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• facebook graph api does not return all feed items on facebook page

  - by Nick Franceschina

  at the time of this question, if you go here: http://www.facebook.com/realplayer you'll see six posts down, I have posted a photo with a message of "#highfive Cincinnati, OH" but if you to either of these: http://graph.facebook.com/realplayer/feed http://graph.facebook.com/realplayer/tagged the JSON that is returned seemingly includes everything on the wall, except for MY post. there is another photo post from someone else down below mine, and it is showing up (and both my photo and his photo are in the "Fan photos" section) obviously, since I can see everything with these links already, it appears that access_token is not a part of the equation... BUT, some more info: if I use an access_token from a session that isn't me, I can't see the post in the JSON if I use an access_token from MY logged in session, then I DO see the post in the JSON so I'm very confused. if everyone in the world can see those posts on the wall without even authenticating, then I expect all of them to come back in the graph api as well. anyone have thoughts on this? I am aware of the "manage_page" permission... which I can use to get a list of accounts and special offline access tokens for those pages... and that's something I can explore... but it seems like alot of work when my post seemingly SHOULD be there in the graph

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• Java EE 6: JSF vs Servlet + JSP. Should I bother learning JSF?

  - by Harry Pham

  I am trying to get familiar with Java EE 6 by reading http://java.sun.com/javaee/6/docs/tutorial/doc/gexaf.html. I am a bit confused about the use of JSF. Usually, the way I develop my Web App would be, Servlet would act like a controller and JSP would act like a View in an MVC model. So Does JSF try to replace this structure? Below are the quote from the above tutorial: Servlet are best suited for service-oriented App and control function of presentation-oriented App like dispatching request JSF and Facelet are more appropriated for generating mark-up like XHTML, and generally used for presentation-oriented App Not sure if I understand the above quote too well, they did not explain too well what is service-oriented vs presentation-oriented. A JavaServer Faces application can map HTTP requests to component-specific event handling and manage components as stateful objects on the server. Any knowledgeable Java developer out there can give me a quick overview about JSF, JSP and Servlet? Do I integrate them all, or do I use them separated base on the App? if so then what kind of app use JSF in contrast with Servlet and JSP A JavaServer Faces application can map HTTP requests to component-specific event handling and manage components as stateful objects on the server. Sound like what servlet can do, but not sure about manage components as stateful objects on the server. Not even sure what that mean? Thanks in advance.

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• GPL/LGPL-licensed images + iPhone development

  - by cubic1271

  Since the majority of legal links / READMEs I've found when browsing icon sets refer me to the general GPL / LGPL (as opposed to a specialized version of some kind) when I'm looking at license restrictions, I'm having a terrible time trying to figure out what would constitute source code, linking, etc. when it comes to images and / or icons. One specific example: under section 5 of the GPL, modifications must carry notices in the source code. . . how do I do that with an image? I guess I could try to find a few unused bits and encode my modifications in there (steganography, anyone?), but somehow that doesn't seem like what the license is shooting for. There are also other sections in there where I have no idea how to begin to comply with. Thus, I'm really confused. What exactly are the implications of using GPL and / or LGPL licensed images in something that isn't itself GPL'd? Specifically, I'd like to know what using GPL icons in an iPhone application might mean from a legal point of view. It feels like I'm missing something obvious here; any enlightenment / references would be appreciated!

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• How to make ActiveRecord work with legacy partitioned/sharded databases/tables?

  - by Utensil

  thanks for your time first...after all the searching on google, github and here, and got more confused about the big words(partition/shard/fedorate),I figure that I have to describe the specific problem I met and ask around. My company's databases deals with massive users and orders, so we split databases and tables in various ways, some are described below: way database and table name shard by (maybe it's should be called partitioned by?) YZ.X db_YZ.tb_X order serial number last three digits YYYYMMDD. db_YYYYMMDD.tb date YYYYMM.DD db_YYYYMM.tb_ DD date too The basic concept is that databases and tables are seperated acording to a field(not nessissarily the primary key), and there are too many databases and too many tables, so that writing or magically generate one database.yml config for each database and one model for each table isn't possible or at least not the best solution. I looked into drnic's magic solutions, and datafabric, and even the source code of active record, maybe I could use ERB to generate database.yml and do database connection in around filter, and maybe I could use named_scope to dynamically decide the table name for find, but update/create opertions are bounded to "self.class.quoted_table_name" so that I couldn't easily get my problem solved. And even I could generate one model for each table, because its amount is up to 30 most. But this is just not DRY! What I need is a clean solution like the following DSL: class Order < ActiveRecord::Base shard_by :order_serialno do |key| [get_db_config_by(key), #because some or all of the databaes might share the same machine in a regular way or can be configed by a hash of regex, and it can also be a const get_db_name_by(key), get_tb_name_by(key), ] end end Can anybody enlight me? Any help would be greatly appreciated~~~~

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• How do I bind to a custom view in Cocoa using Xcode 4?

  - by Newt

  I'm a beginner when it comes to writing Mac apps and working with Cocoa, so please forgive my ignorance. I'm looking to create a custom view, that exposes some properties, which I can then bind to an NSObjectController. Since it's a custom view, the Bindings Inspector obviously doesn't list any of the properties I've added to the view that I can then bind to using Interface Builder. After turning to the Stackoverflow/Google for help, I've stumbled across a couple of possible solutions, but neither seem to be quite right for my situation. The first suggested creating an IBPlugin, which would then mean my bindings would be available in the Bindings Inspector. I could then bind the view to the controller using IB. Apparently IBPlugins aren't supported in Xcode 4, so that one's out the window. I'm also assuming (maybe wrongly) that IBPlugins are no longer supported because there's a better way of doing such things these days? The second option was to bind the controller to the view programmatically. I'm a bit confused as to exactly how I would achieve this. Would it require subclassing NSObjectController so I can add the calls to bind to the view? Would I need to add anything to the view to support this? Some examples I've seen say you'd need to override the bind method, and others say you don't. Also, I've noticed that some example custom views call [self exposeBinding:@"bindingName"] in the initializer. From what I gather from various sources, this is something that's related to IBPlugins and isn't something I need to do if I'm not using them. Is that correct? I've found a post on Stackoverflow here which seems to discuss something very similar to my problem, but there wasn't any clear winner as to the best answer. The last comment by noa on 12th Sept seems interesting, although they mention you should be calling exposeBinding:. Is this comment along the right track? Is the call to exposeBinding really necessary? Apologies for any dumb questions. Any help greatly appreciated.

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• CreateThread() fails on 64 bit Windows, works on 32 bit Windows. Why?

  - by Stephen Kellett

  Operating System: Windows XP 64 bit, SP2. I have an unusual problem. I am porting some code from 32 bit to 64 bit. The 32 bit code works just fine. But when I call CreateThread() for the 64 bit version the call fails. I have three places where this fails. 2 call CreateThread(). 1 calls beginthreadex() which calls CreateThread(). All three calls fail with error code 0x3E6, "Invalid access to memory location". The problem is all the input parameters are correct. HANDLE h; DWORD threadID; h = CreateThread(0, // default security 0, // default stack size myThreadFunc, // valid function to call myParam, // my param 0, // no flags, start thread immediately &threadID); All three calls to CreateThread() are made from a DLL I've injected into the target program at the start of the program execution (this is before the program has got to the start of main()/WinMain()). If I call CreateThread() from the target program (same params) via say a menu, it works. Same parameters etc. Bizarre. If I pass NULL instead of &threadID, it still fails. If I pass NULL as myParam, it still fails. I'm not calling CreateThread from inside DllMain(), so that isn't the problem. I'm confused and searching on Google etc hasn't shown any relevant answers. If anyone has seen this before or has any ideas, please let me know. Thanks for reading.

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• Apache redirection problem!!!!

  - by vikas

  Hi guys, I am setting up a pre-built website built in php. The site was actually hosted on the linux server. Now I am trying to set it up on a Window machine with WAMP server. In this website almost every page request passes through a particular file called redirect(which is basically a php file without extension). Now the problem is that when I inspected the configuration(httpd.conf, apache.conf,.htaccess, vhost.conf etc) of the apache server on the linux machine, I nowhere found the redirect rules for doing so. Neither mod_rewrite nor mod_alias rules for this redirection were found there. But is still redirects the request properly. I also noticed that Zend Framework library is there in the exact same directory where the redirect file is. This library is included in the include_path in php.ini. However, the web site is still not developed using Zend MVC and I have seen NO proof of ZEND being used there. So I am really confused how this redirection is working there? I am unable to set up this on window machine without rewrite rules of mod_rewrite or mod_alias. Do you guys know any alternative of both the said modules for redirection? I know the site is really weird, but i have to set it up. :) Thanks in advance for your help.

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• MySQL developer here -- Nesting with select * finicky in Oracle 10g?

  - by John Sullivan

  I'm writing a simple diagnostic query then attempting to execute it in the Oracle 10g SQL Scratchpad. EDIT: It will not be used in code. I'm nesting a simple "Select *" and it's giving me errors. In the SQL Scratchpad for Oracle 10g Enterprise Manager Console, this statement runs fine. SELECT * FROM v$session sess, v$sql sql WHERE sql.sql_id(+) = sess.sql_id and sql.sql_text <> ' ' If I try to wrap that up in Select * from () tb2 I get an error, "ORA-00918: Column Ambiguously Defined". I didn't think that could ever happen with this kind of statement so I am a bit confused. select * from (SELECT * FROM v$session sess, v$sql sql WHERE sql.sql_id(+) = sess.sql_id and sql.sql_text <> ' ') tb2 You should always be able to select * from the result set of another select * statement using this structure as far as I'm aware... right? Is Oracle/10g/the scratchpad trying to force me to accept a certain syntactic structure to prevent excessive nesting? Is this a bug in scratchpad or something about how oracle works?

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• Understanding REST: is GET fundamentally incompatible with any "number of views" counter?

  - by cocotwo

  I'm trying to understand REST. Under REST a GET must not trigger something transactional on the server (this is a definition everybody agrees upon, it is fundamental to REST). So imagine you've got a website like stackoverflow.com (I say like so if I got the underlying details of SO wrong it doesn't change anything to my question), where everytime someone reads a question, using a GET, there's also some display showing "This question has been read 256 times". Now someone else reads that question. The counter now is at 257. The GET is transactional because the number of views got incremented and is now incremented again. The "number of views" is incremented in the DB, there's no arguing about that (for example on SO the number of time any question has been viewed is always displayed). So, is a REST GET fundamentally incompatible with any kind of "number of views" like functionality in a website? So should it want to be "RESTFUL", should the SO main page either stop display plain HTML links that are accessed using GETs or stop displaying the "this question has been viewed x times"? Because incrementing a counter in a DB is transactional and hence "unrestful"? EDIT just so that people Googling this can get some pointers: From http://www.xfront.com/REST-Web-Services.html : 4. All resources accessible via HTTP GET should be side-effect free. That is, the request should just return a representation of the resource. Invoking the resource should not result in modifying the resource. Now to me if the representation contains the "number of views", it is part of the resource [and in SO the "number of views" a question has is a very important information] and accessing it definitely modifies the resource. This is in sharp contrast with, say, a true RESTFUL HTTP GET like the one you can make on an Amazon S3 resource, where your GET is guaranteed not to modify the resource you get back. But then I'm still very confused.

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• PHP preg_match: a pattern which satisfies all MySQL field names (including 'table.field' formations)

  - by gsquare567

  i need a pattern which satisfies mysql field names, but also with the option of having a table name before it examples: mytable.myfield myfield my4732894__7289FiEld here's what i tried: $pattern = "/^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*?[\.[a-zA-Z0-9_]]?$/"; this worked for what i needed before, which was just the field name: $pattern = "/^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*$/"; any ideas why my addition isnt working? maybe i'm making up regex, so i'll explain what i added... the first '?' is to say that it isn't greedy, ie. it will stop if the next part, namely "[.[a-zA-Z0-9_]]?" is satisfied. now, that second part is just the same as the first except it is optional (hence the '?' at the end) and it starts with a period (hence the '[.' and ']' wrapping my old clause. and obviously, the "^" and "$" rep the beginning and end of the string so... any ideas? (also, i'm a tad confused as to why i need to put in those "/"s in the begining/end anyways, so if you could tell me why it's required, that'd be awesome) thanks a lot! (and thanks for reading this all if you actually did... it's quite a ramble)

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• Dojo: Setting a CheckBox label programmatically

  - by Mitchell Flaherty

  Let me preface by saying that I saw this other question on the subject of CheckBox labels that was asked and answered well over a year ago. I was confused by the answers and am hoping that someone can clarify or that there has been new dojo functionality introduced since then that allows me to do this without resorting to HTML. So without further ado, I would like to know how to programmatically create labels for check boxes. I have a check box like so: this.pubBoxId = new dijit.form.CheckBox({ label: "IdChannel", checked: false, channel: that.idChannel }, that.name + "_PBI"); As you can see I've tried to edit the "label" field, but the label never actually shows up on the page. I have multiple CheckBoxes that I am adding to a ContentPane and simply want a label to the left or right of the check box. Is there any way I can do this without having to write separate HTML? Also, making a separate ContentPane for each individual label would be a big pain because of how many CheckBoxes I plan to have. Thank you for reading, and let me know if further clarification is needed!

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• Javascript function with PHP throwing a "Illegally Formed XML Syntax" error

  - by Joe

  I'm trying to learn some javascript and i'm having trouble figuring out why my code is incorrect (i'm sure i'm doing something wrong lol), but anyways I am trying to create a login page so that when the form is submitted javascript will call a function that checks if the login is in a mysql database and then checks the validity of the password for the user if they exist. however I am getting an error (Illegally Formed XML Syntax) i cannot resolve. I'm really confused, mostly because netbeans is saying it is a xml syntax error and i'm not using xml. here is the code in question: function validateLogin(login){ login.addEventListener("input", function() { $value = login.value; if (<?php //connect to mysql mysql_connect(host, user, pass) or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Connected.');"); echo("</script>"); //select db mysql_select_db() or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Database Selected.');"); echo("</script>"); //query $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM logins") or die(mysql_error()); //check results against given login while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)){ if($row[login] == $value){ echo("true"); exit(0); } } echo("false"); exit(0); ?>) { login.setCustomValidity("Invalid Login. Please Click 'Register' Below.") } else { login.setCustomValidity("") } }); } the code is in an external js file and the error throws on the last line. Also from reading i understand best practices is to not mix js and php so how would i got about separating them but maintaining the functionality i need? thanks!

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• no instance of overloaded function getline c++

  - by Dave

  I'm a bit confused as to what i have incorrect with my script that is causing this error. I have a function which calls a fill for game settings but it doesn't like my getline. Also i should mention these are the files i have included for it: #include <fstream> #include <cctype> #include <map> #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <algorithm> #include <vector> using namespace std;' This is what i have: std::map<string, string> loadSettings(std::string file){ ifstream file(file); string line; std::map<string, string> config; while(std::getline(file, line)) { int pos = line.find('='); if(pos != string::npos) { string key = line.substr(0, pos); string value = line.substr(pos + 1); config[trim(key)] = trim(value); } } return (config); } The function is called like this from my main.cpp //load settings for game std::map<string, string> config = loadSettings("settings.txt"); //load theme for game std::map<string, string> theme = loadSettings("theme.txt"); Where did i go wrong ? Please help! The error: settings.h(61): error C2784: 'std::basic_istream<_Elem,_Traits> &std::getline(std::basic_istream<_Elem,_Traits> &&,std::basic_string<_Elem,_Traits,_Alloc> &)' : could not deduce template argument for 'std::basic_istream<_Elem,_Traits> &&' from 'std::string'

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• Does "delegate" mean a type or an object?

  - by Michal Czardybon

  Reading from MSDN: "A delegate is a type that references a method. Once a delegate is assigned a method, it behaves exactly like that method." Does then "delegate" mean a type or an object?! ...It cannot be both. It seems to me that the single word is used in two different meanings: a type containing a reference to a method of some specified signature, an object of that type, which can be actually called like a method. I would prefer a more precise vocabulary and use "delegate type" for the first case. I have been recently reading a lot about events and delegates and that ambiguity was making me confused many times. Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the first meaning: "Custom event delegates are needed only when an event generates event data" "A delegate declaration defines a class that is derived from the class System.Delegate" Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the second meaning: "specify a delegate that will be called upon the occurrence of some event" "Delegates are objects that refer to methods. They are sometimes described as type-safe function pointers" What do you think? Why did people from Microsoft introduced this ambiguity? Am I the only person to have conceptual problems with different notions being referenced with the same word.

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• SQLAlchemy, one to many vs many to one

  - by sadvaw

  Dear Everyone, I have the following data: CREATE TABLE `groups` ( `bookID` INT NOT NULL, `groupID` INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY(`bookID`), KEY( `groupID`) ); and a book table which basically has books( bookID, name, ... ), but WITHOUT groupID. There is no way for me to determine what the groupID is at the time of the insert for books. I want to do this in sqlalchemy. Hence I tried mapping Book to the books joined with groups on book.bookID=groups.bookID. I made the following: tb_groups = Table( 'groups', metadata, Column('bookID', Integer, ForeignKey('books.bookID'), primary_key=True ), Column('groupID', Integer), ) tb_books = Table( 'books', metadata, Column('bookID', Integer, primary_key=True), tb_joinedBookGroup = sql.join( tb_books, tb_groups, \ tb_books.c.bookID == tb_groups.c.bookID) and defined the following mapper: mapper( Group, tb_groups, properties={ 'books': relation(Book, backref='group') }) mapper( Book, tb_joinedBookGroup ) ... However, when I execute this piece of code, I realized that each book object has a field groups, which is a list, and each group object has books field which is a singular assigment. I think my definition here must have been causing sqlalchemy to be confused about the many-to-one vs one-to-many relationship. Can someone help me sort this out? My desired goal is g.books = [b, b, b, .. ] book.group = g, where g is an instance of group, and b is an instance of book

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• Trouble with pointers and references in C++

  - by KingNestor

  I have a PolygonList and a Polygon type, which are std::lists of Points or lists of lists of points. class Point { public: int x, y; Point(int x1, int y1) { x = x1; y = y1; } }; typedef std::list<Point> Polygon; typedef std::list<Polygon> PolygonList; // List of all our polygons PolygonList polygonList; However, I'm confused on reference variables and pointers. For example, I would like to be able to reference the first Polygon in my polygonList, and push a new Point to it. So I attempted to set the front of the polygonList to a Polygon called currentPolygon like so: Polygon currentPolygon = polygonList.front(); currentPolygon.push_front(somePoint); and now, I can add points to currentPolygon, but these changes end up not being reflected in that same polygon in the polygonList. Is currentPolygon simply a copy of the Polygon in the front of polygonList? When I later iterate over polygonList all the points I've added to currentPolygon aren't shown. It works if I do this: polygonList.front().push_front(somePoint); Why aren't these the same and how can I create a reference to the physical front polygon rather than a copy of it?

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• Does it ever make sense to make a fundamental (non-pointer) parameter const?

  - by Scott Smith

  I recently had an exchange with another C++ developer about the following use of const: void Foo(const int bar); He felt that using const in this way was good practice. I argued that it does nothing for the caller of the function (since a copy of the argument was going to be passed, there is no additional guarantee of safety with regard to overwrite). In addition, doing this prevents the implementer of Foo from modifying their private copy of the argument. So, it both mandates and advertises an implementation detail. Not the end of the world, but certainly not something to be recommended as good practice. I'm curious as to what others think on this issue. Edit: OK, I didn't realize that const-ness of the arguments didn't factor into the signature of the function. So, it is possible to mark the arguments as const in the implementation (.cpp), and not in the header (.h) - and the compiler is fine with that. That being the case, I guess the policy should be the same for making local variables const. One could make the argument that having different looking signatures in the header and source file would confuse others (as it would have confused me). While I try to follow the Principle of Least Astonishment with whatever I write, I guess it's reasonable to expect developers to recognize this as legal and useful.

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• ojspc always returns 0 on errors

  - by Matt McCormick

  In my Ant build.xml file, I am trying to compile JSPs using ojspc. The files are being compiled, however, the build process is still running to completion when the JSP compilation has errors. This is part of my build.xml: <java fork="true" jar="${env.ORACLE_HOME}\j2ee\home\ojspc.jar" resultproperty="result"> <jvmarg value="-Djava.compiler=NONE"/> <arg value="-extend"/> <arg value="com.orionserver.http.OrionHttpJspPage"/> <arg value="-batchMask"/> <arg value="*.jsp"/> <arg value="${target-directory}/build/target/ear/${module-dir-name}-jsp.war"/> </java> <echo level="info">Result Property: ${result}</echo> I have tried setting the property failonerror="true" but that does not change anything. I receive the following output: [java] Detected archive, now processing contents of ../build/target/ear/web-module-jsp.war... [java] Setting up temp area... [java] Expanding archive in temp area... [java] C:\DOCUME~1\MMCCOR~1\LOCALS~1\Temp\tmp12940\_web_2d_inf\_jsp\_password.java:60: cannot resolve symbol [java] symbol : variable reqvst [java] location: class _web_2d_inf._jsp._password [java] out.print(reqvst.getAttribute("test")); [java] ^ [java] 1 error [java] Creating D:\eclipse-workspace\jdw\build\..\build\target\ear\web-module-jsp.war ... [java] Removing temp area... [echo] Result Property: 0 ...(more commands) BUILD SUCCESSFUL In the password.jsp file, I intentionally introduced an error to test. How can I get the build to fail on an error? At the Ant Java page, I am confused by: By default the return code of a is ignored. Alternatively, you can set resultproperty to the name of a property and have it assigned to the result code (barring immutability, of course). When you set failonerror="true", the only possible value for resultproperty is 0. Any non-zero response is treated as an error and would mean the build exits.

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• Generic Class Vb.net

  - by KoolKabin

  hi guys, I am stuck with a problem about generic classes. I am confused how I call the constructor with parameters. My interface: Public Interface IDBObject Sub [Get](ByRef DataRow As DataRow) Property UIN() As Integer End Interface My Child Class: Public Class User Implements IDBObject Public Sub [Get](ByRef DataRow As System.Data.DataRow) Implements IDBObject.Get End Sub Public Property UIN() As Integer Implements IDBObject.UIN Get End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) End Set End Property End Class My Next Class: Public Class Users Inherits DBLayer(Of User) #Region " Standard Methods " #End Region End Class My DBObject Class: Public Class DBLayer(Of DBObject As {New, IDBObject}) Public Shared Function GetData() As List(Of DBObject) Dim QueryString As String = "SELECT * ***;" Dim Dataset As DataSet = New DataSet() Dim DataList As List(Of DBObject) = New List(Of DBObject) Try Dataset = Query(QueryString) For Each DataRow As DataRow In Dataset.Tables(0).Rows **DataList.Add(New DBObject(DataRow))** Next Catch ex As Exception DataList = Nothing End Try Return DataList End Function End Class I get error in the starred area of the DBLayer Object. What might be the possible reason? what can I do to fix it? I even want to add New(byval someval as datatype) in IDBObject interface for overloading construction. but it also gives an error? how can i do it? Adding Sub New(ByVal DataRow As DataRow) in IDBObject producess following error 'Sub New' cannot be declared in an interface. Error Produced in DBLayer Object line: DataList.Add(New DBObject(DataRow)) Msg: Arguments cannot be passed to a 'New' used on a type parameter.

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• Clarification on Threads and Run Loops In Cocoa

  - by dubbeat

  I'm trying to learn about threading and I'm thoroughly confused. I'm sure all the answers are there in the apple docs but I just found it really hard to breakdown and digest. Maybe somebody could clear a thing or 2 up for me. 1)performSelectorOnMainThread Does the above simply register an event in the main run loop or is it somehow a new thread even though the method says "mainThread"? If the purpose of threads is to relieve processing on the main thread how does this help? 2) RunLoops Is it true that if I want to create a completely seperate thread I use "detachNewThreadSelector"? Does calling start on this initiate a default run loop for the thread that has been created? If so where do run loops come into it? 3) And Finally , I've seen examples using NSOperationQueue. Is it true to say that If you use performSelectorOnMainThread the threads are in a queue anyway so NSOperation is not needed? 4) Should I forget about all of this and just use the Grand Central Dispatch instead?

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• EF4 + STE: Reattaching via a WCF Service? Using a new objectcontext each and every time?

  - by Martin

  Hi there, I am planning to use WCF (not ria) in conjunction with Entity Framework 4 and STE (Self tracking entitites). If i understnad this correctly my WCF should return an entity or collection of entities (using LIST for example and not IQueryable) to the client (in my case silverlight) The client then can change the entity or update it. At this point i believe it is self tracking???? This is where i sort of get a bit confused as there are a lot of reported problems with STEs not tracking.. Anyway... Then to update i just need to send back the entity to my WCF service on another method to do the update. I should be creating a new OBJECTCONTEXT everytime? In every method? If i am creaitng a new objectcontext everytime in everymethod on my WCF then don't i need to re-attach the STE to the objectcontext? So basically this alone wouldn't work?? using(var ctx = new MyContext()) { ctx.Orders.ApplyChanges(order); ctx.SaveChanges(); } Or should i be creating the object context once in the constructor of the WCF service so that 1 call and every additional call using the same wcf instance uses the same objectcontext? I could create and destroy the wcf service in each method call from the client - hence creating in effect a new objectcontext each time. I understand that it isn't a good idea to keep the objectcontext alive for very long. Any insight or information would be gratefully appreciated thanks

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• What is the difference between Inversion of Control and Dependency injection in C++?

  - by rlbond

  I've been reading recently about DI and IoC in C++. I am a little confused (even after reading related questions here on SO) and was hoping for some clarification. It seems to me that being familiar with the STL and Boost leads to use of dependency injection quite a bit. For example, let's say I made a function that found the mean of a range of numbers: template <typename Iter> double mean(Iter first, Iter last) { double sum = 0; size_t number = 0; while (first != last) { sum += *(first++); ++number; } return sum/number; }; Is this dependency injection? Inversion of control? Neither? Let's look at another example. We have a class: class Dice { public: typedef boost::mt19937 Engine; Dice(int num_dice, Engine& rng) : n_(num_dice), eng_(rng) {} int roll() { int sum = 0; for (int i = 0; i < num_dice; ++i) sum += boost::uniform_int<>(1,6)(eng_); return sum; } private: Engine& eng_; int n_; }; This seems like dependency injection. But is it inversion of control? Also, if I'm missing something, can someone help me out?

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• Making two Windows using CreateWindowsEx()

  - by Jamie Keeling

  Hello, I have a windows form that has a simple menu and performs a simple operation, I want to be able to create another windows form with all the functionality of a menu bar, message pump etc.. as a separate thread so I can then share the results of the operation to the second window. I.E. 1) Form A opens Form B opens as a separate thread 2)Form A performs operation 3)Form A passes results via memory to Form B 4)Form B display results I'm confused as to how to go about it, the main app runs fine but i'm not sure how to add a second window if the first one already exists. I think that using CreateWindow will allow me to make another window but again i'm not sure how to access the message pump so I can respond to certain events like WM_CREATE on the second window. I hope it makes sense. Thanks! Edit: I've attempted to make a second window and although this does compile, no windows show atall on build. ////////////////////// // WINDOWS FUNCTION // ////////////////////// LRESULT CALLBACK WindowFunc(HWND hMainWindow, UINT message, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam) { //Fields WCHAR buffer[256]; struct DiceData storage; HWND hwnd; // Act on current message switch(message) { case WM_CREATE: AddMenus(hMainWindow); hwnd = CreateWindowEx( 0, "ChildWClass", (LPCTSTR) NULL, WS_CHILD | WS_BORDER | WS_VISIBLE, 0, 0, 0, 0, hMainWindow, NULL, NULL, NULL); ShowWindow(hwnd, SW_SHOW); break; Any suggestions as to why this happens?

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• Is there a way to access Joomla 1.5 user variables (like user id) from a Flex 4 application using a PHP Data Service?

  - by Zachary G. Schroeder

  I have written a script (in two files) that correctly displays a Joomla user id, like this: //this is testy.php define( '_JEXEC', 1 ); define('JPATH_BASE', dirname(FILE)); define( 'DS', DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR ); require_once ( JPATH_BASE .DS.'includes'.DS.'defines.php' ); require_once ( JPATH_BASE .DS.'includes'.DS.'framework.php' ); $mainframe =& JFactory::getApplication('site'); $id = JFactory::getUser()-id; The above file is located in the Joomla root folder. The other file is in a different directory and is as follows: //this is testid.php include '../../joomla/testy.php'; echo $id; However, and here is the rub, when I change the "echo" to a "return" and put the second code snippet inside my Flex 4 Data Service script file, like this... function getUserId() { include '../../joomla/testy.php'; return $id; } ...I get a Flex error that says this: Fatal error: Class 'JRequest' not found in /var/www/html/joomla/libraries/joomla/import.php on line 33 I am extremely confused by this error and would appreciate any suggestions that the stackoverflow community may have. Thanks so much! Zach

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• set width of bars in matlab bar plot on logarithmic scale

  - by KatyB

  I am a bit confused on how to draw a bar graph for the following example: x_lims = [1000,10000;10000,100000;100000,1000000;1000000,10000000;10000000,... 100000000;100000000,1000000000;1000000000,10000000000;... 10000000000,100000000000;100000000000,1e12]; ex1 = [277422033.049038;24118536.4203188;2096819.03295482;... 182293.402068030;15905;1330;105;16;1]; Here, x_lims is the x axis limits for each individual bar and ex1 is the count. How can I plot these on a bar graph so that the width of each individual bar along the x axis is defined by the distance between x_lims(:,1) and x_lims(:,2) and the y value is defined by ex1? So far I have: bar(log10(x_lims(:,1)),log10(ex1)); set(gca,'Xtick',3:11,'YTick',0:9); set(gca,'Xticklabel',10.^get(gca,'Xtick'),... 'Yticklabel',10.^get(gca,'Ytick')); But I would like to (1) have the labels to be the same as if they were created using semilogx or semilogy e.g. 10^9, and (2) I would like to remove the space between the bars, for the first bar, for example, I would like to have it extend horizontally from 1000 to 10000 and then the second bar from 10000 to 100000, and so on. How can this be done?

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