid. Then I add third view and there are now three equally sized views inside grid. And so on. How can I get updated size of first view? Below is my trial but I think this is not working. //Definition of viewsPerRow static const int viewsPerRow = 3; void window::newViewRequested() { QGraphicsView *view = new QGraphicsView; view->setVisible(true); viewVector.push_back(view); for(int i = viewGrid->count(); i < viewVector.count(); i++) { viewGrid->addWidget(view,i / viewsPerRow ,i % viewsPerRow); } qDebug()<<viewGrid->cellRect(0,0); }

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• Python and the self parameter

  - by Svend

  I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

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• divert asp.net child controls

  - by Eric

  Hi Folks, I am trying to create an asp.net custom control that acts as a hosting container for any other controls, similar to the existing ‘Panel’ control. Basically, I need to build a web control that groups a bunch of other controls. It will consist of a header and a body pane, similar to a normal window in desktop application. The header will contain some simple text and some JavaScript driven code that shows/hides the body pane. The body pane simply hosts any number of other controls. +------------------------------------------------------+ | User Details Show/Hide | +------------------------------------------------------+ | Name: [Eric ] | | Address: [Some where] | | Date of Birth: [01/01/1980] | | | | (any other fields goes on) | | | | | +------------------------------------------------------+ Ideally I want to create a control that packs the whole thing together, so at design time I could use the following markup. <myCtl:SuperContainer runat=”server” Title=”User Details”> <asp:label id=”lblName” runat=”server” text=”Name:”/> <asp:textbox id=”txtName” runat=”server”/> <asp:label id=”lblDOB” runat=”server” text=”Date of Birth:”/> <asp:textbox id=”txtDOB” runat=”server”/> (…other controls definition…) </myCtl:SuperContainer> I plan to include two panels in my control, one for the header and another one for the body, but as you can see, the key issue is to find a way to ‘divert’ the child controls that are defined in the markup to the body panel, instead of the default parent container. I feel it can be some how simply override (manipulate) the control property, but don’t know how to properly do so. Can any one give some idea about how to implement this ‘SuperContainer’ control? Many thank, Eric

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• php OOP function declarations

  - by kris

  I'm a big fan of OOP in php, but i feel like defining class methods gets disorganized so fast. I have a pretty good background in OOP in C++, and i am pretty comfortable with how it is handled there, and am curious if there are ways to do it similarly in php. To be more specific, here is what i mean. I like how in C++ you can define a class header (myclass.h) and then define the actual details of the functions in the implementation file (myclass.cc). Ive found that this can easily be replicated using interfaces in php, but i havent found a good solution for the following: I like to organize my code in C++ in different files based on how they are accessed, so for example, public methods that can be called outside of the class would be in 1 place, and private methods would be organized somewhere else - this is personal preference. Ive tried to define class methods in php like: private function MyPHPClass::myFunction(){ } when the definition isnt directly inside the class block( { } ), but i havent had any success doing this. Ive been through all of the pages on php.net, but couldnt find anything like this. Im assuming that there is no support for something like this, but thought i would ask anyway. thanks

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• Cannot access Class methods from previous windows form - C#

  - by George

  I am writing an app, still, where I need to test some devices every minute for 30 minutes. It made sense to use a timer set to kick off every 60 secs and do whats required in the event handler. However, I need the app to wait for the 30 mins until I have finished with the timer since the following code alters the state of the devices I am trying to monitor. I obviously don't want to use any form of loop to do this. I thought of using another windows form, since I also display the progress, which will simply kick off the timer and wait until its complete. The problem I am having with this is that I use a device Class and cant seem to get access to the methods in the device class from the 2nd (3rd actually - see below) windows form. I have an initial windows form where I get input from the user, then call the 2nd windows form where it work out which tests need to be done and which device classes need to be used, and then I want to call the 3rd windows form to handle the timer. I will have up to 6-7 device classes and so wanted to only instantiate them when actually requiring them, from the 2nd form. Should I have put this logic into the 1st windows form (program class ??) ? Would I not still have the problem of not being able to access device class methods from there too ? Anyway, perhaps someone knows of a better way to do the checks every minute without the rest of the code executing (and changing the status of the devices) or how I should be accessing the methods in the app ?? Well that's the problem, I cant get that part of it to work correctly. Here is the definition for the calling form including the device class - namespace NdtStart { public partial class fclsNDTCalib : Form { NDTClass NDT = new NDTClass(); public fclsNDTCalib() (new fclsNDTTicker(NDT)).ShowDialog(); Here is the class def for the called form - namespace NdtStart { public partial class fclsNDTTicker : Form { public fclsNDTTicker() I tried lots but couldn't get the arguments to work.

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• Navigating through code with keyboard shortcuts

  - by MarceloRamires

  I'm starting to feel the need to run fastly through code with keyboard shortcuts, to arrive faster where I want to make any changes (avoiding use of mouse or long times holding [up], [left], [right] and [down]). I'm already using some: [home] - first position in current line [end] - last position in current line [ctrl] + [home] - first line of the entire code [ctrl] + [end] - last line of the entire code [pageup] - same vertical position, one screen above [pagedown] - same vertical position, one screen below [ctrl] + [pageup] - first line in current screen [ctrl] + [end] - last line in current screen [ctrl] + [left/right] - skipping word per word What have you got ? I use Visual Studio. (but I'm open to any answer, as I maybe can use others soon) obs: I've searched through stackoverflow and didn't find a nice question with this content, nor a list of keyboard code searching. If it's repeated, I'm sorry for not finding it, I'm here in my best intentions. This question is NOT about any shortcuts, and not only about visual studio, it's about running through code with shortcuts. Answers that suit the question so far: [Ctrl] + [-] - jumps to last cursor position [Ctrl] + [F3] - Jumps to next occurance of the word the curson is in [Shift] + [F3] - Same as the above, backwards. [F12] - Goes to definition of method/variable the cursor is in [Ctrl] + [ ] ] - Jumps to matching brace and select I'll ad more as there are answers.

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• Type classe, generic memoization

  - by nicolas

  Something quite odd is happening with y types and I quite dont understand if this is justified or not. I would tend to think not. This code works fine : type DictionarySingleton private () = static let mutable instance = Dictionary<string*obj, obj>() static member Instance = instance let memoize (f:'a -> 'b) = fun (x:'a) -> let key = f.ToString(), (x :> obj) if (DictionarySingleton.Instance).ContainsKey(key) then let r = (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] r :?> 'b else let res = f x (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] <- (res :> obj) res And this ones complains type DictionarySingleton private () = static let mutable instance = Dictionary<string*obj, _>() static member Instance = instance let memoize (f:'a -> 'b) = fun (x:'a) -> let key = f.ToString(), (x :> obj) if (DictionarySingleton.Instance).ContainsKey(key) then let r = (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] r :?> 'b else let res = f x (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] <- (res :> obj) res The difference is only the underscore in the dictionary definition. The infered types are the same, but the dynamic cast from r to type 'b exhibits an error. 'this runtime coercition ... runtime type tests are not allowed on some types, etc..' Am I missing something or is it a rough edge ?

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• 'WebException' error on back button even when calling 'void' async method

  - by BlazingFrog

  I have a windows phone app that allows the user to interact with it. Each interaction will always result in an async WCF call. In addition to that, some interactions will result in opening the browser, maps, email, etc... The problem is that, when hitting the back button, I sometime get the following error "An error (WebException) occurred while transmitting data over the HTTP channel." with the following stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.OnGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeGetResponseCallback>b__8(Object state2) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.doWork(Object o) at System.Threading.Timer.ring() My understanding is that it's happening because my app opened another app (browser, maps, etc) before it had the time to execute the EndMyAsyncMethod(System.IAsyncResult result). Fair enough... What's really annoying is that it seems it should get fixed by cloning the server-side method, only making it void with the following operation contract [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] but I'm still getting the error. What's worse is that the exception is thrown in a system-generated part of the code and, thus, cannot be manually caught causing the app to just crash. I simply don't understand the need to execute an Endxxx method when it's explicitely marked as OneWay and void. EDIT I did find a similar issue here. It does seem that it is related to the message getting to the service (not the client callback). My next question is: if I'm now calling a method marked AsyncPattern and OneWay, what exactly should I be waiting for on the client to be sure the message was transmitted successfully? This is new service definition: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, AsyncPattern = true)] IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s); void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r); And the implementation: public IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s) { // do some stuff return new CompletedAsyncResult<string>(""); } public void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r) { }

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• C# Fun with Generics - Mutual Dependencies

  - by Kenneth Cochran

  As an experiment I'm trying to write a generic MVP framework. I started with: public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView<IPresenter<... { TView View { get; set;} } public interface IView<TPresenter> where TPresenter:IPresenter<IView<... { TPresenter Presenter { get; set; } } Obviously this can't work because the types of TView and TPresenter can't be resolved. You'd be writing Type<Type<... forever. So my next attempt looked like this: public interface IView<T> where T:IPresenter { ... } public interface IView:IView<IPresenter> { } public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView { ... } public interface IPresenter: IPresenter<IView> { ... } This actually compiles and you can even inherit from these interfaces like so: public class MyView : IView, IView<MyPresenter> { ... } public class MyPresenter : IPresenter, IPresenter<MyView> { ... } The problem is in the class definition you have to define any members declared in the generic type twice. Not ideal but it still compiles. The problem's start creeping up when you actually try to access the members of a Presenter from a View or vice versa. You get an Ambiguous reference when you try to compile. Is there any way to avoid this double implementation of a member when you inherit from both interfaces? Is it even possible to resolve two mutually dependent generic types at compile time?

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• A commercial software but open and free for personal/edu. How to license?

  - by Ivan

  I am developing a software to sell for business use but am willing to make it free and open-source for personal and educational use. Actually I can see the flowing requirements I would like the license to set: Personal and educational usage of the program and its source codes is to be free. In case of publishing of derivative works the original work and author (me) must be mentioned (incl. textual link to my website in a not-very-far-hidden place) and the derivative work must have different name. A derivative work can be closed-source. In every case of commercial (when the end-user is a commercial body (as a company (expect of non-profit organizations), an individual entrepreneur or government office)) usage of my work or any of derivative works made by anyone, the end-user, service provider or the derivative author must buy a commercial license from me. I mean no guarantees or responsibilities, whether expressed or implied... (except the case when one explicitly purchases a support service contract from me and the particular contract specifies a responsibility). Is there a known common license for this case? As far as I can see now it can not be OSI-approved as it does not comply to the §6. of OSI definition of open source. But there still can be an a common known reusable license for this case as it looks quite natural, I think.

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• What would be different in Java if Enum declaration didn't have the recursive part

  - by atamur

  Please see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/211143/java-enum-definition and http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3061759/why-in-java-enum-is-declared-as-enume-extends-enume for general discussion. Here I would like to learn what exactly would be broken (not typesafe anymore, or requiring additional casts etc) if Enum class was defined as public class Enum<E extends Enum> I'm using this code for testing my ideas: interface MyComparable<T> { int myCompare(T o); } class MyEnum<E extends MyEnum> implements MyComparable<E> { public int myCompare(E o) { return -1; } } class FirstEnum extends MyEnum<FirstEnum> {} class SecondEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} With it I wasn't able to find any benefits in this exact case. PS. the fact that I'm not allowed to do class ThirdEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} when MyEnum is defined with recursion is a) not relevant, because with real enums you are not allowed to do that just because you can't extend enum yourself b) not true - pls try it in a compiler and see that it in fact is able to compile w/o any errors PPS. I'm more and more inclined to believe that the correct answer here would be "nothing would change if you remove the recursive part" - but I just can't believe that.

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• What is the optimum way to secure a company wide wiki?

  - by Mark Robinson

  We have a wiki which is used by over half our company. Generally it has been very positively received. However, there is a concern over security - not letting confidential information fall into the wrong hands (i.e. competitors). The default answer is to create a complicated security matrix defining who can read what document (wiki page) based on who created it. Personally I think this mainly solves the wrong problem because it creates barriers within the company instead of a barrier to the external world. But some are concerned that people at a customer site might share information with a customer which then goes to the competitor. The administration of such a matrix is a nightmare because (1) the matrix is based on department and not projects (this is a matrix organisation), and (2) because in a wiki all pages are by definition dynamic so what is confidential today might not be confidential tomorrow (but the history is always readable!). Apart from the security matrix, we've considered restricting content on the wiki to non super secret stuff, but off course that needs to be monitored. Another solution (the current) is to monitor views and report anything suspicious (e.g. one person at a customer site having 2000 views in two days was reported). Again - this is not ideal because this does not directly imply a wrong motive. Does anyone have a better solution? How can a company wide wiki be made secure and yet keep its low threshold USP? BTW we use MediaWiki with Lockdown to exclude some administrative staff.

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• Why Illegal cookies are send by Browser and received by web servers (rfc2109)?

  - by Artyom

  Hello, According to RFC 2109 cookie's value can be either HTTP token or quoted string, and token can't include non-ASCII characters. Cookie's RFC 2109: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2109#page-3 HTTP's RFC 2068 token definition: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2068#page-16 However I had found that Firefox browser (3.0.6) sends cookies with utf-8 string as-is and three web servers I tested (apache2, lighttpd, nginx) pass this string as-is to the application. For example, raw request from browser: $ nc -l -p 8080 GET /hello HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost:8080 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux x86_64; en-US; rv:1.9.0.9) Gecko/2009050519 Firefox/2.0.0.13 (Debian-3.0.6-1) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1255,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? Cache-Control: max-age=0 And raw response of apache, nginx and lighttpd HTTP_COOKIE CGI variable: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? What do I miss? Can somebody explain me?

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• Register new memer for vBulletin via Mobile API

  - by Nikolay Stariradeff

  I'm trying to use the vBulletin REST Mobile API to simply register. The sourced are installed on my local machine and according the documentation https://www.vbulletin.com/forum/content.php/393-User-Registration-Process-Mobile-API This procedure should not be so hard, especially without humanity and COPPA authentication. However I've stacked! The method definition describes "addnewmember" clear, so I've generated a test link, which should do the job. https://www.vbulletin.com/forum/content.php/365-User-Related-Methods The link is: .../forum/api.php?&api_m=register_addmember&api_c=1&api_s=76ec9eec61e7fdfef2f3feee28d5f392&api_sig=8fe54313b333cc0fef4ddd8e398b5c80&api_v=6&agree=1&username=testuser&email=XXXXXX%40gmail.com&emailconfirm=XXXXX%40gmail.com&password=12345678&passwordconfirm=12345678 As a response I get: register_not_agreed The Docs: register_not_agreed The agree parameter should be set to 1. Which is also clear - agree parameter was not there. Here comes the funny part - In the API-Log I can see that the 'agree' parameter is correctly passed *1 test_client Gast 13:23, 18.06.2012 register_addmember Array ( [api_m] = register_addmember [api_c] = 1 [api_s] = 76ec9eec61e7fdfef2f3feee28d5f392 [api_sig] = 8fe54313b333cc0fef4ddd8e398b5c80 [api_v] = 6 [agree] = 1 [username] = testuser [email] = ....* Is there anybody with experience with the Mobile API that could help?

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• How to solve generic algebra using solver/library programmatically? Matlab, Mathematica, Wolfram etc?

  - by DevDevDev

  I'm trying to build an algebra trainer for students. I want to construct a representative problem, define constraints and relationships on the parameters, and then generate a bunch of Latex formatted problems from the representation. As an example: A specific question might be: If y < 0 and (x+3)(y-5) = 0, what is x? Answer (x = -3) I would like to encode this as a Latex formatted problem like. If $y<0$ and $(x+constant_1)(y+constant_2)=0$ what is the value of x? Answer = -constant_1 And plug into my problem solver constant_1 > 0, constant_1 < 60, constant_1 = INTEGER constant_2 < 0, constant_2 > -60, constant_2 = INTEGER Then it will randomly construct me pairs of (constant_1, constant_2) that I can feed into my Latex generator. Obviously this is an extremely simple example with no real "solving" but hopefully it gets the point across. Things I'm looking for ideally in priority order * Solve algebra problems * Definition of relationships relatively straight forward * Rich support for latex formatting (not just writing encoded strings) Thanks!

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• C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

  - by zinking

  there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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• How can I use a custom configured RememberMeAuthenticationFilter in spring security?

  - by Sebastian

  I want to use a slightly customized rememberme functionality with spring security (3.1.0). I declare the rememberme tag like this: <security:remember-me key="JNJRMBM" user-service-ref="gymUserDetailService" /> As I have my own rememberme service I need to inject that into the RememberMeAuthenticationFilter which I define like this: <bean id="rememberMeFilter" class="org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.RememberMeAuthenticationFilter"> <property name="rememberMeServices" ref="gymRememberMeService"/> <property name="authenticationManager" ref="authenticationManager" /> </bean> I have spring security integrated in a standard way in my web.xml: <filter-name>springSecurityFilterChain</filter-name> <filter-class>org.springframework.web.filter.DelegatingFilterProxy</filter-class> Everything works fine, except that the RememberMeAuthenticationFilter uses the standard RememberMeService, so I think that my defined RememberMeAuthenticationFilter is not being used. How can I make sure that my definition of the filter is being used? Do I need to create a custom filterchain? And if so, how can I see my current "implicit" filterchain and make sure I use the same one except my RememberMeAuthenticationFilter instead of the default one? Thanks for any advice and/or pointers!

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• Who likes #regions in Visual Studio?

  - by Nicholas

  Personally I can't stand region tags, but clearly they have wide spread appeal for organizing code, so I want to test the temperature of the water for other MS developer's take on this idea. My personal feeling is that any sort of silly trick to simplify code only acts to encourage terrible coding behavior, like lack of cohesion, unclear intention and poor or incomplete coding standards. One programmer told me that code regions helped encourage coding standards by making it clear where another programmer should put his or her contributions. But, to be blunt, this sounds like a load of horse manure to me. If you have a standard, it is the programmer's job to understand what that standard is... you should't need to define it in every single class file. And, nothing is more annoying than having all of your code collapsed when you open a file. I know that cntrl + M, L will open everything up, but then you have the hideous "hash region definition" open and closing lines to read. They're just irritating. My most stead fast coding philosophy is that all programmer should strive to create clear, concise and cohesive code. Region tags just serve to create noise and redundant intentions. Region tags would be moot in a well thought out and intentioned class. The only place they seem to make sense to me, is in automatically generated code, because you should never have to read that outside of personal curiosity.

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• MVC View Model Intellesense / Compile error

  - by Marty Trenouth

  I have one Library with my ORM and am working with a MVC Application. I have a problem where the pages won't compile because the Views can't see the Model's properties (which are inherited from lower level base classes). They system throws a compile error saying that 'object' does not contain a definition for 'ID' and no extension method 'ID' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) implying that the View is not seeing the model. In the Controller I have full access to the Model and have check the Inherits from portion of the view to validate the correct type is being passed. Controller: return View(new TeraViral_Blog()); View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<com.models.TeraViral_Blog>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Index2 </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Index2</h2> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> ID: <%= Html.Encode(Model.ID) %> </p> </fieldset> </asp:Content>

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• Cannot call DLL import entry in C# from C++ project. EntryPointNotFoundException

  - by kriau

  I'm trying to call from C# a function in a custom DLL written in C++. However I'm getting the warning during code analysis and the error at runtime: Warning: CA1400 : Microsoft.Interoperability : Correct the declaration of 'SafeNativeMethods.SetHook()' so that it correctly points to an existing entry point in 'wi.dll'. The unmanaged entry point name currently linked to is SetHook. Error: System.EntryPointNotFoundException was unhandled. Unable to find an entry point named 'SetHook' in DLL 'wi.dll'. Both projects wi.dll and C# exe has been compiled in to the same DEBUG folder, both files reside here. There is only one file with the name wi.dll in the whole file system. C++ function definition looks like: #define WI_API __declspec(dllexport) bool WI_API SetHook(); I can see exported function using Dependency Walker: as decorated: bool SetHook(void) as undecorated: ?SetHook@@YA_NXZ C# DLL import looks like (I've defined these lines using CLRInsideOut from MSDN magazine): [DllImport("wi.dll", EntryPoint = "SetHook", CallingConvention = CallingConvention.Cdecl)] [return: MarshalAsAttribute(UnmanagedType.I1)] internal static extern bool SetHook(); I've tried without EntryPoint and CallingConvention definitions as well. Both projects are 32-bits, I'm using W7 64 bits, VS 2010 RC. I believe that I simply have overlooked something.... Thanks in advance.

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• charsets in MySQL replication

  - by niklassaers

  Hi guys, What can I do to ensure that replication will use latin1 instead of utf-8? I'm migrating between an MySQL 5.1.22 server (master) on a Linux system and a MySQL 5.1.42 server (slave) on a FreeBSD system. My replication works well, but when non-ascii characters are in my varchars, they turn "weird". The Linux/MySQL-5.1.22 shows the following character set variables: character_set_client=latin1 character_set_connection=latin1 character_set_database=latin1 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=latin1 character_set_server=latin1 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=latin1_swedish_ci collation_database=latin1_swedish_ci collation_server=latin1_swedish_ci While the FreeBSD shows character_set_client=utf8 character_set_connection=utf8 character_set_database=utf8 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=utf8 character_set_server=utf8 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/local/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=utf8_general_ci collation_database=utf8_general_ci collation_server=utf8_general_ci Setting any of these variables from the MySQL CLI has no effect, and setting them in my.cnf or at the command line makes the server not start. Of course, both servers have the tables in question created the same way, in this case with DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1. Let me give you an example: CREATE TABLE `test` ( `test` varchar(5) DEFAULT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 When I on the master do, in a Latin1 terminal, "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')", this becomes on the slave, when I select it from a Latin1 based terminal +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ On a UTF-8 based terminal on the replication slave, test contains: +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ So my conclusion is that it is converted to utf8, even though the table definition is latin1. Is this a correct conclusion? Of course, on the master, in a latin1 terminal, it still says: +------+ | test | +------+ | æøå | +------+ Since both system character sets are utf-8, if I set both terminals to utf-8 and do again "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')" on the master with a utf-8 terminal, on the slave with utf-8 I get: +------------+ | test | +------------+ | æøà | +------------+ If my conclusion is correct, all my replicated data is converted to utf8 (if it is utf8, it is treated as latin1 and converted to utf8), while all the old data in the table is, as the CREATE TABLE suggests, latin1. I'd love to convert it all to utf-8 if it weren't for the fact that legacy applications rely on it being latin1, so I need to keep it in latin1 while they still exist. What can I do to ensure that the replication reads latin1, treats it as latin1 and writes it on the slave as latin1? Cheers Nik

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