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  • How can I use a different id field for one of my CakePHP model associations?

    - by gacrux
    I have an one to many association in which a Thing can have many Statuses defined as below: Status Model: class Status extends AppModel { var $name = 'Status'; var $belongsTo = array( 'Thing' => array( 'className' => 'Thing', 'foreignKey' => 'thing_id', ); } Thing Model: class Thing extends AppModel { var $name = 'Thing'; var $belongsTo = array( // other associations ); var $hasMany = array( 'Status' => array( 'className' => 'Status', 'foreignKey' => 'thing_id', 'dependent' => false, 'order' => 'datetime DESC', 'limit' => '10', ), // other associations ); } This works OK, but I would like Thing to use a different id to connect to Status. E.g. Thing would use 'id' for all of it's other associations but use 'thing_status_id' for it's Status association. How can I best do this?

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  • Do you use Styrofoam balls to model your systems?

    - by Nick D
    [Objective-C] Do you still use Styrofoam balls to model your systems, where each ball represents a class? Tom Love: We do, actually. We've also done a 3D animation version of it, which we found to be nowhere near as useful as the Styrofoam balls. There's something about a physical, conspicuous structure hanging from the ceiling right in the middle of a development project that's regularly updated to provide not only the structure of the system that you're building, but also the current status of each one of the classes. We've done it on 19 projects the last time I've counted. One of them was 1,856 classes, which is big - actually, probably bigger than it should be. It was a big commercial project, so it needed to be somewhat big. Masterminds of Programming It is the first time I've read or heard about using styrofoam balls to model classes. Is that a commonly used technique? And, how does that sort of modeling help us to design better the system? If you have any photos to share which can show us how the classes are represented it'd be great!

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  • How do I make a grouped select box grouped by a column for a given model in Formtastic for Rails?

    - by jklina
    In my Rails project I'm using Formtastic to manage my forms. I have a model, Tags, with a column, "group". The group column is just a simple hardcoded way to organize my tags. I will post my Tag model class so you can see how it's organized class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base class Group BRAND = 1 SEASON = 2 OCCASION = 3 CONDITION = 4 SUBCATEGORY = 5 end has_many :taggings, :dependent => :destroy has_many :plaggs, :through => :taggings has_many :monitorings, :as => :monitorizable validates_presence_of :name, :group validates_uniqueness_of :name, :case_sensitive => false def self.brands(options = {}) self.all({ :conditions => { :group => Group::BRAND } }.merge(options)) end def self.seasons(options = {}) self.all({ :conditions => { :group => Group::SEASON } }.merge(options)) end def self.occasions(options = {}) self.all({ :conditions => { :group => Group::OCCASION } }.merge(options)) end def self.conditions(options = {}) self.all({ :conditions => { :group => Group::CONDITION } }.merge(options)) end def self.subcategories(options = {}) self.all({ :conditions => { :group => Group::SUBCATEGORY } }.merge(options)) end def self.non_brands(options = {}) self.all({ :conditions => [ "`group` != ? AND `group` != ?", Tag::Group::SUBCATEGORY, Tag::Group::BRAND] }.merge(options)) end end My goal is to use Formtastic to provide a grouped multiselect box, grouped by the column, "group" with the tags that are returned from the non_brands method. I have tried the following: = f.input :tags, :required => false, :as => :select, :input_html => { :multiple => true }, :collection => tags, :selected => sel_tags, :group_by => :group, :prompt => false But I receive the following error: (undefined method `klass' for nil:NilClass) Any ideas where I'm going wrong? Thanks for looking :]

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  • how to update div tag in javascript with data from model for onsubmit form asp.net mvc

    - by michael
    In my page i have a form tag which submits to server ,gets data and redirects to same page. problem is the the div tag which has the data from server is not getting updated. how to do that in javascript <% using (Html.BeginForm("Addfile", "uploadfile", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "uploadform", enctype = "multipart/form-data" })) { %> <input type="file" id="addedFile" name="addedFile" /><br /> <input type="submit" id="addfile" value="Addfile" /> <div id="MyGrid"> //data from the model(server side) filelist is not updating</div> what will be the form onsubmit javascript function to update the div tag with the data from the model. and my uploadfile controller get post methods are as [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult Upload() { return View(); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult AddFile(HttpPostedFileBase addedFile) { static List<string> fileList = new List<string>(); string filename = Path.GetFileName(addedFile.FileName); file.SaveAs(@"D:\Upload\" + filename); fileList.Add(filename); return("Upload",fileList); } thanks, michaela

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  • How to convert model into url properly in asp.net MVC?

    - by 4eburek
    From the SEO standpoint it is nice to see urls in format which explains what is located on a page Let's have a look on such situation (it is just example) We need to display page about some user and decided to have such url template for that page: /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin}. And create for this purpose such model public class UserUrlInfo{ public int UserId{get;set;} public string UserCountry{get;set;} public string UserLogin{get;set;} } I want to create controller method where I pass UserUrlInfo object but not all required fields. Classic controller method for url template shown above is following public ActionResult Index(int UserId, string UserCountry, string UserLogin){ return View(); } and we need to call it like that Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user.UserId, user.UserCountry, user.UserLogin), "See user page") I want to create such controller method public ActionResult Index(UserUrlInfo userInfo){ return View(); } and call it like that: Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user), "See user page") Actually I works when we add one more route and point it to the same controller method, so routing will be: /user/{userInfo} /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin} In this situation routing engine gets string method of our model (need to override it) and it works ALMOST always. But sometimes it fails and show url like /page/?userInfo=/US/John So my workaround does not always work properly. Does anybody know how to work with urls in such way?

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  • In Python, how can I find the index of the first item in a list that is NOT some value?

    - by Ryan B. Lynch
    Python's list type has an index(x) method. It takes a single parameter x, and returns the (integer) index of the first item in the list that has the value x. Basically, I need to invert the index(x) method. I need to get the index of the first value in a list that does NOT have the value x. I would probably be able to even just use a function that returns the index of the first item with a value != None. I can think of a 'for' loop implementation with an incrementing counter variable, but I feel like I'm missing something. Is there an existing method, or a one-line Python construction that can handle this? In my program, the situation comes up when I'm handling lists returned from complex regex matches. All but one item in each list have a value of None. If I just needed the matched string, I could use a list comprehension like '[x for x in [my_list] if x is not None]', but I need the index in order to figure out which capture group in my regex actually caused the match.

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  • Resizing a GLJPanel with JOGL causes my model to disappear.

    - by badcodenotreat
    I switched over to using a GLJPanel from a GLCanvas to avoid certain flickering issues, however this has created several unintended consequences of it's own. From what I've gleaned so far, GLJPanel calls GLEventListener.init() every time it's resized which either resets various openGL functions i've enabled in init() (depth test, lighting, etc...) if i'm lucky, or completely obliterates my model if i'm not. I've tried debugging it but I'm not able to correct this behavior. This is my init() function: gl.glShadeModel( GL.GL_SMOOTH ); gl.glEnable( GL.GL_DEPTH_TEST ); gl.glDepthFunc( GL.GL_LEQUAL ); gl.glDepthRange( zNear, zFar ); gl.glDisable( GL.GL_LINE_SMOOTH ); gl.glEnable(GL.GL_NORMALIZE); gl.glEnable( GL.GL_BLEND ); gl.glBlendFunc( GL.GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL.GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA ); // set up the background color gl.glClearColor( ((float)backColor.getRed () / 255.0f), ((float)backColor.getGreen() / 255.0f), ((float)backColor.getBlue () / 255.0f), 1.0f); gl.glEnable ( GL.GL_LIGHTING ); gl.glLightfv( GL.GL_LIGHT0, GL.GL_AMBIENT, Constants.AMBIENT_LIGHT, 0 ); gl.glLightfv( GL.GL_LIGHT0, GL.GL_DIFFUSE, Constants.DIFFUSE_LIGHT, 0 ); gl.glEnable ( GL.GL_LIGHT0 ); gl.glTexEnvf( GL.GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL.GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL.GL_MODULATE ); gl.glHint( GL.GL_PERSPECTIVE_CORRECTION_HINT, GL.GL_NICEST ); // code to generate model Is there any way around this other than removing everything from init(), adding it to my display() function? Given the behavior of init() and reshape() for GLJPanel, i'm not sure if that will fix it either.

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  • In a class with no virtual methods or superclass, is it safe to assume (address of first member vari

    - by Jeremy Friesner
    Hi all, I made a private API that assumes that the address of the first member-object in the class will be the same as the class's this-pointer... that way the member-object can trivially derive a pointer to the object that it is a member of, without having to store a pointer explicitly. Given that I am willing to make sure that the container class won't inherit from any superclass, won't have any virtual methods, and that the member-object that does this trick will be the first member object declared, will that assumption hold valid for any C++ compiler, or do I need to use the offsetof() operator (or similar) to guarantee correctness? To put it another way, the code below does what I expect under g++, but will it work everywhere? class MyContainer { public: MyContainer() {} ~MyContainer() {} // non-virtual dtor private: class MyContained { public: MyContained() {} ~MyContained() {} // Given that the only place Contained objects are declared is m_contained // (below), will this work as expected on any C++ compiler? MyContainer * GetPointerToMyContainer() { return reinterpret_cast<MyContainer *>(this); } }; MyContained m_contained; // MUST BE FIRST MEMBER ITEM DECLARED IN MyContainer int m_foo; // other member items may be declared after m_contained float m_bar; };

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  • WPF - How do I use the UserControl with a dependency property and view model?

    - by user320849
    Hello, My goal is to have a user select a year and a month. Translate the selection into a date and have the user control send the date back to my view model. That part works for me....However, I cannot get the ViewModel's initial date to set those drop downs. public static readonly DependencyProperty Date = DependencyProperty.Register("ReturnDate", typeof(DateTime), typeof(DatePicker), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata{BindsTwoWayByDefault = true,}); public DateTime ReturnDate { get { return Convert.ToDateTime(GetValue(Date)); } set { SetDropDowns(value); SetValue(Date, value); } } The SetDropDowns(value) just sets the selected items on the combo boxes, however, the program never makes it to that method. On the view I am using: <cc1:DatePicker ReturnDate="{Binding Path=StartDate, Mode=TwoWay}" IsStart="True" /> If this has been answered, then my bad. I looked around and didn't see anything that worked for me. Thus, when the program loads how do I get the value from the view model to a method in order to set the combo boxes? Thanks, -Scott

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  • Should my validator have access to my entire model?

    - by wb
    As the title states I'm wondering if it's a good idea for my validation class to have access to all properties from my model. Ideally, I would like to do that because some fields require 10+ other fields to verify whether it is valid or not. I could but would rather not have functions with 10+ parameters. Or would that make the model and validator too coupled with one another? Here is a little example of what I mean. This code however does not work because it give an infinite loop! Class User Private m_UserID Private m_Validator Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Property Let Validator(value) Set m_Validator = value m_Validator.Initialize(Me) End Property Public Property Get Validator() Validator = m_Validator End Property Public Property Let UserID(value) m_UserID = value End property Public Property Get UserID() UserID = m_Validator.IsUserIDValid() End property End Class Class Validator Private m_User Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Sub Initialize(value) Set m_User = value End Sub Public Function IsUserIDValid() IsUserIDValid = m_User.UserID > 13 End Function End Class Dim mike : Set mike = New User mike.UserID = 123456 mike.Validator = New Validator Response.Write mike.UserID If I'm right and it is a good idea, how can I go a head and fix the infinite loop with the get property UserID? Thank you.

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  • Is there a more elegant way to act on the first and last items in a foreach enumeration than count++

    - by Edward Tanguay
    Is there a more elegant way to act on the first and last items when iterating through a foreach loop than incrementing a separate counter and checking it each time? For instance, the following code outputs: >>> [line1], [line2], [line3], [line4] <<< which requires knowing when you are acting on the first and last item. Is there a more elegant way to do this now in C# 3 / C# 4? It seems like I could use .Last() or .First() or something like that. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; namespace TestForNext29343 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); List<string> lines = new List<string> { "line1", "line2", "line3", "line4" }; int index = 0; foreach (var line in lines) { if (index == 0) sb.Append(">>> "); sb.Append("[" + line + "]"); if (index < lines.Count - 1) sb.Append(", "); else sb.Append(" <<<"); index++; } Console.WriteLine(sb.ToString()); Console.ReadLine(); } } }

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  • SPSS - sum of squares change radically with slight model changes in ANOVA??

    - by Pat
    I have noticed that the sum of squares in my models can change fairly radically with even the slightest adjustment to my models???? Is this normal???? I'm using SPSS 16, and both models presented below used the same data and variables with only one small change - categorizing one of the variables as either a 2 level or 3 level variable. Details - using a 2 x 2 x 6 mixed model ANOVA with the 6 being the repeated measure i get the following in the between group analysis ------------------------------------------------------------ Source | Type III SS | df | MS | F | Sig ------------------------------------------------------------ intercept | 4086.46 | 1 | 4086.46 | 104.93 | .000 X | 224.61 | 1 | 224.61 | 5.77 | .019 Y | 2.60 | 1 | 2.60 | .07 | .80 X by Y | 19.25 | 1 | 19.25 | .49 | .49 Error | 2570.40 | 66 | 38.95 | Then, when I use the exact same data but a slightly different model in which variable Y has 3 levels instead of 2 levels I get the following ------------------------------------------------------------ Source | Type III SS | df | MS | F | Sig ------------------------------------------------------------ intercept | 3603.88 | 1 | 3603.88 | 90.89 | .000 X | 171.89 | 1 | 171.89 | 4.34 | .041 Y | 19.23 | 2 | 9.62 | .24 | .79 X by Y | 17.90 | 2 | 17.90 | .80 | .80 Error | 2537.76 | 64 | 39.65 | I don't understand why variable X would have a different sum of squares simply because variable Y gets devided up into 3 levels instead of 2. This is also the case in the within groups analysis too. Please help me understand :D Thank you in advance Pat

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  • Multiple XML/XSLT files in PHP, transform one with XSLT and add others but process it first with PHP

    - by ipalaus
    I am processing XML files transformations with XSLT in PHP correctly. Actually I use this code: $xml = new DOMDocument; $xml->LoadXML($xml_contents); $xsl = new DOMDocument; $xsl->load($xsl_file); $proc = new XSLTProcesoor; $proc->importStyleSheet($xsl); echo $proc->transformToXml($xml); $xml_contents is the XML processed with PHP, this is done by including the XML file first and then assigning $xml_contents = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean();. This forces to process the PHP code on the XML, and it works perfectly. My problem is that I use more than one XML file and this XML files has PHP code on it that need to be processed AND have a XSLT file associated to process the data. Actually I'm including this files in XSLT with the next code: <!-- First I add the XML file --> <xsl:param name="menu" select="document('menu.xml')" /> <!-- Next I add the transformations for menu.xml file --> <xsl:include href="menu.xsl" /> <!-- Finally, I process it on the actual ("parent") XML --> <xsl:apply-templates select="$menu/menu" /> My questiion is how I can handle this. I need to add mutiple XML(+XSLT) files to my first XML file that will containt PHP so it needs to be processed. Thank you in advance!

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  • Implimenting Zend MVC for my existing site-first step?

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, OK-newbie question here. I'll try not to bombard SO with lots of questions-and hopefully this first one will show me the method I'll need to follow for subsequent conversions. I have a web-based calendar system that I developed, but it was coded for me procedurally (using PHP). I'm now working on learning OO and wanting to integrate this site into my localhost Zend Framework and slowly start converting parts to OO and the Zend Framework MVC process in particular. As I've said before, I understand that this will be a slow process, and when I'm done, I still probably won't have anything as OO friendly as if I had rewritten it from scratch, but I'd like to use this as a learning experience. So, I have dropped the whole site into my localhose/zend/Public folder, and everything is showing up great and linking to the database, etc. My question is-what would be the easiest first component to switch over to the MVC model? This site has a bit of everything-forms, login, authentication, some jQuery, etc. Can anyone point to a tutorial that would address what I'm trying to do? If indeed, a form would be one of the simpler things to switch, can someone walk me through those changes? Another idea is changing over all the header info, etc? Thanks for any pointers on where to start! EDIT: Also, I understand that SO is mainly for specific coding questions-I'm happy to share specific code, once I have an idea about which section to tackle first...

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  • XSL(like) declarative language as MVC view over strongtyped model?

    - by Martin Kool
    As a huge XSL fan, I am very happy to use xsl as the view in our proprietary MVC framework on ASP.NET. Objects in the model are serialized under the hood using .NET's xml serializer, and we use quite atomic xsl templates to declare how each object or property should transform. For example: <xsl:template match="/Article"> <html> <body> <div class="article"> <xsl:apply-templates /> </div> </body> </html> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="Article/Title"> <h1> <xsl:apply-templates /> </h1> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="@*|text()"> <xsl:copy /> </xsl:template> This mechanism allows us to quickly override default matching templates, like having a template matching on the last item in a list, or the selected one, etc. Also, xsl extension objects in .NET allow us just the bit of extra grip that we need. Common shared templates can be split up and included. However Even though I can ignore the verbosity downside of xsl (because Visual Studio schema intellisense + snippets really is slick, praise to the VS-team), the downside of not having intellisense over strongtyped objects in the model is really something that's bugging me. I've seen ASP.NET MVC + user controls in action and really starting to love it, but I wonder; Is there a way of getting some sort of intellisense over XML that we're iterating over, or do you know of a language that offers the freedom and declarativeness of XSL but has the strongtype/intellisense benefits of say webforms/usercontrols/asp.net.mvc-view? (I probably know the answer: "no", and I'll find myself using Phil Haack's utterly cool mvc shizzle soon...)

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  • Can a second stored procedure doing the same thing finish before first one?

    - by evanmortland
    Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called 'CreatedAudit' as well. I call the CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") Right after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

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  • EF Code First, how can I achieve two foreign keys from one table to other table?

    - by Yoo Matsuo
    I've recently downloaded Entity Framework Code First CTP5, and have a trouble with this scenario. I have two tables as follows: Members table ID Name Comments table ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID And, the data should be like the following: Members ID Name 1 Mike 2 John 3 Tom Comments ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID 1 Good 1 2 2 Good 1 3 3 Bad 2 1 Then, I coded as shown below: public class Member { public int ID {get; set; } public string Name { get; set;} public virtual ICollection Comments { get; set;} } public class Comment { public int ID { get; set; } public string Comment { get; set; } public int CommentedMemberID { get; set; } public int CommentMemberID{ get; set; } public virtual Member CommentedMember { get; set; } public virtual Member CommentMember { get; set; } } public class TestContext : DbContext { public DbSet Members { get; set; } public DbSet Comments { get; set; } } But when I run these models on my cshtml, it gives me errors saying "Cannot create CommentMember instance" or something like that (Sorry, I already changed my models to proceed the EF Code First evaluation, so can't reproduce the same error). I've also tried to use OnModelCreating on the TestContext, but can't find any good instructions and don't know what to do. I saw a blog post of the EF Code First CTP3, and it seems there was a RelatedTo attribute in that version, but now it has gone. Could anyone know how to get it work properly? Or is this a totally wrong way to go with this scenario? Thanks, Yoo

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  • JMS message. Model to include data or pointers to data?

    - by John
    I am trying to resolve a design difference of opinion where neither of us has experience with JMS. We want to use JMS to communicate between a j2ee application and the stand-alone application when a new event occurs. We would be using a single point-to-point queue. Both sides are Java-based. The question is whether to send the event data itself in the JMS message body or to send a pointer to the data so that the stand-alone program can retrieve it. Details below. I have a j2ee application that supports data entry of new and updated persons and related events. The person records and associated events are written to an Oracle database. There are also stand-alone, separate programs that contribute new person and event records to the database. When a new event occurs through any of 5-10 different application functions, I need to notify remote systems through an outbound interface using an industry-specific standard messaging protocol. The outbound interface has been designed as a stand-alone application to support scalability through asynchronous operation and by moving it to a separate server. The j2ee application currently has most of the data in memory at the time the event is entered. The data would consist of approximately 6 different objects; a person object and some with multiple instances for an average size in the range of 3000 to 20,000 bytes. Some special cases could be many times this amount. From a performance and reliability perspective, should I model the JMS message to pass all the data needed to create the interface message, or model the JMS message to contain record keys for the data and have the stand-alone Java application retrieve the data to create the interface message?

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  • rails + paperclip: Is a generic "Attachment" model a good idea?

    - by egarcia
    On my application I've several things with attachments on them, using paperclip. Clients have one logo. Stores can have one or more pictures. These pictures, in addition, can have other information such as the date in which they were taken. Products can have one or more pictures of them, categorized (from the font, from the back, etc). For now, each one of my Models has its own "paperclip-fields" (Client has_attached_file) or has_many models that have attached files (Store has_many StorePictures, Product has_many ProductPictures) My client has also told me that in the future we might be adding more attachments to the system (i.e. pdf documents for the clients to download). My application has a rather complex authorization system implemented with declarative_authorization. One can not, for example, download pictures from a product he's not allowed to 'see'. I'm considering re-factoring my code so I can have a generic "Attachment" model. So any model can has_many :attachments. With this context, does it sound like a good idea? Or should I continue making Foos and FooPictures?

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  • EF code first error "The specified index already exists. [ IX_Id ]" for object tree

    - by PascalN
    Using EF code first 4.3 I'm trying to model an object tree with a required-required relationships and a required-optional relationships. Here is a simple representation of those classes public class Top { public int Id { get; set; } public virtual Middle Middle { get; set; } } public class Middle { public int Id { get; set; } public virtual Child Child { get; set; } } public class Child { public int Id { get; set; } } Here is the OnModelCreating code modelBuilder.Entity<Top>().HasRequired(t => t.Middle).WithRequiredPrincipal().WillCascadeOnDelete(); modelBuilder.Entity<Middle>().HasRequired(t => t.Child).WithOptional().WillCascadeOnDelete(); This produces the error "The specified index already exists. [ IX_Id ]" on SQLCE After checking the db schema, both model binder fluent API configuration lines create an index IX_Id on the table Middles. Does anyone know how to work around that problem? Is there a way to set the index name? Thank you! Pascal

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  • Rails - HABTM Relationship -- How Can I Find A Record Based On An Attribute Of The Associated Model

    - by ChrisWesAllen
    I have setup this HABTM relationship in the past and its worked before....Now it isnt and I'm at my wits end trying to figure out whats wrong. I've looking through the rails guides all day and cant seem to figure out what I'm doing wrong, so help would really be appreciated. I have 2 models connected through a join model and I'm trying to find records based an attribute of the associated model. Event.rb has_and_belongs_to_many :interests Interest.rb has_and_belongs_to_many :events and a join table migration that was created like create_table 'events_interests', :id => false do |t| t.column :event_id, :integer t.column :interest_id, :integer end I tried @events = Event.all(:include => :interest, :conditions => [" interest.id = ?", 4 ] ) But got the error "Association named 'interest' was not found; perhaps you misspelled it?"... which I didnt of course I tried @events = Event.interests.find(:all, :conditions => [" interest.id = ?", 4 ] ) but got the error "undefined method `interests' for #Class:0x4383348" How can I find the Events that have an interest id of 4....I'm definitely going bald from this lol

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  • Why not open a PDF file in the browser but first save it to the harddisk?

    - by Lernkurve
    Question Is it correct that saving a PDF to the harddisk first, and then opening it from there with some PDF reader (not the browser) is safer than opening it directly with the browser plugin? My current understanding I know that the PDF browser plugin might have a security leak and a manipulated PDF file might exploit it and get access to the user's computer. I recently heard that saving the PDF file frist and opening it then was safer. I don't understand why that should be safer. Can anyone explain? My logic would suggest that a manipulated file started from the harddisk can just as well exploit a security leak, say for instance, of Adobe Acrobat Reader.

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  • At what year in history was computers first used to store porn? [closed]

    - by Emil H
    Of course this sounds like a joke question, but it's meant seriously. I remember being told by an old system administrator back in the early nineties about people asking about good FTPs for porn, and that they would as a joke always tell them to connect to 127.0.0.1. They would come back saying that there was a lot of porn at that address, but that oddly enough it seemed like they already had it all. Point being, it seems like it's been around for quite a while. Anyway. Considering that a considerable portion of the internet is devoted to porn these days, it would be interesting to know if someone has any kind of idea as to when and where the phenomena first arose? There must be some mention of this in old hacker folk lore? (Changed to CW to emphasize that this isn't about rep, but about genuine curiousity. :)

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  • How to enable extension when running Firefox for the first time?

    - by spektom
    I need to run Firefox each time in a new profile directory with my extension enabled. What I do is the following: Create temporary directory for storing profile (/tmp/profile.123) Create extensions directory (/tmp/profile.123/extensions) Create extension proxy as described here (/tmp/profile.123/extensions/[email protected]) My command line looks like this: firefox -no-remote -profile /tmp/profile.123 -url http://www.google.com The problem is that my extension starts disabled, and I'm forced to enable it manually and restart the Firefox. Is it possible to make it start enabled in first place? Thanks! Workaround I've found: Create extensions.sqlite database file in the newly created profile folder. This file must contain my extension entry under the "addon" table.

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  • Two-page view in Word, shouldn't the first page be on the right?

    - by Cylindric
    Greetings Superusers, I'm putting together a lengthy document in Word, and it's going to be printed and bound duplex. I've put page-numbers "outside" etc, and all is pretty. The problem is, in the "Two Pages" view, it puts p1 on the left, then p2 on the right, then p3 below on the left, and p4 on the right. p1 p2 p3 p4 p5 p6 Shouldn't this be slightly different though? When I get to print it, p1 is on the right, not the left, so the preview should go p1 p2 p3 p4 p5 p6 Because when I "open" the book, it's pages 2 and 3 that are side-by-side. This makes layout tweaking confusing, because it's not instantly obvious which pages will be "visible" to the reader at the same time together. Have I missed something? I can't just put a blank page first, because that would bugger up the printing, as the printer automatically duplexes and binds etc. (Office 2008, by the way)

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