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  • Apache HTTPD as a proxy

    - by markovuksanovic
    I need to redirect all the requests from localhost:8080/app1/ to localhost/app1. which is the best way to do it. The only requirement is that the user must never be aware that he is accessing the application at port 80. i guess I need to set up Apache HTTPD proxying - I'm just not sure which is the best way to do it. Thanks in advance.

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  • Get information from PayPal after a transaction

    - by user146780
    I want to create a simple transaction on my Web Site where after the person's transaction completes, I want paypal to redirect the user to go to a place on my site and I want PayPal to provide me with details so I can use PHP to parse it and email them the link to their purchase. I'm not sure what notify_url does? Thanks

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  • Set a ModelState to an ActionResult in ASP.Net MVC

    - by Marco
    Hi, In a View, I've created a <form> that posts some data to another Controller, which is different from that one that redirected me to the View. In this second controller, i perform some data validations and then, if errors are found, I need to redirect the user again to the source View but with the edited ModelState (so that i can show the validation errors). Any tips?

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  • Money Transaction without using in-app purchase for iphone app

    - by Jaydevsinh Gohil
    I want to implement the payment gateway like functionality in my iphone application other than In-App Purchase feature provided by Apple. So, i have one Question regarding the application approval on Appstore that, if i will redirect user to the UIwebview for payment related functionality, then apple will reject this application for not following the human interface guideline or it will allow this. Other way i can do it by calling web-service for the transaction of money. So, again there is any chance of app rejection on AppStore. Please share your thought on this

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  • Having trouble understanding some code (Ruby on Rails)

    - by user284194
    I posted a question awhile ago asking how I could limit the rate at which a form could be submitted from a rails application. I was helped by a very patient user and their solution works great. The code was for my comments controller, and now I find myself wanting to add this functionality to another controller, my Messages controller. I immediately tried reusing the working code from the comments controller but I couldn't get it to work. Instead of asking for the working code, could someone please help me understand my working comment controller code? class CommentsController < ApplicationController #... before_filter :post_check def record_post_time cookies[:last_post_at] = Time.now.to_i end def last_post_time Time.at((cookies[:last_post_at].to_i rescue 0)) end MIN_POST_TIME = 2.minutes def post_check return true if (Time.now - last_post_time) > MIN_POST_TIME flash[:warning] = "You are trying to reply too fast." @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) redirect_to(@message) return false end #... def create @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) @comment = @message.comments.build(params[:comment]) if @comment.save record_post_time flash[:notice] = "Replied to \"#{@message.title}\"" redirect_to(@message) else render :action => "new" end end def update @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) @comment = Comment.find(params[:id]) if @comment.update_attributes(params[:comment]) record_post_time redirect_to post_comment_url(@message, @comment) else render :action => "edit" end end #... end My Messages controller is pretty much a standard rails generated controller with a few before filters and associated private methods for DRYing up the code and a redirect for non existent pages. I'll explain how much of the code I understand. When a comment is created, a cookie is created with a last_post_time value. If they try to post another comment, the cookie is checked if the last one was made in the last two minutes. If it was a flash warning is displayed and no comment is recorded. What I don't really understand is how the post_check method works and how I can adapt it for my simpler posts controller. I thought I could reuse all the code in the message controller with the exception of the line: @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) # (don't need the redirect code) in the post_check method. But it trips up on the "record_post_time" in the create action/method. I really want to understand this. Can someone explain why this doesn't work? I greatly appreciate you reading my lengthy question.

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  • problem with struts actions and redirections

    - by Casey
    I am trying to update a simple web app that was built with struts2, jsp and standard servlets. I am trying to redirect a url to a specific action but can't seem to get it to work right. For example, the url that is correct is: http://localhost:8080/theapp/lookup/search.action Here is my web.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <!DOCTYPE web-app PUBLIC "-//Sun Microsystems, Inc.//DTD Web Application 2.3//EN" "http://java.sun.com/dtd/web-app_2_3.dtd"><web-app> <display-name>theapp</display-name> <filter> <filter-name>struts2</filter-name> <filter-class> org.apache.struts2.dispatcher.FilterDispatcher </filter-class> </filter> <filter-mapping> <filter-name>struts2</filter-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </filter-mapping> <listener> <listener-class> org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener </listener-class> </listener> And here is my struts.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <!DOCTYPE struts PUBLIC "-//Apache Software Foundation//DTD Struts Configuration 2.0//EN" "http://struts.apache.org/dtds/struts-2.0.dtd"> <default-action-ref name="search" /> <action name="search" method="search" class="com.theapp.SearchAction" > <result>index.jsp</result> <result name="input" >index.jsp</result> <result name="error" type="redirect">site_locator_mobile/error.action</result> </action> The problem here is that if I don't specify the correct url as above, I just get the index.jsp file, but without any properties in index.jsp being processed because the information is contained in the servlet. What I would like to is if someone just entered: http://localhost:8080/theapp/lookup/ than they would be taken to: http://localhost:8080/theapp/lookup/search.action Thanks

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  • Rewrite URL based on file existence check

    - by Anthony Faull
    I need to redirect web requests of the form /{language}-{country}/{file} to: /{language}-{country}/{file} if it exists, otherwise /{language}/{file} if it exists, otherwise /en-US/{file} The existing .htaccess fulfils requirements 1 and 3. What changes do I need to fulfil requirement 2? .htaccess: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteCond $0 !i18n/en-US [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(i18n)/([^/]+)/(.*)$ $1/en-US/$3 [NC,L]

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  • Change and Maintain CSS Style of Button State

    - by TDDG
    I have 5 list items that act like tabs for a page stored in a Masterpage in a asp.net application. When the user selects a list item, I would like to redirect the the page, and change the class for that list item (tab) to show the active tab the user is on. What is the best way to dynamically change the class of the list item based on the user interaction with them, and maintain the state?

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  • MySQL on two ports using IPTables - self-access

    - by b0rman
    I trying to make MySQL available by 2 ports: 3306 and 3339 I added rule to iptables: iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -i bond0 -p tcp --dport 3339 -j REDIRECT --to-port 3306 and everythin is great for remote connections. But if I'm trying to connect it locally, I'm getting an error: mysql -u username -ppassword --port=3339 -h Host.Name ERROR 2003 (HY000): Can't connect to MySQL server on 'Host.Name' (111) Any ideas how can I edit iptables to get local access via 3339 port?

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  • Return a result in the original page.

    - by Josh
    When the user submit his data, I take him to a different page where plenty of calculations are made, then I redirect him to the original page with a simple : <?php header("Location:http://mysite.com/index.php"); The problem is I need all the variables and results to be show in this page, but they are obviously stored in the other one, so I need your help please :) ! Thank you for reading this !

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  • can't access to an extension method with UrlHelper parameter in controller! Vice versa in view have

    - by Sadegh
    why defined extension method with UrlHelper don't added in Url.EXTENSIONMETHOD when i want to use it in controller! but i have access to it in view? public static string Home(this UrlHelper helper) { return helper.RouteUrl("ABC", new { controller = "ABC", Action = "Default" }); } i haven't access: public ActionResult Default() { return Redirect(Url.Home()); } i have access in view: <a href="<%=Url.Home() %>" title="Hello">Hello</a>

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  • Disable action if textarea is empty

    - by mymlyn
    Could I somehow disable action (send, redirect) from submit if the textarea was empty (so nothing at all happens onclick). I want to avoid displaying error here, thats why I'm asking. My textarea: <textarea id="message" name="message" maxlength="35"></textarea> My submit button: <input id="send" type="image" src="/site_media/static/images/submit.png" value="Submit"> This is what i tried: http://jsfiddle.net/5Xwyb/ My brain died couple of hours ago.

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  • Correct use of a "for...in" loop in javascript?

    - by jnkrois
    Hello everybody, before I ask my question I wanted to let everybody know that I appreciate the fact that there's always somebody out there willing to help, and on my end I'll try to give back to the community as much as I can. Thanks Now, I would like to get some pointers as to how to properly take advantage of the "for...in" loop in JavaScript, I already did some research and tried a couple things but it is still not clear to me how to properly use it. Let's say I have a random number of "select" tags in an HTML form, and I don't require the user to select an option for all of them, they can leave some untouched if they want. However I need to know if they selected none or at least one. The way I'm trying to find out if the user selected any of them is by using the "for...in" loop. For example: var allSelected = $("select option:selected"); var totalSelected = $("select option:selected").length; The first variable produces an array of all the selected options. The second variable tells me how many selected options I have in the form (select tags could be more than one and it changes every time). Now, in order to see if any has been selected I loop through each element (selected option), and retrieve the "value" attribute. The default "option" tag has a value="0", so if any selected option returns a value greater than 0, I know at least one option has been selected, however it does not have to be in order, this is my loop so far: for(var i = 0; i < totalSelected; i++){ var eachOption = $(allSelected[i]).val(); var defaultValue = 0; if(eachOption == defaultValue){ ...redirect to another page }else if(eachOption > defaultValue){ ... I display an alert } } My problem here is that as soon as the "if" matches a 0 value, it sends the user to the next page without testing the rest of the elements in the array, and the user could have selected the second or third options. What I really want to do is check all the elements in the array and then take the next action, in my mind this is how I could do it, but I'm not getting it right: var randomValue = 25; for(randomValue in allSelected){ var found = true; var notFound = false if(found){ display an alert }else{ redirect to next page } } This loop or the logic I'm using are flawed (I'm pretty sure), what I want to do is test all the elements in the array against a single variable and take the next action accordingly. I hope this makes some sense to you guys, any help would be appreciated. Thanks, JC

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  • how to use alert in php and js combined

    - by user295189
    have a need to alert through php, I have the code below. Problem is that it works as long as I dont use header redirect. But as soon as I use it..I loose alert. echo "I will do some functions here in php"; if($value == 1){ alert('ok working'); } header(location: 'someOtherpagethanthis.php');

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  • Setting subdomains using htaccess

    - by milan
    Hi all I want to set a subdomain for all site users, like www.companyname.mydomain.com I would like to use htaccess for this. when somebody requests www.companyname.mydomain.com it should redirect to myfile.php?name=companyname How can I achieve this using an htaccess file ? Thanks for the consideration.

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  • HTACCESS Rewrite on directories

    - by Cameron
    I have the following code in my Root htaccess file RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^paperviewmagazine.com RewriteRule (.*) http://www.paperviewmagazine.com/$1 [R=301,L] It works fine for the main site, but for my forums at /forums/ if someone misses off the www it will show the page and not redirect to the www.paperviewmagazine.com/forums/ instead. I need to force the WWW to prevent anyone from logging in by accident on the non-www as it wont have the correct cookie credentials for accessing the site at www./forums/ Can anyone help? Thanks.

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  • Comparing two text files in python

    - by tazim
    Hi, I need to compare two files and redirect the different lines to third file. I know using diff command i can get the difference . But, is there any way of doing it in python ? Any sample code will be helpful

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  • Redirecting to login page

    - by Searock
    I have a download folder. So is it possible to redirect a user to a login page when he/she tries to download any of the files from the download folder. I have heard this can be achieved using .htaaccess, but I can't find a good tutorial. Thanks, Searock.

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  • Can I write a module/filter that gets fired before the web app get's run in Tomcat?

    - by Blankman
    Can I write a module/filter that gets put into the processing pipleline in Tomcat BEFORE the web application even gets run? Something that I could turn on/off for each web application that tomcat is handling. is this possible? So basically it would be a re-usable filter that hooks into the web pipeline that could alter the requests behavior or perform/modify the requests. One example would be to log all ip's, or redirect based on the url, block the request, etc.

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  • HTTP DOM: request.use? Usage?

    - by Jim G.
    I'm looking at the following code block in javascript: var request = new Request(); if(request.Use()) // What exactly does this do? { // ...do stuff } else { // no ajax support? } I've never seen anyone invoke the request.Use() method. My Question: What exactly does request.Use() check? Does it in fact check for AJAX support? Can anyone redirect me to an online API reference?

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