Search Results

Search found 5501 results on 221 pages for 'receive'.

Page 187/221 | < Previous Page | 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194  | Next Page >

• Should I base my Embedded Linux product on Qt?

  - by Udi

  My company is developing a medical product. One of the components is a pda-like platform that will run embedded linux. We were considering Qt as the UI framework but found out that Qt is a lot more than that (we are not familiar with Qt). In general, the device needs to do the following: 1. Receive measurements over USB HID from another device (USB HID is used for convenience). 2. Process the measurements. 3. Store them in a database. 4. Interact with the user using the device's touch screen lcd. 5. Communicate (wi-fi, tcp-ip) with a central management station that collects the data and configures the device. 6. Include a web server to allow accessing the device via a browser. We intend to program in C++. My questions are: 1. Is that a good choice for such a device? 2. Assuming we choose Qt, how do we build our product? - Do we use Qt just as a GUI framework and write the application code in a separate process (passing messages between Qt and the application process)? - Do we write the entire application inside Qt, using all of the services the tool has to offer? - Another approach?

  Read the article

• Java, Massive message processing with queue manager (trading)

  - by Ronny

  Hello, I would like to design a simple application (without j2ee and jms) that can process massive amount of messages (like in trading systems) I have created a service that can receive messages and place them in a queue to so that the system won't stuck when overloaded. Then I created a service (QueueService) that wraps the queue and has a pop method that pops out a message from the queue and if there is no messages returns null, this method is marked as "synchronized" for the next step. I have created a class that knows how process the message (MessageHandler) and another class that can "listen" for messages in a new thread (MessageListener). The thread has a "while(true)" and all the time tries to pop a message. If a message was returned, the thread calls the MessageHandler class and when it's done, he will ask for another message. Now, I have configured the application to open 10 MessageListener to allow multi message processing. I have now 10 threads that all time are in a loop. Is that a good design?? Can anyone reference me to some books or sites how to handle such scenario?? Thanks, Ronny

  Read the article

• iOS: display modal view over the top of a UIWebView

  - by Sly

  Is it possible to display a modal view over the top of a UIWebView? I have a UIViewController that loads a WebView. I then want to push a Modal View Controller over the top so that a modal view covers up the WebView temporarily... The WebView is working fine; here's how it's loaded in the View Controller: - (void)loadView { // Initialize webview and add as a subview to LandscapeController's view myWebView = [[[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]] autorelease]; myWebView.scalesPageToFit = YES; myWebView.autoresizesSubviews = YES; myWebView.autoresizingMask = (UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight); myWebView.delegate = self; self.view = myWebView; } If I attempt to load a Modal View controller from within viewDidLoad, however, no modal view appears: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Edit dcftable.html with updated figures NSMutableString *updated_html = [self _updateHTML:@"dcftable"]; // Load altered HTML file as an NSURL request [self.myWebView loadHTMLString:updated_html baseURL:nil]; // If user hasn't paid for dcftable, then invoke the covering modal view if (some_condition) { LandscapeCoverController *landscapeCoverController = [[[LandscapeCoverController alloc] init] autorelease ]; [self presentModalViewController:landscapeCoverController animated:YES]; } } I suspect that there's something that needs to be done with the UIWebView delegate to get it to receive the new modal view...but can't find any discussion or examples of this anywhere...again, the objective is to invoke a modal view that covers over the top of the WebView. Thanks for any thoughts in advance!

  Read the article

• RPC command to initiate a software install

  - by ericmayo

  I was recently working with a product from Symantech called Norton EndPoint protection. It consists of a server console application and a deployment application and I would like to incorporate their deployment method into a future version of one of my products. The deployment application allows you to select computer workstations running Win2K, WinXP, or Win7. The selection of workstations is provided from either AD (Active Directory) or NT Domain (WINs/DNS NetBIOS lookup). From the list, one can click and choose which workstations to deploy the end point software which is Symantech's virus & spyware protection suite. Then, after selecting which workstations should receive the package, the software copies the setup.exe program to each workstation (presumable over the administrative share \pcname\c$) and then commands the workstation to execute setup.exe resulting in the workstation installing the software. I really like how their product works but not sure what they are doing to accomplish all the steps. I've not done any deep investigations into this such as sniffing the network, etc... and wanted to check here to see if anyone is familiar with what I'm talking about and if you know how it's accomplished or have ideas how it could be accomplished. My thinking is that they are using the admin share to copy the software to the selected workstations and then issuing an RPC call to command the workstation to do the install. What's interesting is that the workstations do this without any of the logged in users knowing what's going on until the very end where a reboot is necessary. At which point, the user gets a pop-up asking to reboot now or later, etc... My hunch is that the setup.exe program is popping this message. To the point: I'm looking to find out the mechanism by which one Windows based machine can tell another to do some action or run some program. My programming language is C/C++ Any thoughts/suggestions appreciated.

  Read the article

• S3 file Uploading from Mac app though PHP?

  - by Ilija Tovilo

  I have asked this question before, but it was deleted due too little information. I'll try to be more concrete this time. I have an Objective-C mac application, which should allow users to upload files to S3-storage. The s3 storage is mine, the users don't have an Amazon account. Until now, the files were uploaded directly to the amazon servers. After thinking some more about it, it wasn't really a great concept, regarding security and flexibility. I want to add a server in between. The user should authenticate with my server, the server would open a session if the authentication was successful, and the file-sharing could begin. Now my question. I want to upload the files to S3. One option would be to make a POST-request and wait until the server would receive the file. Problems here are, that there would be a delay, when the file is being uploaded from my server to the S3 servers, and it would double the uploading time. Best would be, if I could validate the request, and then redirecting it, so the client uploads it directly to the s3-storage. Not sure if this is possible somehow. Uploading directly to S3 doesn't seem to be very smart. After looking into other apps like Droplr and Dropmark, it looks like they don't do this. Btw. I did this using Little Snitch. They have their api on their own web-server, and that's it. Could someone clear things up for me? EDIT How should I transmit my files to S3? Is there a way to "forward" it, or do I have to upload it to my server and then upload it from there to S3? Like I said, other apps can do this efficiently and without the need of communicating with S3 directly.

  Read the article

• What library can I use to do simple, lightweight message passing?

  - by Mike

  I will be starting a project which requires communication between distributed nodes(the project is in C++). I need a lightweight message passing library to pass very simple messages(basically just strings of text) between nodes. The library must have the following characteristics: No external setup required. I need to be able to get everything up-and-running in my code - I don't want to require the user to install any packages or edit any configuration files(other than a list of IP addresses and ports to connect to). The underlying protocol which the library uses must be TCP(or if it is UDP, the library must guarantee the eventual receipt of the message). The library must be able to send and receive arbitrarily large strings(think up to 3GB+). The library needn't support any security mechanisms, fault tolerance, or encryption - I just need it to be fast, simple, and easy to use. I've considered MPI, but concluded it would require too much setup on the user's machine for my project. What library would you recommend for such a project? I would roll my own, but due to time constraints, I don't think that will be feasible.

  Read the article

• Submit a form and get a JSON response with jQuery

  - by Leopd

  I expect this is easy, but I'm not finding a simple explanation anywhere of how to do this. I have a standard HTML form like this: <form name="new_post" action="process_form.json" method=POST> <label>Title:</label> <input id="post_title" name="post.title" type="text" /><br/> <label>Name:</label><br/> <input id="post_name" name="post.name" type="text" /><br/> <label>Content:</label><br/> <textarea cols="40" id="post_content" name="post.content" rows="20"></textarea> <input id="new_post_submit" type="submit" value="Create" /> </form> I'd like to have javascript (using jQuery) submit the form to the form's action (process_form.json), and receive a JSON response from the server. Then I'll have a javascript function that runs in response to the JSON response, like function form_success(json) { alert('Your form submission worked'); // process json response } How do I wire up the form submit button to call my form_success method when done? Also it should override the browser's own navigation, since I don't want to leave the page. Or should I move the button out of the form to do that?

  Read the article

• iphone viewWillAppear not firing

  - by chzk

  I've read numerous posts about people having problems with viewWillAppear when you do not create your view heirarchy JUST right. My problem is I can't figure out what that means. If I create a RootViewController and call addSubView on that controller, I would expect the added view(s) to be wired up for viewWillAppear events. Does anyone have an example of a complex programmatic view heirarchy that successfully recieves viewWillAppear events at every level? Apple Docs state: Warning: If the view belonging to a view controller is added to a view hierarchy directly, the view controller will not receive this message. If you insert or add a view to the view hierarchy, and it has a view controller, you should send the associated view controller this message directly. Failing to send the view controller this message will prevent any associated animation from being displayed. The problem is that they don't describe how to do this. What the hell does "directly" mean. How do you "indirectly" add a view. I am fairly new to Cocoa and iPhone so it would be nice if there were useful examples from Apple besides the basic Hello World crap. Any help is greatly appreciated...

  Read the article

• How do you handle the tension between refactoring and the need for merging?

  - by Xavier Nodet

  Hi, Our policy when delivering a new version is to create a branch in our VCS and handle it to our QA team. When the latter gives the green light, we tag and release our product. The branch is kept to receive (only) bug fixes so that we can create technical releases. Those bug fixes are subsequently merged on the trunk. During this time, the trunk sees the main development work, and is potentially subject to refactoring changes. The issue is that there is a tension between the need to have a stable trunk (so that the merge of bug fixes succeed -- it usually can't if the code has been e.g. extracted to another method, or moved to another class) and the need to refactor it when introducing new features. The policy in our place is to not do any refactoring before enough time has passed and the branch is stable enough. When this is the case, one can start doing refactoring changes on the trunk, and bug-fixes are to be manually committed on both the trunk and the branch. But this means that developpers must wait quite some time before committing on the trunk any refactoring change, because this could break the subsequent merge from the branch to the trunk. And having to manually port bugs from the branch to the trunk is painful. It seems to me that this hampers development... How do you handle this tension? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Error in bisection method code in Matlab

  - by Amanda Collins

  I need to write a proper implementation of the bisection method, which means I must address all possible user input errors. Here is my code: function [x_sol, f_at_x_sol, N_iterations] = bisection(f, xn, xp, eps_f, eps_x) % solving f(x)=0 with bisection method % f is the function handle to the desired function, % xn and xp are borders of search, % f(xn)<0 and f(xp)>0 required, % eps_f defines how close f(x) should be to zero, % eps_x defines uncertainty of solution x if(f(xp) < 0) error('xp must be positive') end; if(f(xn)>0) error('xn must be negative') end; if (xn >= xp) error ('xn must be less than xp') end; xg=(xp+xn)/2; %initial guess fg=f(xg); % initial function evaluation N_iterations=1; while ( (abs(fg) > eps_f) & (abs(xg-xp) > eps_x) ) if (fg>0) xp=xg; else xn=xg; end xg=(xp+xn)/2; %update guess fg=f(xg); %update function evaluation N_iterations=N_iterations+1; end x_sol=xg; %solution is ready f_at_x_sol=fg; if (f_at_x_sol > eps_f) error('No convergence') end and here is the error message I receive when I try to test this in Matlab: >> bisection(x.^2, 2, -1, 1e-8, 1e-10) Attempted to access f(-1); index must be a positive integer or logical. Error in bisection (line 9) if(f(xp)<0) I was attempting to see if my error codes worked, but it doesn't look like they do. I get the same error when I try to test it on a function that should work.

  Read the article

• summing functions handles in matlab

  - by user552231

  Hi I am trying to sum two function handles, but it doesn't work. for example: y1=@(x)(x*x); y2=@(x)(x*x+3*x); y3=y1+y2 The error I receive is "??? Undefined function or method 'plus' for input arguments of type 'function_handle'." This is just a small example, in reality I actually need to iteratively sum about 500 functions that are dependent on each other. EDIT The solution by Clement J. indeed works but I couldn't manage to generalize this into a loop and ran into a problem. I have the function s=@(x,y,z)((1-exp(-x*y)-z)*exp(-x*y)); And I have a vector v that contains 536 data points and another vector w that also contains 536 data points. My goal is to sum up s(v(i),y,w(i)) for i=1...536 Thus getting one function in the variable y which is the sum of 536 functions. The syntax I tried in order to do this is: sum=@(y)(s(v(1),y,z2(1))); for i=2:536 sum=@(y)(sum+s(v(i),y,z2(i))) end

  Read the article

• DBD::CSV: Problem with userdefined functions

  - by sid_com

  From the SQL::Statement::Functions documentation: Creating User-Defined Functions ... More complex functions can make use of a number of arguments always passed to functions automatically. Functions always receive these values in @_: sub FOO { my( $self, $sth, $rowhash, @params ); } #!/usr/bin/env perl use 5.012; use warnings; use strict; use DBI; my $dbh = DBI->connect( "DBI:CSV:", undef, undef, { RaiseError => 1, } ); my $table = 'wages'; my $array_ref = [ [ 'id', 'number' ], [ 0, 6900 ], [ 1, 3200 ], [ 2, 1800 ], ]; $dbh->do( "CREATE TEMP TABLE $table AS import( ? )", {}, $array_ref ); sub routine { my $self = shift; my $sth = shift; my $rowhash = shift; # return $_[0] / 30; }; $dbh->do( "CREATE FUNCTION routine" ); my $sth = $dbh->prepare( "SELECT id, routine( number ) AS result FROM $table" ); $sth->execute(); $sth->dump_results(); When I try this I get an error-message: DBD::CSV::st execute failed: Use of uninitialized value $_[0] in division (/) at ./so.pl line 27. [for Statement "SELECT id, routine( number ) AS result FROM "wages""] at ./so.pl line 34. When I comment out the third argument I works as expected ( because it looks as if the third argument is missing ): #!/usr/bin/env perl ... sub routine { my $self = shift; my $sth = shift; #my $rowhash = shift; return $_[0] / 30; }; ... 0, 230 1, 106.667 2, 60 3 rows Is this a bug?

  Read the article

• odp.net SQL query retrieve set of rows from two input arrays.

  - by Karl Trumstedt

  I have a table with a primary key consisting of two columns. I want to retrieve a set of rows based on two input arrays, each corresponding to one primary key column. select pkt1.id, pkt1.id2, ... from PrimaryKeyTable pkt1, table(:1) t1, table(:2) t2 where pkt1.id = t1.column_value and pkt1.id2 = t2.column_value I then bind the values with two int[] in odp.net. This returns all different combinations of my resulting rows. So if I am expecting 13 rows I receive 169 rows (13*13). The problem is that each value in t1 and t2 should be linked. Value t1[4] should be used with t2[4] and not all the different values in t2. Using distinct solves my problem, but I'm wondering if my approach is wrong. Anyone have any pointers on how to solve this the best way? One way might be to use a for-loop accessing each index in t1 and t2 sequentially, but I wonder what will be more efficient. Edit: actually distinct won't solve my problem, it just did it based on my input-values (all values in t2 = 0)

  Read the article

• Client Side Only Cookies

  - by Mike Jones

  I need something like a cookie, but I specifically don't want it going back to the server. I call it a "client side session cookie" but any reasonable mechanism would be great. Basically, I want to store some data encrypted on the server, and have the user type a password into the browser. The browser decrypts the data with the password (or creates and encrypts the data with the password) and the server stores only encrypted data. To keep the data secure on the server, the server should not store and should never receive the password. Ideally there should be a cookie session expiration to clean up. Of course I need it be available on multiple pages as the user walks through the web site. The best I can come up with is some sort of iframe mechanism to store the data in javascript variables, but that is ugly. Does anyone have any ideas how to implement something like this? FWIW, the platform is ASP.NET, but I don't suppose that matters. It needs to support a broad range of browsers, including mobile. In response to one answer below, let me clarify. My question is not how to achieve the crypto, that isn't a problem. The question is where to store the password so that it is persistent from page to page, but not beyond a session, and in such a way that the server doesn't see it.

  Read the article

• Refreshing a MKMapView when the user location is updated or using default values

  - by koichirose

  I'm trying to refresh my map view and load new data from the server when the device acquires the user location. Here's what I'm doing: - (void)viewDidLoad { CGRect bounds = self.view.bounds; mapView = [[MKMapView alloc] initWithFrame:bounds]; mapView.showsUserLocation=YES; mapView.delegate=self; [self.view insertSubview:mapView atIndex:0]; [self refreshMap]; } - (void)mapView:(MKMapView *)theMapView didUpdateUserLocation:(MKUserLocation *)userLocation { //this is to avoid frequent updates, I just need one position and don't need to continuously track the user's location if (userLocation.location.horizontalAccuracy > self.myUserLocation.location.horizontalAccuracy) { self.myUserLocation = userLocation; CLLocationCoordinate2D centerCoord = { userLocation.location.coordinate.latitude, userLocation.location.coordinate.longitude }; [theMapView setCenterCoordinate:centerCoord zoomLevel:10 animated:YES]; [self refreshMap]; } } - (void)refreshMap { [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setNetworkActivityIndicatorVisible:YES]; [self.mapView removeAnnotations:self.mapView.annotations]; //default position NSString *lat = @"45.464161"; NSString *lon = @"9.190336"; if (self.myUserLocation != nil) { lat = [[NSNumber numberWithDouble:myUserLocation.coordinate.latitude] stringValue]; lon = [[NSNumber numberWithDouble:myUserLocation.coordinate.longitude] stringValue]; } NSString *url = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"http://myserver/geo_search.json?lat=%@&lon=%@", lat, lon]; NSURLRequest *theRequest=[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:url] cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:60.0]; [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; [url release]; [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setNetworkActivityIndicatorVisible:NO]; } I also have a - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data, to create and add the annotations. Here's what happens: sometimes I get the location after a while, so I already loaded data close to the default location. Then I get the location and it should remove the old annotations and add the new ones, instead I keep seeing the old annotations and the new ones are added anyway (let's say I receive 10 annotations each time, so it means that I have 20 on my map when I should have 10). What am I doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Setting Session/Cookie via ajax request made on other website

  - by user596805

  Hi, That's my problem: I have an website, example.com, in which index.html file a introduced a <script src="website.net/js.js"></script> You can see, that this is on other web server. In the js.js I have some data that I want to send to php. For that, I am using Ajax. So, I made a request to "website.net/data.php" using method get. In data.php file everything is ok,I received the value, but I want to set a cookie which value is what I received through ajax. Here is the problem. The setcookie function says that the cookie was set, but when I check in the browser, there's no cookie! It works fine if the index.html file where I use <script src="website.net/js.js"></script> is hosted on the same domain where I am making the request. If it is on another domain, it doesn't work anymore. I have read something about Ajax cross site, but I don't want to send something back to example.com. All I want is to send some data from example.com to website.net and then setting a cookie based on that value. Thank you very much, and sorry for my English! Later edit: I am not used with this website. From the example.net I take a single value. On website.net I receive that value, I check if it's not already a cookie set, if it's not, I set it. On the same page, website.net, I use this cookie too.

  Read the article

• Java Out of memory - Out of heap size

  - by user1907849

  I downloaded the sample program , for file transfer between the client and server. When I try running the program with 1 GB file , I get the Exception in thread "main" java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space at Client.main(Client.java:31). Edit: Line no 31: byte [] mybytearray = new byte [FILE_SIZE]; public final static int FILE_SIZE = 1097742336; // receive file long startTime = System.nanoTime(); byte [] mybytearray = new byte [FILE_SIZE]; InputStream is = sock.getInputStream(); fos = new FileOutputStream(FILE_TO_RECEIVED); bos = new BufferedOutputStream(fos); bytesRead = is.read(mybytearray,0,mybytearray.length); current = bytesRead; do { bytesRead = is.read(mybytearray, current, (mybytearray.length-current)); if(bytesRead >= 0) current += bytesRead; } while(bytesRead > -1); bos.write(mybytearray, 0 , current); bos.flush(); Is there any fix for this?

  Read the article

• facebook Hacker cup: studious Student problem.

  - by smartmuki

  During the qualification round, the following question was asked: You've been given a list of words to study and memorize. Being a diligent student of language and the arts, you've decided to not study them at all and instead make up pointless games based on them. One game you've come up with is to see how you can concatenate the words to generate the lexicographically lowest possible string. Input As input for playing this game you will receive a text file containing an integer N, the number of word sets you need to play your game against. This will be followed by N word sets, each starting with an integer M, the number of words in the set, followed by M words. All tokens in the input will be separated by some whitespace and, aside from N and M, will consist entirely of lowercase letters. Output Your submission should contain the lexicographically shortest strings for each corresponding word set, one per line and in order. Constraints 1 <= N <= 100 1 <= M <= 9 1 <= all word lengths <= 10 Example input 5 6 facebook hacker cup for studious students 5 k duz q rc lvraw 5 mybea zdr yubx xe dyroiy 5 jibw ji jp bw jibw 5 uiuy hopji li j dcyi Example output cupfacebookforhackerstudentsstudious duzklvrawqrc dyroiymybeaxeyubxzdr bwjibwjibwjijp dcyihopjijliuiuy The program I wrote goes as: chomp($numberElements=<STDIN>); for(my $i=0; $i < $numberElements; $i++) { my $string; chomp ($string = <STDIN>); my @array=split(/\s+/,$string); my $number=shift @array; @sorted=sort @array; $sortedStr=join("",@sorted); push(@data,$sortedStr); } foreach (@data) { print "$_\n"; } The program gives the correct output for the given test cases but still facebook shows it to be incorrect. Is there something wrong with the program??

  Read the article

• FluentNHibernate error -- "Invalid object name"

  - by goober

  I'm attempting to do the most simple of mappings with FluentNHibernate & Sql2005. Basically, I have a database table called "sv_Categories". I'd like to add a category, setting the ID automatically, and adding the userid and title supplied. Database table layout: CategoryID -- int -- not-null, primary key, auto-incrementing UserID -- uniqueidentifier -- not null Title -- varchar(50) -- not null Simple. My SessionFactory code (which works, as far as I can tell): _SessionFactory = Fluently.Configure().Database( MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2005 .ConnectionString(c => c.FromConnectionStringWithKey("SVTest"))) .Mappings(x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<CategoryMap>()) .BuildSessionFactory(); My ClassMap code: public class CategoryMap : ClassMap<Category> { public CategoryMap() { Id(x => x.ID).Column("CategoryID").Unique(); Map(x => x.Title).Column("Title").Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.UserID).Column("UserID").Not.Nullable(); } } My Class code: public class Category { public virtual int ID { get; private set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual Guid UserID { get; set; } public Category() { // do nothing } } And the page where I save the object: public void Add(Category catToAdd) { using (ISession session = SessionProvider.GetSession()) { using (ITransaction Transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { session.Save(catToAdd); Transaction.Commit(); } } } I receive the error Invalid object name 'Category'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Invalid object name 'Category'. I think it might be that I haven't told the CategoryMap class to use the "sv_Categories" table, but I'm not sure how to do that. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

• ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

  - by user251660

  We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

  Read the article

• Rails Heroku Gemfile.lock error - push rejected (open source)

  - by KJ50

  I am trying to push my open source RoR application to Heroku but I'm having an issue making the initial push. I have read many similar questions, but none of those answers has helped to solve my problem. I have tried bundle update and bundle install various times. I also have tried removing and then re-committing my Gemfile.lock file, however I get this same error still... $ git push heroku master Counting objects: 5199, done. Compressing objects: 100% (3086/3086), done. Writing objects: 100% (5199/5199), 4.57 MiB | 131 KiB/s, done. Total 5199 (delta 3418), reused 3152 (delta 1962) -----> Removing .DS_Store files -----> Ruby app detected -----> Compiling Ruby/NoLockfile ! ! Gemfile.lock required. Please check it in. ! ! Push rejected, failed to compile Ruby app To [email protected]:frozen-springs-4725.git ! [remote rejected] master -> master (pre-receive hook declined) error: failed to push some refs to '[email protected]:frozen-springs-4725.git' Since my application uses MongoDB with MongoMapper, I suspect that I have some configuration incorrect. My code can be found here on Github (I'm currently working on the heroku branch). Feel free to clone our repository and try it yourself. If anyone has any insight which could help me resolve this issue I would be very thankful!

  Read the article

• Ruby On Rails - Contact form not sending email via localhost

  - by anonymousxxx

  similar problem Rails contact form not working guides: https://github.com/thomasklemm/email_form_rails rails 3.2.x app\models\message.rb class Message include ActiveAttr::Model include ActiveModel::Validations attribute :name attribute :email attribute :subject attribute :body attr_accessible :name, :email, :subject, :body validates_presence_of :name validates_presence_of :email validates :email, email_format: { message: "is not looking like a valid email address"} validates_presence_of :subject validates_length_of :body, maximum: 500 end app\mailers\contact_form.rb class ContactForm < ActionMailer::Base default from: "[email protected]" default to: "[email protected]" def email_form(message) @message = message mail subject: "#{message.subject} #{message.name}" mail body: "#{message.body}" end end development.rb config.action_mailer.delivery_method = :smtp config.action_mailer.perform_deliveries = true config.action_mailer.smtp_settings = { :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domain => "mydomain.com", :user_name => "[email protected]", :password => "mypassword", :authentication => :plain, :enable_starttls_auto => true } config.action_mailer.default_url_options = { :host => "localhost:3000" } output in command Started POST "/email" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-09-04 22:10:40 +0700 Processing by HomeController#send_email_form as HTML Parameters: {"utf8"="v", "authenticity_token"="w39BLqCrjTMm4RRi/Sm5hZoEpcw46 npyRy/RS0h48x0=", "message"={"name"="anonymousxxx", "email"="[email protected]", "subject"="Test", "body"="send email"}, "commit"="Create Message"} Redirected to localhost:3000/home/contact Completed 302 Found in 1ms (ActiveRecord: 0.0ms) but email (message) no receive my email,..

  Read the article

• Android: Associating Browser to File Type in App

  - by tekmunki

  I'm attempting to write a simple app that associates a file type to the browser; this is assuming the browser will open the file locally... If this doesn't work, the local file - editor will be fine. I have an option of auto-mailing .ELC files from a custom app, they are basically html formatted TEXT or TXT only files; I would like to associate the .elc extension so that it will open direct from mail rather than just "Save to SD Card" as a mail option. Here's the code I'm at right now; AndroidManifest.xml: ELCViewer.java: package com.tekmunki.ELCViewer; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.TextView; public class ELCViewer extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); TextView tv = new TextView(this); tv.setText("ELC Viewer Installed! Now, when you receive the ELC files, they will open in the browser."); setContentView(tv); } } 1) How do I make the browser associated with the ELCViewer Activity? (Do I need to make a second activity, or can that all be done in the manifest?) 2) How do I make it persist after the app has been ran once?

  Read the article

• Behavior of Struts2 and convention-plugin when there is Index(extends ActionSupport)

  - by hanishi

  We have an Action class named 'Index' immediately under com.example.common.action and is annotated @ParentPackage('default') which is declared in package directive in struts.xml and has "/" for its namespace and extends "struts-default". It also declares @Result so that it responses with jsp files corresponding the string values returned by its execute() method. In our struts.xml, the following struts setting is configured along with other necessary configurations that are needed for convention-plugin. <constant name="struts.action.extension" value=","/> When accessing /my_context/none_existing_path, the request apparently hits this Index class and the contents of the jsp declared in the Index's @Result section gets returned. However, if we provide /my_context/, we receive the following error: HTTP Status 404-There is no Action mapped for namespace[/] and action name [] associated with context path [/my_context]. We want to know the reason why accessing /my_context/none_existing_path, where none_existing_path has no matching action, can fallback to Index class, but error is returned when when the URL requested is just /my_context/. Currently, our convention-plugin settings are declared as follows: <constant name="struts.convention.package.locators.basePackage" value="com.example"/> <constant name="struts.convention.package.locators" value="action"/> Strangely, if we changed the value of the struts.convention.package.locators.basePackage to om.example.common, in which the aforementioned Index file can be immediately found by narrowing the search scope, requesting /my_context/ displays the content of the jsps declared in @Result section of the Index class. However, as our action classes are distributed throughout the com.example.[a-z].action packages, where [a-z] represents the large volume of directories we have in our package structure, we cannot use this trick as a workaround. We have also tried placing index.jsp at the top level of the class path, and have the index.jsp redirect to /my_context/index, which worked but not what we want. Could this be a bug? We appreciate your responses. Thank you in advance. EDIT: JIRA registered, problem solved (from Struts 2.3.12 up)

  Read the article

• How to use StructureMap to inject repository classes to the controller?

  - by Lorenzo

  In the current application I am working on I have a custom ControllerFactory class that create a controller and automatically sets the Elmah ErrorHandler. public class BaseControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { public override IController CreateController( RequestContext requestContext, string controllerName ) { var controller = base.CreateController( requestContext, controllerName ); var c = controller as Controller; if ( c != null ) { c.ActionInvoker = new ErrorHandlingActionInvoker( new HandleErrorWithElmahAttribute() ); } return controller; } protected override IController GetControllerInstance( RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType ) { try { if ( ( requestContext == null ) || ( controllerType == null ) ) return base.GetControllerInstance( requestContext, controllerType ); return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); } catch ( StructureMapException ) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); throw new Exception( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); } } } I would like to use StructureMap to inject some code in my controllers. For example I would like to automatically inject repository classes in them. I have already created my repository classes and also I have added a constructor to the controller that receive the repository class public FirmController( IContactRepository contactRepository ) { _contactRepository = contactRepository; } I have then registered the type within StructureMap ObjectFactory.Initialize( x => { x.For<IContactRepository>().Use<MyContactRepository>(); }); How should I change the code in the CreateController method to have the IContactRepository concrete class injected in the FirmController? EDIT: I have changed the BaseControllerFactory to use Structuremap. But I get an exception on the line return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); Any hint?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194  | Next Page >