Search Results

Search found 15556 results on 623 pages for 'login controls'.

Page 133/623 | < Previous Page | 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140  | Next Page >

  • Is it thread safe to read a form controls value (but not change it) without using Invoke/BeginInvoke from another thread

    - by goku_da_master
    I know you can read a gui control from a worker thread without using Invoke/BeginInvoke because my app is doing it now. The cross thread exception error is not being thrown and my System.Timers.Timer thread is able to read gui control values just fine (unlike this guy: can a worker thread read a control in the GUI?) Question 1: Given the cardinal rule of threads, should I be using Invoke/BeginInvoke to read form control values? And does this make it more thread-safe? The background to this question stems from a problem my app is having. It seems to randomly corrupt form controls another thread is referencing. (see question 2) Question 2: I have a second thread that needs to update form control values so I Invoke/BeginInvoke to update those values. Well this same thread needs a reference to those controls so it can update them. It holds a list of these controls (say DataGridViewRow objects). Sometimes (not always), the DataGridViewRow reference gets "corrupt". What I mean by corrupt, is the reference is still valid, but some of the DataGridViewRow properties are null (ex: row.Cells). Is this caused by question 1 or can you give me any tips on why this might be happening? Here's some code (the last line has the problem): public partial class MyForm : Form { void Timer_Elapsed(object sender) { // we're on a new thread (this function gets called every few seconds) UpdateUiHelper updateUiHelper = new UpdateUiHelper(this); foreach (DataGridViewRow row in dataGridView1.Rows) { object[] values = GetValuesFromDb(); updateUiHelper.UpdateRowValues(row, values[0]); } // .. do other work here updateUiHelper.UpdateUi(); } } public class UpdateUiHelper { private readonly Form _form; private Dictionary<DataGridViewRow, object> _rows; private delegate void RowDelegate(DataGridViewRow row); private readonly object _lockObject = new object(); public UpdateUiHelper(Form form) { _form = form; _rows = new Dictionary<DataGridViewRow, object>(); } public void UpdateRowValues(DataGridViewRow row, object value) { if (_rows.ContainsKey(row)) _rows[row] = value; else { lock (_lockObject) { _rows.Add(row, value); } } } public void UpdateUi() { foreach (DataGridViewRow row in _rows.Keys) { SetRowValueThreadSafe(row); } } private void SetRowValueThreadSafe(DataGridViewRow row) { if (_form.InvokeRequired) { _form.Invoke(new RowDelegate(SetRowValueThreadSafe), new object[] { row }); return; } // now we're on the UI thread object newValue = _rows[row]; row.Cells[0].Value = newValue; // randomly errors here with NullReferenceException, but row is never null! }

    Read the article

  • Creating a System.Windows.Controls.Image throws an exception - how do I use the dispatcher to instan

    - by Scott Whitlock
    I'm running my unit tests on a piece of code that does the following in the test: Assert.IsNotNull(target.Icon); Inside the getter for the Icon property, I'm doing this: System.Windows.Controls.Image img = new System.Windows.Controls.Image(); That's throwing this exception: System.InvalidOperationException : The calling thread must be STA, because many UI components require this. I understand what that means, and I understand that I need to use the Dispatcher, but I'm a bit confused about how or why... this is a property of my ViewModel and I don't get any of these exceptions when running the application. Other info: this only started failing when I upgraded to .NET 4.

    Read the article

  • Do validations still fire in ASP.NET even if the controls are hidden?

    - by Josh
    I have a form that uses ASP.NET validations. I am using some inline C# in the aspx to show/hide certain controls depending on a user's role. I would use the Visible property, but there are so many of them, I just decided to do inline C# to show and hide (I know, not best practice, but bear with me for a second). I am having an issue where Page.IsValid is always set to False when I submit my form (when certain fields are being hidden). Will the validations still fire off even if the controls are not even rendered on the pag? Also, if this is not the case, is there an effective way of breaking down Page.IsValid to find out what is setting it to False? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why does my UI controls work on iPhone but not iPad?

    - by Andrew
    I have an iPhone app, which consists of a table view containing various custom UITableViewCells, with UISlider and UISwitch controls. When running the app on the iphone, I can move the slider and switches contained in each of the table cells. When I run the same app on the iPad. I can not. None of the controls within the table view will respond to touches. I have checked 'User Interaction Enabled' within the Interface Builder. Anybody got any suggestions of where I should be looking for the cause of different behavior between the iPhone and iPad, in respect to UIControls.

    Read the article

  • The Controls collection cannot be modified because the control contains code blocks (i.e. <% ... %>)

    - by user339160
    Hi, I am trying to add a css form code . My website uses a master page . I am getting the error The Controls collection cannot be modified because the control contains code blocks (i.e. <% ... %). my code snipet string CssClass = string.Format("{0}/{1}?$BUILD$", BaseImageUrl, CssFileName); HtmlLink css = new HtmlLink(); css.Href = CssClass; css.Attributes["rel"] = "stylesheet"; css.Attributes["type"] = "text/css"; Header.Controls.Add(css); Any suggessions,

    Read the article

  • Windows XP mounting USB drive to same letter as previously mapped network drive

    - by GAThrawn
    Why does Windows always mount a USB drive as the next drive letter after the last physical drive, even when that letter is already taken by a mapped drive, and is there any way to improve this behaviour? What happens is I tend to use a few different flash drives on my PC, as well as having both a Blackberry and a personal phone that mount as USB drives when I plug them in to charge. Being on a corporate PC I also have a number of mapped network drives (some set by login script, some set as persistent mappings in my profile). When I first login I'll have drive letters like this: C: - Local Drive D: - DVD Drive G: - Login script mapped drive J: - Login script mapped drive When I plug the Blackberry in it'll mount two drives (one for onboard storage, one for the SD card) as E: and F:. If I then plug in another USB drive it will mount as G:, even though that's already taken by a network mapped drive. This leaves me with the following drives: C: - Local Drive D: - DVD Drive E: - USB drive (Blackberry) F: - USB drive (Blackberry) G: - Login script mapped drive [G: - USB drive - mounted but not visible in Explorer or command prompt] J: - Login script mapped drive I then have to go into Disk Management, find the new USB drive that's mounted to G: and re-assign it to another letter eg Z:, once this is done Auto-Play detects it and throws up its normal dialog, and its browseable in Explorer. While this is OK to do if you only use one or two USB drives and have admin access to your PC with your login account, its a total pain in the proverbial if you regularly use a whole load of different USB devices, and corporate policy means you have one account for your normal login (that only has User access to workstations), but have to use a different account for any privileged action. I realize that one possible reason for this is the difference between hardware which is mounted and assigned drive letters at the systen level, and mapped drives which are done at the user level. For USB devices that are already plugged in before login, then obviously they're mounted before Windows knows what network drives may be mapped. However if you plug the USB devices in after you're fully logged in and have drives mapped then Windows must know which letters are available?

    Read the article

  • 'hijacking' gui and mapping certain controls to certain functions. VNC. TouchOSC

    - by Nick
    I need a VNC LIKE application which rather than sharing the screen, can take control of a specific application and then share that functionality across a network to multiple clients. Obviously, VNC requires use of the mouse and therefore only one user can do something at one time, this is NOT what I am after. I am after something that can hijack the graphic user interface, map certain controls, and then display them in another piece of software (perhaps like TOUCHOSC) The software I would like to map and share is called YAMAHA STUDIO MANAGER and is used to control certain Yamaha audio hardware, and in my case a Yamaha LS9 and M7CL mixing console. Its free.

    Read the article

  • In Windows 7 is there a way to login from any user account and see the same workspace and be able to use the running programs of another user?

    - by WickedMongoose
    Our group has a number of Test Stands with PCs that are currently being accessed with a single group login. It has been sent from on high that this is not the way to do things for security reasons and we all agree. However. Multiple team members from around the world log into these Test Stands and need to be able to access programs that have been run from what would be different user profiles if we were to no longer have a single common login. Is there a way to have a common workspace such that when different users login, they will be able to see and interact with all running applications as if they were using a common login? Applications that we run link to and monopolize hardware resources connected to the PC and it is time consuming to restart and reload settings every time a new user logs in. Even if the program did not monopolize the hardware many of these programs are resource intensive and require a large portion of each machine's RAM to run, so trying to run the application again when it is already running from multiple user accounts would quickly consume all system resources. Simple Example: I open a chrome browser while logged into our pc. I then logout and another team member remotes in and should be able to see my open browser and be able to interact with it as if he were the one who opened it. Any alternative process flows or solutions from someone who has gone through a similar transition would be appreciated. This is not a request for how to give all users access to the ability to run a program, but it is the request for how to allow all users access to interact with running applications that have been started by other users and need to be interacted with as if the new user started and has control of the application.

    Read the article

  • IEnumerable<T>.Concat -- A replacement that can work without changing the reference?

    - by Earlz
    Hello, I've recently been bitten by the (way too commmon in my opinion) gotcha of Concat returns it's result, rather than appending to the list itself. For instance. List<Control> mylist=new List<Control>; //.... after adding Controls into mylist MyPanel.Controls.Concat(mylist); //This will not affect MyPanel.Controls at all. MyPanel.Controls=MyPanel.Controls.Concat(mylist); //This is what is needed, but the Controls reference can not be reassigned (for good reason) So is there some other way of combining two lists that will work when the collection reference is read-only? Is the only way to do this with a foreach? foreach(var item in mylist){ MyPanel.Controls.Add(item); } Is there a better way without the foreach?

    Read the article

  • Checking to see if a generic class is inherited from an interface

    - by SnOrfus
    I've got a class that inherits from an interface. That interface defines an event that I'd like to subscribe to in the calling code. I've tried a couple of things, but they all resolve to false (where I know it's true). How can I check to see if a class implements a specific interface. Here's what I've tried (note, the object in question is a usercontrol that implements MyInterface, stored in an array of controls, only some of which implement MyInterface - it is not null): if (this.controls[index].GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(MyInterface))) ((MyInterface)this.controls[index]).Event += this.Handler; if (this.controls[index].GetType().IsAssignableFrom(typeof(MyInterface))) ((MyInterface)this.controls[index]).Event += this.Handler; if (this.controls[index].GetType() == typeof(MyInterface)) ((MyInterface)this.controls[index]).Event += this.Handler; All to no avail.

    Read the article

  • How to use Dependency Injection with ASP.NET

    - by Schneider
    I am trying to work out a way to use Dependency Injection with ASP.NET controls. I have got lots of controls that create repositories directly, and use those to access and bind to data etc. I am looking for a pattern where I can pass repositories to the controls externally (IoC), so my controls remain unaware of how repositories are constructed and where they come from etc. I would prefer not to have a dependency on the IoC container from my controls, therefore I just want to be able to construct the controls with constructor or property injection. (And just to complicate things, these controls are being constructed and placed on the page by a CMS at runtime!) Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Spring Security - Persistent Remember Me Issue

    - by Taylor L
    I've been trying to track down why Spring Security isn't creating the Spring Security remember me cookie (SPRING_SECURITY_REMEMBER_ME_COOKIE). At first glance, the logs make it seem like the login is failing, but the login is actually successful in the sense that if I navigate to a page that requires authentication I am not redirected back to the login page. However, the logs appear to be saying the login credentials are invalid. I'm using Spring 3.0.1, Spring Security 3.0.1, and Google App Engine 1.3.1. Any ideas as to what is going on? Mar 16, 2010 10:05:56 AM org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.PersistentTokenBasedRememberMeServices onLoginSuccess FINE: Creating new persistent login for user [email protected] Mar 16, 2010 10:10:07 AM org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.AbstractRememberMeServices loginFail FINE: Interactive login attempt was unsuccessful. Mar 16, 2010 10:10:07 AM org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.AbstractRememberMeServices cancelCookie FINE: Cancelling cookie Below is the relevant portion of the applicationContext-security.xml. <http auto-config="false"> <intercept-url pattern="/css/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/img/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/js/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/admin/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/login/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/register/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/error/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="ROLE_USER" /> <logout logout-success-url="/" /> <form-login login-page="/app/login" default-target-url="/" authentication-failure-url="/app/login?login_error=1" /> <session-management invalid-session-url="/app/login" /> <remember-me services-ref="rememberMeServices" key="myKey" /> </http> <authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <authentication-provider user-service-ref="userDetailsService"> <password-encoder hash="sha-256" base64="true"> <salt-source user-property="username" /> </password-encoder> </authentication-provider> </authentication-manager> <beans:bean id="userDetailsService" class="com.my.service.auth.UserDetailsServiceImpl" /> <beans:bean id="rememberMeServices" class="org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.PersistentTokenBasedRememberMeServices"> <beans:property name="userDetailsService" ref="userDetailsService" /> <beans:property name="tokenRepository" ref="persistentTokenRepository" /> <beans:property name="key" value="myKey" /> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="persistentTokenRepository" class="com.my.service.auth.PersistentTokenRepositoryImpl" />

    Read the article

  • radvd is not assigning prefix

    - by Samik
    I'm currently trying to setup IPv6 address auto-configuration with router advertisement daemon (radvd) on a virtual machine running CentOS 6.5. But the eth0 interface is not obtaining that prefix. I've obtained the ULA prefix from here. Contents of /etc/sysctl.conf # Kernel sysctl configuration file for Red Hat Linux # # For binary values, 0 is disabled, 1 is enabled. See sysctl(8) and # sysctl.conf(5) for more details. # Controls IP packet forwarding net.ipv4.ip_forward = 0 net.ipv6.conf.all.forwarding = 1 # Controls source route verification net.ipv4.conf.default.rp_filter = 1 # Do not accept source routing net.ipv4.conf.default.accept_source_route = 0 # Controls the System Request debugging functionality of the kernel kernel.sysrq = 0 # Controls whether core dumps will append the PID to the core filename. # Useful for debugging multi-threaded applications. kernel.core_uses_pid = 1 # Controls the use of TCP syncookies net.ipv4.tcp_syncookies = 1 # Disable netfilter on bridges. net.bridge.bridge-nf-call-ip6tables = 0 net.bridge.bridge-nf-call-iptables = 0 net.bridge.bridge-nf-call-arptables = 0 # Controls the default maxmimum size of a mesage queue kernel.msgmnb = 65536 # Controls the maximum size of a message, in bytes kernel.msgmax = 65536 # Controls the maximum shared segment size, in bytes kernel.shmmax = 68719476736 # Controls the maximum number of shared memory segments, in pages kernel.shmall = 4294967296 Contents of /etc/radvd.conf # NOTE: there is no such thing as a working "by-default" configuration file. # At least the prefix needs to be specified. Please consult the radvd.conf(5) # man page and/or /usr/share/doc/radvd-*/radvd.conf.example for help. # # interface eth0 { AdvSendAdvert on; MinRtrAdvInterval 3; MaxRtrAdvInterval 10; AdvDefaultPreference low; AdvHomeAgentFlag off; prefix fd8a:8d9d:808f:1::/64 { AdvOnLink on; AdvAutonomous on; AdvRouterAddr on; }; }; Contents of /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0 DEVICE=eth0 HWADDR=52:54:00:74:d7:46 TYPE=Ethernet UUID=af5db1cb-e809-4098-be1a-5a74dbb767b1 ONBOOT=yes NM_CONTROLLED=no BOOTPROTO=dhcp IPV6INIT=yes IPV6_AUTOCONF=yes I've also enabled radvd at startup through chkconfig. Though I noticed that radvd is starting after interfaces are brought up. I've tried restarting the network service afterwards but still I get the following link-local address only #ip -6 addr show 1: lo: mtu 16436 inet6 ::1/128 scope host valid_lft forever preferred_lft forever 2: eth0: mtu 1500 qlen 1000 inet6 fe80::5054:ff:fe74:d746/64 scope link valid_lft forever preferred_lft forever Edit: Based on the answer given by Sander Steffann I still need clarification on some points but I'm posting here what worked. Contents of /etc/sysconfig/network NETWORKING=yes HOSTNAME=syslog-ng-server NETWORKING_IPV6=yes IPV6FORWARDING=yes Contents of /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0 DEVICE=eth0 HWADDR=52:54:00:74:d7:46 TYPE=Ethernet UUID=af5db1cb-e809-4098-be1a-5a74dbb767b1 ONBOOT=yes NM_CONTROLLED=no BOOTPROTO=dhcp IPV6INIT=yes IPV6_AUTOCONF=yes IPV6FORWARDING=no Removed following line from /etc/sysctl.conf net.ipv6.conf.all.forwarding = 1 Contents of /etc/radvd.conf is as previous.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Windows Auth Login sees Domain as untrusted...

    - by Mr Shoubs
    I've had someone set up a domain controller on windows 2008 on one server, and sql server 2008 on another. The domain seems to be working fine, I'm logged on as a domain user on both servers, nothing seems to be a problem there. However, when I try to add a domain user/group to SQL Server Security (e.g. clicking ok from the create login screen) it says it can't find it (even though I've used the search to find the correct account in the first place), when I try to logon (even though I haven't added it yet) it says something about the account being part of an untrusted domain instead of saying I don't have permission to log on. Anyone have any ideas on what is set up incorrectly?

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to capture the "network user name" and the "host name" during a "login failed" alert

    - by Jorge Rivera
    I am a SQL Server 7 DBA and I would like to "improve" the default "Login failed" alert that brings SQL 7. I need a way to know what "user" (network user name) was trying to connect to the server (not only the SQL user account) and I would like to know from where the user was trying to connect (the hostname). Does someone know if this is possible? Using the SQL Profiler is not the best way since is a resource consuming task. Would be a way to setup an alert for doing this? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • additional security measures besides a login with user-password - what can you think of?

    - by Tom Tom
    I'm wondering which additional security measures one could take besides a traditional login with user and password. What do you think of this one: _manually adding a cookie to each client which includes a secret key _this cookie is not served by the webserver, it is actually copied "by hand" to each client computer _if a client connects to the web-app the server graps that cookie and if the containing secret key is ok, the traditional login box is presented where the user has to enter the user-password combination _communication between client and server is encrypted with https Thus a potential intruder would first need to get the cookie from the clients computer, which is only possible with having access to the clients computer. This would work only for a very small user-base and an admin willing to do this manual work.

    Read the article

  • SSH login with expect(1). How to exit expect and remain in SSH?

    - by Koroviev
    So I wanted to automate my SSH logins. The host I'm with doesn't allow key authentication on this server, so I had to be more inventive. I don't know much about shell scripting, but some research showed me the command 'expect' and some scripts using it for exactly this purpose. I set up a script and ran it, it worked perfectly to login. #!/usr/bin/env expect -f set password "my_password" match_max 1000 spawn ssh -p 2222 "my_username"@11.22.11.22 expect "*?assword:*" send -- "$password\r" send -- "\r" expect eof Initially, it runs as it should. Last login: Wed May 12 21:07:52 on ttys002 esther:~ user$ expect expect-test.exp spawn ssh -p 2222 [email protected] [email protected]'s password: Last login: Wed May 12 15:44:43 2010 from 20.10.20.10 -jailshell-3.2$ But that's where the success ends. Commands do not work, but hitting enter just makes a new line. Arrow keys and other non-alphanumeric keys produce symbols like '^[[C', '^[[A', '^[OQ' etc.[1] No other prompt appears except the two initially created by the expect script. Any ignored commands will be executed by my local shell once expect times out. An example: -jailshell-3.2$ whoami ls pwd hostname (...time passes, expect times out...) esther:~ user$ whoami user esther:~ ciaran$ ls Books Documents Movies Public Code Downloads Music Sites Desktop Library Pictures expect-test.exp esther:~ ciaran$ pwd /Users/ciaran esther:~ ciaran$ hostname esther.local As I said, I have no shell scripting experience, but I think it's being caused because I'm still "inside of" expect, but not "inside of" SSH. Is there any way to terminate expect once I've logged in, and have it hand over the SSH session to me? I've tried commands like 'close' and 'exit', after " send -- "\r" ". Yeah, they do what I want and expect dies, but it vindictively takes the SSH session down with it, leaving me back where I started. What I really need is for expect to do its job and terminate, leaving the SSH session back in my hands as if I did it manually. All help is appreciated, thanks. [1] I know there's a name for this, but I don't know what it is. And this is one of those frightening things which can't be googled, because the punctuation characters are ignored. As a side question, what's the story here?

    Read the article

  • IIS7 FTP Setup - An error occured during the authentication process. 530 End Login failed

    - by robmzd
    I'm having a problem very similar to IIS 7.5 FTP IIS Manager Users Login Fail (530) on Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard. I have created an FTP site and IIS Manager user but am having trouble logging in. I could really do with getting this working with the IIS Manager user rather than by creating a new system user since I'm fairly restricted with those accounts. Here is the output when connecting locally through command prompt: C:\Windows\system32>ftp localhost Connected to MYSERVER. 220 Microsoft FTP Service User (MYSERVER:(none)): MyFtpLogin 331 Password required for MyFtpLogin. Password: *** 530-User cannot log in. Win32 error: Logon failure: unknown user name or bad password. Error details: An error occured during the authentication process. 530 End Login failed. I have followed the guide to configure ftp with iis manager authentication in iis 7 and Adding FTP Publishing to a Web Site in IIS 7 Things I have done and checked: The FTP Service is installed (along with FTP Extensibility). Local Service and Network Service have been given access to the site folder Permission has been given to the config files Granted read/write permissions to the FTP Root folder The Management Service is installed and running Enable remote connections is ticked with 'Windows credentials or IIS manager credentials' selected The IIS Manager User has been added to the server (root connection in the IIS connections branch) The new FTP site has been added IIS Manager Authentication has been added to the FTP authentication providers The IIS Manager user has been added to the IIS Manager Permissions list for the site Added Read/Write permissions for the user in the FTP Authorization Rules Here's a section of the applicationHost config file associated with the FTP site <site name="MySite" id="8"> <application path="/" applicationPool="MyAppPool"> <virtualDirectory path="/" physicalPath="D:\Websites\MySite" /> </application> <bindings> <binding protocol="http" bindingInformation="*:80:www.mydomain.co.uk" /> <binding protocol="ftp" bindingInformation="*:21:www.mydomain.co.uk" /> </bindings> <ftpServer> <security> <ssl controlChannelPolicy="SslAllow" dataChannelPolicy="SslAllow" /> <authentication> <basicAuthentication enabled="true" /> <customAuthentication> <providers> <add name="IisManagerAuth" enabled="true" /> </providers> </customAuthentication> </authentication> </security> </ftpServer> </site> ... <location path="MySite"> <system.ftpServer> <security> <authorization> <add accessType="Allow" users="MyFtpLogin" permissions="Read, Write" /> </authorization> </security> </system.ftpServer> </location> If I connect to the Site (not FTP) from my local IIS Manager using the same IIS Manager account details then it connects fine, I can browse files and change settings as I would locally (though I don't seem to have an option to upload files). Trying to connect via FTP though either through the browser or FileZilla etc... gives me: Status: Resolving address of www.mydomain.co.uk Status: Connecting to 123.456.12.123:21... Status: Connection established, waiting for welcome message... Response: 220 Microsoft FTP Service Command: USER MyFtpLogin Response: 331 Password required for MyFtpLogin. Command: PASS ********* Response: 530 User cannot log in. Error: Critical error Error: Could not connect to server I have tried collecting etw traces for ftp sessions, in the logs I get a FailBasicLogon followed by a FailCustomLogon, but no other info: FailBasicLogon SessionId={cad26a97-225d-45ba-ab1f-f6acd9046e55} | ErrorCode=0x8007052E StartCustomLogon SessionId={cad26a97-225d-45ba-ab1f-f6acd9046e55} | LogonProvider=IisManagerAuth StartCallProvider SessionId={cad26a97-225d-45ba-ab1f-f6acd9046e55} | provider=IisManagerAuth EndCallProvider SessionId={cad26a97-225d-45ba-ab1f-f6acd9046e55} EndCustomLogon SessionId={cad26a97-225d-45ba-ab1f-f6acd9046e55} FailCustomLogon SessionId={cad26a97-225d-45ba-ab1f-f6acd9046e55} | ErrorCode=0x8007052E FailFtpCommand SessionId={cad26a97-225d-45ba-ab1f-f6acd9046e55} | ReturnValue=0x8007052E | SubStatus=ERROR_DURING_AUTHENTICATION In the normal FTP logs I just get: 2012-10-23 16:13:11 123.456.12.123 - 123.456.12.123 21 ControlChannelOpened - - 0 0 e2d4e935-fb31-4f2c-af79-78d75d47c18e - 2012-10-23 16:13:11 123.456.12.123 - 123.456.12.123 21 USER MyFtpLogin 331 0 0 e2d4e935-fb31-4f2c-af79-78d75d47c18e - 2012-10-23 16:13:11 123.456.12.123 - 123.456.12.123 21 PASS *** 530 1326 41 e2d4e935-fb31-4f2c-af79-78d75d47c18e - 2012-10-23 16:13:11 123.456.12.123 - 123.456.12.123 21 ControlChannelClosed - - 0 0 e2d4e935-fb31-4f2c-af79-78d75d47c18e - If anyone has any ideas than I would be very grateful to hear them. Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I login to Ubuntu using a USB serial port?

    - by marc
    How can enable remote terminal login into Ubuntu 9.10 using a USB serial port? I created device /dev/ttyUSB0 and i want to allow logins using Hyper-Terminal. I found some resources but they are related to real hardware rs232 ports. I can't find any information about USB converter. So far I have established connection between that USB-serial port and my laptop. I can send text to the port (cp sometext.txt /dev/ttyUSB0) and read it using hyperterminal. What do I need to do to enable logins on this port?

    Read the article

  • Reading xml document in firefox

    - by Searock
    I am trying to read customers.xml using javascript. My professor has taught us to read xml using `ActiveXObjectand he has given us an assignment to create a sample login page which checks username and password by reading customers.xml. I am trying to use DOMParser so that it works with firefox. But when I click on Login button I get this error. Error: syntax error Source File: file:///C:/Users/Searock/Desktop/home/project/project/login.html Line: 1, Column: 1 Source Code: customers.xml Here's my code. login.js var xmlDoc = 0; function checkUser() { var user = document.login.txtLogin.value; var pass = document.login.txtPass.value; //xmlDoc = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLDOM"); /* xmlDoc = document.implementation.createDocument("","",null); xmlDoc.async = "false"; xmlDoc.onreadystatechange = redirectUser; xmlDoc.load("customers.xml"); */ var parser = new DOMParser(); xmlDoc = parser.parseFromString("customers.xml", "text/xml"); alert(xmlDoc.documentElement.nodeName); xmlDoc.async = "false"; xmlDoc.onreadystatechange = redirectUser; } function redirectUser() { alert(''); var user = document.login.txtLogin.value; var pass = document.login.txtPass.value; var log = 0; if(xmlDoc.readyState == 4) { xmlObj = xmlDoc.documentElement; var len = xmlObj.childNodes.length; for(i = 0; i < len; i++) { var nodeElement = xmlObj.childNodes[i]; var userXml = nodeElement.childNodes[0].firstChild.nodeValue; var passXml = nodeElement.childNodes[1].firstChild.nodeValue; var idXML = nodeElement.attributes[0].value if(userXml == user && passXml == pass) { log = 1; document.cookie = escape(idXML); document.login.submit(); } } } if(log == 0) { var divErr = document.getElementById('Error'); divErr.innerHTML = "<b>Login Failed</b>"; } } customers.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <customers> <customer custid="CU101"> <user>jack</user> <pwd>PW101</pwd> <email>[email protected]</email> </customer> <customer custid="CU102"> <user>jill</user> <pwd>PW102</pwd> <email>[email protected]</email> </customer> <customer custid="CU103"> <user>john</user> <pwd>PW103</pwd> <email>[email protected]</email> </customer> <customer custid="CU104"> <user>jeff</user> <pwd>PW104</pwd> <email>[email protected]</email> </customer> </customers> I get parsererror message on line alert(xmlDoc.documentElement.nodeName); I don't know what's wrong with my code. Can some one point me in a right direction? Edit : Ok, I found a solution. var xmlDoc = 0; var xhttp = 0; function checkUser() { var user = document.login.txtLogin.value; var pass = document.login.txtPass.value; var err = ""; if(user == "" || pass == "") { if(user == "") { alert("Enter user name"); } if(pass == "") { alert("Enter Password"); } return; } if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else // IE 5/6 { xhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xhttp.onreadystatechange = redirectUser; xhttp.open("GET","customers.xml",true); xhttp.send(); } function redirectUser() { var log = 2; var user = document.login.txtLogin.value; var pass = document.login.txtPass.value; if (xhttp.readyState == 4) { log = 0; xmlDoc = xhttp.responseXML; var xmlUsers = xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName('user'); var xmlPasswords = xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName('pwd'); var userLen = xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName('customer').length; var xmlCustomers = xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName('customer'); for (var i = 0; i < userLen; i++) { var xmlUser = xmlUsers[i].childNodes[0].nodeValue; var xmlPass = xmlPasswords[i].childNodes[0].nodeValue; var xmlId = xmlCustomers.item(i).attributes[0].nodeValue; if(xmlUser == user && xmlPass == pass) { log = 1; document.cookie = xmlId; document.login.submit(); break; } } } if(log == 0) { alert("Login failed"); } } Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Problem with ASP.NET Authentication

    - by Niels Bosma
    I'm having problem with our login procedure. Some customers complain that they can't login. I can see in our logs that their login is successful and that they are redirected from the login page to the member area. But there somehow the login isn't detected and they are bounced back to the login page. I've asked customers to check if cookies are supported (http://www.html-kit.com/tools/cookietester/) but problem remains even if this test returns true. This is how I've implemented the login procedure (simplyfied): protected void Login(string email, string password) { FormsAuthentication.SignOut(); Guid clientId = /* Validate login by checking email and password, if fails display error otherwise get client id */ FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(clientId.ToString(), true); HttpContext.Current.Response.Redirect("~/Members.aspx"); } On the member page I check for authentication by in Page_Load function: public static void IsAuthenticated() { if (!HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { HttpContext.Current.Response.Redirect("~/Login.aspx", true); } } Maybe I'm using FormsAuthentication completely wrong? I've asked this before but still haven't been able to figure this out, I'd appreciate any help.

    Read the article

  • Do I need to auto-login after account activation?

    - by Art
    This is the standard scenario: User registers on the site User receives an account activation email, clicks link to activate Web site notifies the user that account is activated Now there are at least two pathways: User is taken to the login screen and asked to enter login details User is automatically logged in and taken to a welcome/profile/etc page While there are obvious benefits in (1) as far as the user's experience is concerned, there could be drawbacks as well. Option (2) offers improved security at cost of UX. Which of the scenarios is preferable and why? Any serious flaws in any of them?

    Read the article

  • Error: java.lang.ClassCastException

    - by theJava
    Updating the entire post. public Login authenticate(Login login) { String query = "SELECT email, id FROM Login WHERE email=? AND password=?"; Object[] parameters = { login.getEmail(), login.getPassword() }; List resultsList = getHibernateTemplate().find(query,parameters); if ( resultsList.size() == 1 ) { results = (Login)resultsList.get(0); System.out.println(results); } else { System.out.println("Error dude.... "); // error no entity or mutiple entities } return results; } I now return Login Objects. private void checkLogin() { form.commit(); Login newUser = new Login(); newUser = ilogin.authenticate(loginbean); System.out.println("Its Null Value" + newUser); if (newUser == null) { getWindow().showNotification("Login failed", LOGIN_ERROR_MSG, Notification.TYPE_WARNING_MESSAGE); } else { System.out.println(newUser); getApplication().setUser(newUser); } } When there is no matching email, i get there is no such user and also this statement does get printed out. System.out.println("Its Null Value" + newUser); But when there is a email and password matching. I get weird error. Caused by: java.lang.ClassCastException: [Ljava.lang.Object; cannot be cast to com.intermedix.domain.Login at com.intermedix.services.LoginService.authenticate(LoginService.java:30) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.springframework.aop.support.AopUtils.invokeJoinpointUsingReflection(AopUtils.java:301) at org.springframework.aop.framework.ReflectiveMethodInvocation.invokeJoinpoint(ReflectiveMethodInvocation.java:182) at org.springframework.aop.framework.ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed(ReflectiveMethodInvocation.java:149) at org.springframework.transaction.interceptor.TransactionInterceptor.invoke(TransactionInterceptor.java:106) at org.springframework.aop.framework.ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed(ReflectiveMethodInvocation.java:171) at org.springframework.aop.framework.JdkDynamicAopProxy.invoke(JdkDynamicAopProxy.java:204) at $Proxy32.authenticate(Unknown Source) at com.intermedix.ui.LoginDailog.checkLogin(LoginDailog.java:106) at com.intermedix.ui.LoginDailog.access$0(LoginDailog.java:102) at com.intermedix.ui.LoginDailog$1.buttonClick(LoginDailog.java:52) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at com.vaadin.event.ListenerMethod.receiveEvent(ListenerMethod.java:487) ... 26 more

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140  | Next Page >