Search Results

Search found 3679 results on 148 pages for 'definition'.

Page 117/148 | < Previous Page | 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124  | Next Page >

• charsets in MySQL replication

  - by niklassaers

  Hi guys, What can I do to ensure that replication will use latin1 instead of utf-8? I'm migrating between an MySQL 5.1.22 server (master) on a Linux system and a MySQL 5.1.42 server (slave) on a FreeBSD system. My replication works well, but when non-ascii characters are in my varchars, they turn "weird". The Linux/MySQL-5.1.22 shows the following character set variables: character_set_client=latin1 character_set_connection=latin1 character_set_database=latin1 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=latin1 character_set_server=latin1 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=latin1_swedish_ci collation_database=latin1_swedish_ci collation_server=latin1_swedish_ci While the FreeBSD shows character_set_client=utf8 character_set_connection=utf8 character_set_database=utf8 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=utf8 character_set_server=utf8 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/local/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=utf8_general_ci collation_database=utf8_general_ci collation_server=utf8_general_ci Setting any of these variables from the MySQL CLI has no effect, and setting them in my.cnf or at the command line makes the server not start. Of course, both servers have the tables in question created the same way, in this case with DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1. Let me give you an example: CREATE TABLE `test` ( `test` varchar(5) DEFAULT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 When I on the master do, in a Latin1 terminal, "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')", this becomes on the slave, when I select it from a Latin1 based terminal +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ On a UTF-8 based terminal on the replication slave, test contains: +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ So my conclusion is that it is converted to utf8, even though the table definition is latin1. Is this a correct conclusion? Of course, on the master, in a latin1 terminal, it still says: +------+ | test | +------+ | æøå | +------+ Since both system character sets are utf-8, if I set both terminals to utf-8 and do again "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')" on the master with a utf-8 terminal, on the slave with utf-8 I get: +------------+ | test | +------------+ | æøà | +------------+ If my conclusion is correct, all my replicated data is converted to utf8 (if it is utf8, it is treated as latin1 and converted to utf8), while all the old data in the table is, as the CREATE TABLE suggests, latin1. I'd love to convert it all to utf-8 if it weren't for the fact that legacy applications rely on it being latin1, so I need to keep it in latin1 while they still exist. What can I do to ensure that the replication reads latin1, treats it as latin1 and writes it on the slave as latin1? Cheers Nik

  Read the article

• Where do I put javaassist code?

  - by DutrowLLC

  I have an application running on google app engine. I'm using restlets and I have a couple of layers set up including the restlet layer, the model layer, the business layer, and the data layer. I'm attempting to use javaassist to modify some classes, but I'm unsure where to actually put the code. I tried to put the code in the static initialization block: public class Person { String firstName; String getFirstName(){return null;} static{ ClassPool pool = ClassPool.getDefault(); try { CtClass CtPerson = pool.get("Person"); CtMethod CtGetFirstName = CtPerson.getDeclaredMethod("GetFirstName"); CtGetFirstName.setBody("return firstName;"); CtPerson.toClass(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } ...but that resulted in this error: javassist.CannotCompileException:.....attempted duplicate class definition...". I guess it makes sense that I can't edit the class file in the middle of its generation. I know the code works because I was able to run it correctly by simply putting it in a location that would run when I sent the program a command. (accessed a Restlet resource). The code ran fine if an instance of the class had not already been instantiated, however once I instantiated an instance of the affected class, the javaassist code failed. I assume I need to put this code somewhere that it will only run either: once after the program starts, directly before a class is instantiated for the first time, or even better, during compile time.

  Read the article

• How do I declare "Member Fields" in Java?

  - by Bub

  This question probably reveals my total lack of knowledge in Java. But let me first show you what I thought was the correct way to declare a "member field": public class NoteEdit extends Activity { private Object mTitleText; private Object mBodyText; I'm following a google's notepad tutorial for android (here) and they simply said: "Note that mTitleText and mBodyText are member fields (you need to declare them at the top of the class definition)." I thought I got it and then realized that this little snippet of code wasn't working. if (title != null) { mTitleText.setText(title); } if (body != null) { mBodyText.setText(body); } So either I didn't set the "member fields" correctly which I thought all that was needed was to declare them private Objects at the top of the NoteEdit class or I'm missing something else. Thanks in advance for any help.UPDATE I was asked to show where these fields were being intialized here is another code snippet hope that it's helpful... @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.note_edit); Long mRowId; mTitleText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.title); mBodyText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.body);

  Read the article

• get value from css using document.getElementById().style.height javascript

  - by Jamex

  Hi, Please offer insight into this mystery. I am trying to get the height value from a div box by var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); I can get this value just fine if the attribute is contained within the div tag, but it returns a blank value if the attribute is defined in the css section. This is fine, it shows 100px as a value. The value can be accessed. <div id="hintdiv" style="height:100px; display: none;"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); This is not fine, it shows an empty alert screen. The value is practically 0. #hintdiv { height:100px display: none; } <div id="hintdiv"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); But I have no problem accessing/changing the "display:none" attribute whether it is in the tag or in the css section. The div box displays correctly by both attribute definition methods (inside the tag or in the css section). I also tried to access the value by other variations, but no luck document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height.value ----> undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height ---->undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height.value ----> error, no execution Any solution? TIA.

  Read the article

• Is this a hole in dynamic binding in C# 4?

  - by Galilyou

  I've seen a very interesting post on Fabio Maulo's blog. Here's the code and the bug if you don't want to jump to the url. I defined a new generic class like so: public class TableStorageInitializer<TTableEntity> where TTableEntity : class, new() { public void Initialize() { InitializeInstance(new TTableEntity()); } public void InitializeInstance(dynamic entity) { entity.PartitionKey = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); entity.RowKey = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); } } Note that InitializeInstance accepts one parameter, which is of type dynamic. Now to test this class, I defined another class that is nested inside my main Program class like so: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { TableStorageInitializer<MyClass> x = new TableStorageInitializer<MyClass>(); x.Initialize(); } private class MyClass { public string PartitionKey { get; set; } public string RowKey { get; set; } public DateTime Timestamp { get; set; } } } Note: the inner class "MyClass" is declared private. Now if i run this code I get a "Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinder.RuntimeBinderException" on the line "entity.PartitionKey = Guide.NewGuid().ToString()". The interesting part, though is that the message of the exception says "Object doesn't contain a definition for PartitionKey". Also note that if you changed the modifier of the nested class to public, the code will execute with no problems. So what do you guys think is really happening under the hood? Please refer to any documentation -of course if this is documented anywhere- that you may find?

  Read the article

• Accept templated parameter of stl_container_type<string>::iterator

  - by Rodion Ingles

  I have a function where I have a container which holds strings (eg vector<string>, set<string>, list<string>) and, given a start iterator and an end iterator, go through the iterator range processing the strings. Currently the function is declared like this: template< typename ContainerIter> void ProcessStrings(ContainerIter begin, ContainerIter end); Now this will accept any type which conforms to the implicit interface of implementing operator*, prefix operator++ and whatever other calls are in the function body. What I really want to do is have a definition like the one below which explicitly restricts the amount of input (pseudocode warning): template< typename Container<string>::iterator> void ProcessStrings(Container<string>::iterator begin, Container<string>::iterator end); so that I can use it as such: vector<string> str_vec; list<string> str_list; set<SomeOtherClass> so_set; ProcessStrings(str_vec.begin(), str_vec.end()); // OK ProcessStrings(str_list.begin(), str_list.end()); //OK ProcessStrings(so_set.begin(), so_set.end()); // Error Essentially, what I am trying to do is restrict the function specification to make it obvious to a user of the function what it accepts and if the code fails to compile they get a message that they are using the wrong parameter types rather than something in the function body that XXX function could not be found for XXX class.

  Read the article

• deleting object with template for int and object

  - by Yokhen

  Alright so Say I have a class with all its definition, bla bla bla... template <class DT> class Foo{ private: DT* _data; //other stuff; public: Foo(DT* data){ _data = data } virtual ~Foo(){ delete _data } //other methods }; And then I have in the main method: int main(){ int number = 12; Foo<anyRandomClass>* noPrimitiveDataObject = new Foo<anyRandomClass>(new anyRandomClass()); Foo<int>* intObject = new Foo<int>(number); delete noPrimitiveDataObject; //Everything goes just fine. delete intObject; //It messes up here, I think because primitive data types such as int are allocated in a different way. return 0; } My question is: What could I do to have both delete statements in the main method work just fine? P.S.: Although I have not actually compiled/tested this specific code, I have reviewed it extensively (as well as indented. You're welcome.), so if you find a mistake, please be nice. Thank you.

  Read the article

• Bind a ViewModel to a DropDownListFor with a third value besides dataValueField/dataTextField

  - by Elisa

  When I show a list of testplanViewModels in my View and the user selects one the SelectedTestplanId is returned to the Controller post action. What should also be returned is the TemplateId which belongs to the SelectedTestplanId. When the AutoMapper definition is run the Testplan.TestplanId is implicitly copied over to the TestplanViewModel.TestplanId. The same could be done by providing a TemplateId on the TestplanViewModel. When the user selects now a "TestplanViewModel" in the View, how can I attach the TemplateId to the controller action to access it there? The DropDownList does not allow 2 dataValueFields! CreateMap<Testplan, TestplanViewModel>().ForMember(dest => dest.Name, opt => opt.MapFrom(src => string.Format("{0}-{1}-{2}-{3}", src.Release.Name, src.Template.Name, src.CreatedAt, src.CreatedBy))); public ActionResult OpenTestplanViewModels() { IEnumerable<Testplan> testplans = _testplanDataProvider.GetTestplans(); var viewModel = new OpenTestplanViewModel { DisplayList = Mapper.Map<IEnumerable<Testplan>, IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel>>(testplans) }; return PartialView(viewModel); } public class TestplanViewModel { public int TestplanId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class OpenTestplanViewModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "No item selected.")] public int SelectedTestplanId { get; set; } public IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel> DisplayList { get; set; } } OpenTestplanViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm("Open", "Testplan")) { @Html.ValidationSummary(false) @Html.DropDownListFor(x => x.SelectedTestplanId, new SelectList(Model.DisplayList, "TestplanId", "Name"), new { @class = "listviewmodel" }) }

  Read the article

• Ruby TypeErrors involving `expected Data`

  - by Kenny Peng

  I've ran into situations where I have gotten these expected Data errors before, but they have always pointed to ActiveRecord not playing well with other libraries in the past. This piece of code: def load(kv_block, debug=false) # Converts a string block to a Hash using split kv_map = StringUtils.kv_array_to_hash(kv_block) # Loop through each key, value kv_map.each do |mem,val| # Format the member from camel case to underscore member = mem.camel_to_underscore() # If the object includes a method to set the key (i.e. the key # is a member of self), invoke the method, setting the value of # the member) if self.methods.include?(member.to_set_method_name()) then # Exception thrown here self.send(member.to_set_method_name(), val) # Else, check for the same case, this time for an instance variable elsif self.instance_variable_defined?(member.to_instance_var_name()) self.instance_variable_set(member.to_instance_var_name(), val) # Else, complain that the object doesn't understand the key with # respect to its class definition. else raise ArgumentError, "I don't know what to do with #{member}. #{self.class} does not have a member or function called #{member}" end end end produces the error wrong argument type #<Class:0x11a02088> (expected Data) (TypeError) in the each loop on the first if test. I've inspected a post-mortem debugging instance using rdebug, and running that line manually, it works without a hitch. Has anyone seen this error before and what's been your solution to it? I used to think it was ActiveRecord and other gems stomping on each other's definitions, but I removed any references to ActiveRecord and this still occurs.

  Read the article

• Java Generics Class Parameter Type Inference

  - by Pindatjuh

  Given the interface: public interface BasedOnOther<T, U extends BasedList<T>> { public T getOther(); public void staticStatisfied(final U list); } The BasedOnOther<T, U extends BasedList<T>> looks very ugly in my use-cases. It is because the T type parameter is already defined in the BasedList<T> part, so the "uglyness" comes from that T needs to be typed twice. Problem: is it possible to let the Java compiler infer the generic T type from BasedList<T> in a generic class/interface definition? Ultimately, I'd like to use the interface like: class X implements BasedOnOther<BasedList<SomeType>> { public SomeType getOther() { ... } public void staticStatisfied(final BasedList<SomeType> list) { ... } } // Does not compile, due to invalid parameter count. Instead: class X implements BasedOnOther<SomeType, BasedList<SomeType>> { public SomeType getOther() { ... } public void staticStatisfied(final BasedList<SomeType> list) { ... } }

  Read the article

• Rails: creating a custom data type, to use with generator classes and a bunch of questions related t

  - by Shyam

  Hi, After being productive with Rails for some weeks, I learned some tricks and got some experience with the framework. About 10 days ago, I figured out it is possible to build a custom data type for migrations by adding some code in the Table definition. Also, after learning a bit about floating points (and how evil they are) vs integers, the money gem and other possible solutions, I decided I didn't WANT to use the money gem, but instead try to learn more about programming and finding a solution myself. Some suggestions said that I should be using integers, one for the whole numbers and one for the cents. When playing in script/console, I discovered how easy it is to work with calculations and arrays. But, I am talking to much (and the reason I am, is to give some sufficient background). Right now, while playing with the scaffold generator (yes, I use it, because I like they way I can quickly set up a prototype while I am still researching my objectives), I like to use a DRY method. In my opinion, I should build a custom "object", that can hold two variables (Fixnum), one for the whole, one for the cents. In my big dream, I would be able to do the following: script/generate scaffold Cake name:string description:text cost:mycustom Where mycustom should create two integer columns (one for wholes, one for cents). Right now I could do this by doing: script/generate scaffold Cake name:string description:text cost_w:integer cost_c:integer I had also had an idea that would be creating a "cost model", which would hold two columns of integers and create a cost_id column to my scaffold. But wouldn't that be an extra table that would cause some kind of performance penalty? And wouldn't that be defy the purpose of the Cake model in the first place, because the costs are an attribute of individual Cake entries? The reason why I would want to have such a functionality because I am thinking of having multiple "costs" inside my rails application. Thank you for your feedback, comments and answers! I hope my message got through as understandable, my apologies for incorrect grammar or weird sentences as English is not my native language.

  Read the article

• Enum "copy" problem

  - by f0b0s

  Hi all! I have a class, let's call it A. It has a enum (E) and a method Foo(E e), with gets E in the arguments. I want to write a wrapper (decorator) W for A. So it'll have its own method Foo(A::E). But I want to have some kind of encapsulation, so this method should defined as Foo(F f), where F is another enum defined in W, that can be converted to A::E. For example: class A { public: enum E { ONE, TWO, THREE }; void Foo(E e); }; class B { //enum F; // ??? void Foo(F f) { a_.Foo(f); } private: A a_; }; How F should be defined? I don't want to copy value like this: enum F { ONE = A::ONE, TWO = A::TWO, THREE = A::THREE }; because its a potential error in the near feature. Is the typedef definition: typedef A::E F; is the best decision? Is it legal?

  Read the article

• file upload in JSF using myfaces component

  - by prt

  Hi, all i am creating a JSF application where file uploading functionality is required.I have added all the required jar files in my /WEB-INF/lib folder. jsf-api.jar jsf-impl.jar jstl.jar standard.jar myfaces-extensions.jar commons-collections.jar commons-digester.jar commons-beanutils.jar commons-logging.jar commons-fileupload-1.0.jar but still when trying to deploy the application on apache 6.0.29 i am getting the following error. org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext addApplicationListener INFO: The listener "com.sun.faces.config.ConfigureListener" is already configured for this context. The duplicate definition has been ignored. org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext start SEVERE: Error listenerStart PM org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext start SEVERE: Context [/jsfApplication] startup failed due to previous errors org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader clearReferencesJdbc The web application [/jsfApplication] registered the JBDC driver [com.mysql.jdbc.Driver] but failed to unregister it when the web application was stopped. To prevent a memory leak, the JDBC Driver has been forcibly unregistered. org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader clearReferencesThreads SEVERE: The web application [/jsfApplication] appears to have started a thread named [Timer-0] but has failed to stop it. This is very likely to create a memory leak. org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader clearReferencesThreads SEVERE: The web application [/jsfApplication] appears to have started a thread named [MySQL Statement Cancellation Timer] but has failed to stop it. This is very likely to create a memory leak. log4j:ERROR LogMananger.repositorySelector was null likely due to error in class reloading, using NOPLoggerRepository. i am using also using hibernate and spring framework for this application. please help. thanks,

  Read the article

• How to develop Online Shopping Portal Application using PHP ?

  - by Sarang

  I do not know PHP & I have to develop a Shopping Portal with following Definition : Scenario: Online Shopping Portal XYZ.com wants to create an online shopping portal for managing its registered customers and their shopping. The customers need to register themselves first before they do shopping using the shopping portal. However, everyone, whether registered or not, can view the various products along with the prices listed in the portal. The registered customers, after logging in, are allowed to place order for one or more products from the products listed in the portal. Once the order is placed, the customer gets a reference order number and the order status should be “order in process”. The customers can track their order using the given reference number. The management of XYZ.com should be able to modify the order status of a particular reference order number to “shipped” once the products are shipped to the shipping address entered by the customer at the time of placing the order. The Functionalities required are : Create the interface for the XYZ.com shopping portal using HTML/XHTML and CSS. Implement the client side validations using JavaScript. Create the tables using MySQL. Implement the functionality using the server side scripting language, PHP. Integrate all the above tasks and make the XYZ.com shopping portal functional. How do I develop this application with following proper steps of development ?

  Read the article

• Duplicate Symbol Linker Error (C++ help)

  - by Vash265

  Hi. I'm learning some CSP (constraint satisfaction) theory stuff right now, and am using this library to parse XML files. I'm using Xcode as an IDE. My program compiles fine, but when it goes to link the files, I get a duplicate symbol error with the XMLParser_libxml2.hh file. My files are separated as such: A class header file that includes the XMLParser file above A class implementation file that include the class header file A main file that includes the class header file The duplicate symbol is occurring in main.o and classfile.o, but as far as I can tell, I'm not actually adding that .hh file twice. Full error: ld: duplicate symbol bool CSPXMLParser::UTF8String::to<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > >(std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >&) constin /Users/vash265/CSP/Untitled/build/Untitled.build/Debug/Untitled.build/Objects-normal/x86_64/dStructFill.o and /Users/vash265/CSP/Untitled/build/Untitled.build/Debug/Untitled.build/Objects-normal/x86_64/main.o Copying the implementation of the class into the main file and taking the class implementation file out of the compilation target alleviates the error, but it's a disorganized mess this way, and I'll be adding more classes very soon (and it would be nice to have them in separate files). As I've come to understand it, this is caused by the file (XMLParser_libxml2.hh) having both the class and function definition and implementation in one file (and it seems as though this might have been necessary due to the use of templates in that 'header' file). Any ideas on how to get around sticking all my class files in my main.cpp? (I've tried ifdefs, they don't work).

  Read the article

• Magento config XML for adding a controller action to a core admin controller

  - by N. B.

  I'm trying to add a custom action to a core controller by extending it in a local module. Below I have the class definition which resides in magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/controllers/Catalog/ProductController.php class MyCompany_MyModule_Catalog_ProductController extends Mage_Adminhtml_Catalog_ProductController { public function massAttributeSetAction(){ ... } } Here is my config file at magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/etc/config.xml: ... <global> <rewrite> <mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> <from><![CDATA[#^/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/#]]></from> <to>/mymodule/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/</to> </mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> </rewrite> <admin> <routers> <MyCompany_MyModule> <use>admin</use> <args> <module>MyCompany_MyModule</module> <frontName>MyModule</frontName> </args> </MyCompany_MyModule> </routers> </admin> </global> ... However, https://example.com/index.php/admin/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/ simply yields a admin 404 page. I know that the module is active - other code is executing fine. I feel it's simply a problem with my xml syntax. Am I going about this the write way? I'm hesitant because I'm not actually rewriting a controller method... I'm adding one entirely. However it does make sense in that, the original admin url won't respond to that action name and it will need to be redirected. I'm using Magento 1.3.2.2 Thanks for any guidance.

  Read the article

• Visitor Pattern can be replaced with Callback functions?

  - by getit

  Is there any significant benefit to using either technique? In case there are variations, the Visitor Pattern I mean is this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Visitor_pattern And below is an example of using a delegate to achieve the same effect (at least I think it is the same) Say there is a collection of nested elements: Schools contain Departments which contain Students Instead of using the Visitor pattern to perform something on each collection item, why not use a simple callback (Action delegate in C#) Say something like this class Department { List Students; } class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student> actionDelegate) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu); } } } } School A = new School(); ...//populate collections A.Visit((student)=> { ...Do Something with student... }); *EDIT Example with delegate accepting multiple params Say I wanted to pass both the student and department, I could modify the Action definition like so: Action class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student, Department> actionDelegate, Action<Department> d2) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { d2(dep); //This performs a different process. //Using Visitor pattern would avoid having to keep adding new delegates. //This looks like the main benefit so far foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu, dep); } } } }

  Read the article

• Ruby: how does constant-lookup work in instance_eval/class_eval?

  - by Alan O'Donnell

  I'm working my way through Pickaxe 1.9, and I'm a bit confused by constant-lookup in instance/class_eval blocks. I'm using 1.9.2. It seems that Ruby handles constant-lookup in *_eval blocks the same way it does method-lookup: look for a definition in receiver.singleton_class (plus mixins); then in receiver.singleton_class.superclass (plus mixins); then continue up the eigenchain until you get to #<Class:BasicObject>; whose superclass is Class; and then up the rest of the ancestor chain (including Object, which stores all the constants you define at the top-level), checking for mixins along the way Is this correct? The Pickaxe discussion is a bit terse. Some examples: class Foo CONST = 'Foo::CONST' class << self CONST = 'EigenFoo::CONST' end end Foo.instance_eval { CONST } # => 'EigenFoo::CONST' Foo.class_eval { CONST } # => 'EigenFoo::CONST', not 'Foo::CONST'! Foo.new.instance_eval { CONST } # => 'Foo::CONST' In the class_eval example, Foo-the-class isn't a stop along Foo-the-object's ancestor chain! And an example with mixins: module M CONST = "M::CONST" end module N CONST = "N::CONST" end class A include M extend N end A.instance_eval { CONST } # => "N::CONST", because N is mixed into A's eigenclass A.class_eval { CONST } # => "N::CONST", ditto A.new.instance_eval { CONST } # => "M::CONST", because A.new.class, A, mixes in M

  Read the article

• CSS style refresh in IE after dynamic removal of style link

  - by rybz

  Hi! I've got a problem with the dynamic style manipulation in IE7 (IE8 is fine). Using javascript I need to add and remove the < link / node with the definition of css file. Adding and removing the node as a child of < head / works fine under Firefox. Unfortunately, after removing it in the IE, although The tag is removed properly, the page style does not refresh. In the example below a simple css (makes background green) is appended and removed. After the removal in FF the background turns default, but in IE stays green. index.html <html> <head> </head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var node; function append(){ var headID = document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0]; node = document.createElement('link'); node.type = 'text/css'; node.rel = 'stylesheet'; node.href = "s.css"; node.media = 'screen'; headID.appendChild(node); } function remove(){ var headID = document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0]; headID.removeChild(node); } </script> <body> <div onClick="append();"> add </div> <div onClick="remove();"> remove </div> </body> </html> And the style sheet: s.css body { background-color:#00CC33 } Here is the live example: http://rlab.pl/dynamic-style/ Is there a way to get it working?

  Read the article

• alternative to #include within namespace { } block

  - by Jeff

  Edit: I know that method 1 is essentially invalid and will probably use method 2, but I'm looking for the best hack or a better solution to mitigate rampant, mutable namespace proliferation. I have multiple class or method definitions in one namespace that have different dependencies, and would like to use the fewest namespace blocks or explicit scopings possible but while grouping #include directives with the definitions that require them as best as possible. I've never seen any indication that any preprocessor could be told to exclude namespace {} scoping from #include contents, but I'm here to ask if something similar to this is possible: (see bottom for explanation of why I want something dead simple) // NOTE: apple.h, etc., contents are *NOT* intended to be in namespace Foo! // would prefer something most this: namespace Foo { #include "apple.h" B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } #include "banana.h" int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } #include "blueberry.h" void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // over this: #include "apple.h" #include "banana.h" #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // or over this: #include "apple.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "banana.h" namespace Foo { int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo My real problem is that I have projects where a module may need to be branched but have coexisting components from the branches in the same program. I have classes like FooA, etc., that I've called Foo::A in the hopes being able to branch less painfully as Foo::v1_2::A, where some program may need both a Foo::A and a Foo::v1_2::A. I'd like "Foo" or "Foo::v1_2" to show up only really once per file, as a single namespace block, if possible. Moreover, I tend to prefer to locate blocks of #include directives immediately above the first definition in the file that requires them. What's my best choice, or alternatively, what should I be doing instead of hijacking the namespaces?

  Read the article

• What is the minimal licensable source code?

  - by Hernán Eche

  Let's suppose I want to "protect" this code about being used without attribution, patenting it, or through any open source licence... #include<stdio.h> int main (void) { int version=2; printf("\r\n.Hello world, ver:(%d).", version); return 0; } It's a little obvious or just a language definition example.. When a source stop being "trivial, banal, commonplace, obvious", and start to be something that you may claim "rights"? Perhaps it depends on who read it, something that could be great geniality for someone that have never programmed, could be just obvious for an expert. It's easy when watching two sources there are 10000 same lines of code, that's a theft.. but that's not always so obvious. How to measure amount of "ownness", it's about creativity? line numbers? complexity? I can't imagine objetive answers for that, only some patches. For example perhaps the complexity, It's not fair to replace "years of engeneering" with "copy and paste". But is there any objetive index for objetive determination of this subject? (In a funny way I imagine this criterion: If the licence is longer than the code, then there is no owner, just to punish not caring storage space and world resources =P)

  Read the article

• Semantically correct XHTML markup

  - by Dori

  Hello all. Just trying to get the hang of using the semantically correct XHTML markup. Just writing the code for a small navigation item. Where each button has effectivly a title and a descrption. I thought a definition list would therefore be great so i wrote the following <dl> <dt>Import images</dt> <dd>Read in new image names to database</dd> <dt>Exhibition Management</dt> <dd>Create / Delete an exhibition </dd> <dt>Image Management</dt> <dd>Edit name, medium and exhibition data </dd> </dl> But...I want the above to be 3 buttons, each button containing the dt and dd text. How can i do this with the correct code? Normally i would make each button a div and use that for the visual button behaviour (onHover and current page selection stuff). Any advice please Thanks

  Read the article

• Generic ASP.NET MVC Route Conflict

  - by Donn Felker

  I'm working on a Legacy ASP.NET system. I say legacy because there are NO tests around 90% of the system. I'm trying to fix the routes in this project and I'm running into a issue I wish to solve with generic routes. I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithPdn", "{controller}/{action}/{pdn}", new { controller = "", action = "Index", pdn = "" }, null ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithClientId", "{controller}/{action}/{clientId}", new { controller = "", action = "index", clientid = "" }, null ); The problem is that the first route is catching all of the traffic for what I need to be routed to the second route. The route is generic (no controller is defined in the constraint in either route definition) because multiple controllers throughout the entire app share this same premise (sometimes we need a "pdn" sometimes we need a "clientId"). How can I map these generic routes so that they go to the proper controller and action, yet not have one be too greedy? Or can I at all? Are these routes too generic (which is what I'm starting to believe is the case). My only option at this point (AFAIK) is one of the following: In the contraints, apply a regex to match the action values like: (foo|bar|biz|bang) and the same for the controller: (home|customer|products) for each controller. However, this has a problem in the fact that I may need to do this: ~/Foo/Home/123 // Should map to "DefaultwithPdn" ~/Foo/Home/abc // Should map to "DefaultWithClientId" Which means that if the Foo Controller has an action that takes a pdn and another action that takes a clientId (which happens all the time in this app), the wrong route is chosen. To hardcode these contstraints into each possible controller/action combo seems like a lot of duplication to me and I have the feeling I've been looking at the problem for too long so I need another pair of eyes to help out. Can I have generic routes to handle this scenario? Or do I need to have custom routes for each controller with constraints applied to the actions on those routes? Thanks

  Read the article

• Synth LaF JLabel DISABLED color

  - by mmoris

  Hi all, Using the Synth LaF, I am unable to set a JLabel's FOREGROUND color for the DISABLED state. has anybody succeeded in doing this? Here is my label's style definition in my LaF.xml file. <style id="whiteLabelStyle"> <opaque value="false"/> <font name="Bitstream Vera Sans" size="16" /> <state> <color type="FOREGROUND" value="WHITE"/> </state> <state value="DISABLED"> <color type="FOREGROUND" value="BLACK"/> </state> </style> <bind style="whiteLabelStyle" type="name" key="WhiteOrbitLabel"/> Please not that all the other styles defined in my LaF.xml file are rendered properly in my application including my label's WHITE normal state color (it just never goes to black when I do lbl.setEnabled(false) Also, going through the Synth code, I have found the following comment in SynthStyle.getColor if ((context.getComponentState() & SynthConstants.DISABLED) != 0) { //This component is disabled, so return the disabled color. //In some cases this means ignoring the color specified by the //developer on the component. In other cases it means using a //specified disabledTextColor, such as on JTextComponents. //For example, JLabel doesn't specify a disabled color that the //developer can set, yet it should have a disabled color to the //text when the label is disabled. This code allows for that. if (c instanceof JTextComponent) { JTextComponent txt = (JTextComponent)c; Color disabledColor = txt.getDisabledTextColor(); if (disabledColor == null || disabledColor instanceof UIResource) { return getColorForState(context, type); } } else if (c instanceof JLabel && (type == ColorType.FOREGROUND || type == ColorType.TEXT_FOREGROUND)){ return getColorForState(context, type); } But I could not figure out how to set a disabled color for a JLabel Thanks for your help!

  Read the article

• What exactly is a reentrant function?

  - by eSKay

  Most of the times, the definition of reentrance is quoted from Wikipedia: A computer program or routine is described as reentrant if it can be safely called again before its previous invocation has been completed (i.e it can be safely executed concurrently). To be reentrant, a computer program or routine: Must hold no static (or global) non-constant data. Must not return the address to static (or global) non-constant data. Must work only on the data provided to it by the caller. Must not rely on locks to singleton resources. Must not modify its own code (unless executing in its own unique thread storage) Must not call non-reentrant computer programs or routines. How is safely defined? If a program can be safely executed concurrently, does it always mean that it is reentrant? What exactly is the common thread between the six points mentioned that I should keep in mind while checking my code for reentrant capabilities? Also, Are all recursive functions reentrant? Are all thread-safe functions reentrant? Are all recursive and thread-safe functions reentrant? While writing this question, one thing comes to mind: Are the terms like reentrance and thread safety absolute at all i.e. do they have fixed concrete definations? For, if they are not, this question is not very meaningful. Thanks!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124  | Next Page >