Search Results

Search found 48396 results on 1936 pages for 'first person shooter'.

Page 193/1936 | < Previous Page | 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200  | Next Page >

  • jquery : ul, li parent multiple child sub-child toggling

    - by user360826
    hello, my main question is as follows: how to show only the first subchild of a ul or li upon clicking the enclosing parent. eg: <ul> Grandparent <li> Child1 <li> Grandchild11</li></li> <li> Child2 <li>GrandChild21</li><li>grandchild22</li></li> </ul> so, for example I would like something to the effect of <script> $('ul').click(function(){ $('ul').children('first li').toggle() }); $('li').click(function(){ $('li').children('first li').toggle() }); </script> meaning: when i click ul, i only see the first child node (child1 and child2 will be shown, but not the grandchildren). when i click child1 or child2 i see the respective grandchild. grandchild is not shown upon clicking grandparent, only upon clicking child1 or child2. i know i am reinventing the wheel of some pre-coded solution, but any help would be largely appreciated!

    Read the article

  • How do i find if an object is before or after a waypoint?

    - by BoMann Andersen
    Im working on a racing game for a school project. Using Visual studio 10 pro, and Irrlicht. Sorry for bad grammar ., and its my first question so not sure if its done right. How i want it to work is that i make waypoints at different points on the track, and then i run my waypoint check to see if a car is past its next waypoint (the next it "needs" to go past), if yes then it updates the next waypoint, else nothing. The way i hope this will work is, i make a vector from n to n+1, then find the vector that is perpendicular to the first vector at n. Then i see if the object is in front or behind that vector. I found a Gamedev.net forumpost that helped me make this function: void Engine::checkWaypoint(Vehicle* vehicle) { btVector3 vector = waypoints[vehicle->nextWaypoint]; // n btVector3 nextVector = waypoints[vehicle->nextWaypoint + 1]; // n+1 vector = nextVector - vector; // First vector btVector3 pos = btVector3(vehicle->position.X,vehicle->position.Y,vehicle->position.Z); float product = vector.dot(pos - waypoints[vehicle->nextWaypoint]); // positiv = before, negative = behind if(product < 0) vehicle->nextWaypoint += 1; } Current bugs with this is: Updates the nextwaypoint more then ones without going past a new point. When it gets to the end and resets, it stops triggering on the first waypoints. So my questions: Is this an good way to do this? Did i do it right?

    Read the article

  • Django Many-to-Many Question

    - by DZ
    My questions seems like a common problem that when I have seen any questions on it is never really asked right or not answered. So Im going to try to get the question right, and maybe someone knows how to resolve the issue, or correct my understanding. The problem: When you have a many-to-many relation ship (related_name not through) and you are trying to use the admin interface you are required to input one of the rleationships even though it does not have to exsist for you to create the first entry. Meaning you have to assign a group to an event to create the group. Wow that sounds complicated. So I can see why the question is not getting answered. Lets try the non code explanation example... First and important versions: Django 1.1.1 Phython 2.6 So I have a model where I created a many-to-many realtionship and Im using the related_name Im creating an app that is an event organizer, for simplicty lets say events although they could be anytype). For this first post Im going to stay away from the code and just try to explain. A few keys: (explaining comment) ** - many-to-many So in the model we have 1) The Main Event (this is main model) 2) Groups (link to events and their can be many events for a group) a) Events** I have simplified this example a little becuase I recognize that what does it matter. Just create the event first... But there are specific varations where that will not work. What the many-to-many related_name does it created another table with the indecies of the two other tables. Nothing says that this extra table HAS to be populated. Becuase if I look in the database and work within myPHPadmin I can create a group with out registering an event, since the connection between the two is a seperate table the DB does not care. How do I make the admin interface this realize it? Ok I know thats a lot so I hope I have explained it clearly. Thank you anyone for your comments/thoughts/advice

    Read the article

  • XSLT 1 Plain Text Spacing

    - by justkt
    Using Perl's XML::LibXSLT necessitates that I use XSLT 1.0, which means that I am stuck without XSLT 2.0 features. Is there a way that I can still pad text cleanly in a plain-text output from my processing? What I want is: <values> <headers> <header>Header 1</header> <header>Header 2</header> </headers> <value> <one>First value 1</one> <two>First value 2</two> </value> <value> <one>Second value 1</one> <two>Second value 2</two> </value> .... <value> <one>Nth value 1</one> <two>Nth value 2</two> </value> </values> To become Header 1 Header 2 First value 1 First value 2 Second value 1 Second value 2 .... Nth value 1 Nth value 2 I realize that XSLT isn't necessarily ideally suited for this type of formatting, but the data will likely also be formatted in other ways.

    Read the article

  • Mixing has_one and has_and_belongs_to_many associations

    - by Thomas
    I'm trying to build a database of urls(links). I have a Category model that has and belongs to many Links. Here's the migration I ran: class CreateLinksCategories < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :links_categories, :id => false do |t| t.references :link t.references :category end end def self.down drop_table :links_categories end end Here's the Link model: class Link < ActiveRecord::Base validates :path, :presence => true, :format => { :with => /^(#{URI::regexp(%w(http https))})$|^$/ } validates :name, :presence => true has_one :category end Here's the category model: class Category < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :links end And here's the error the console kicked back when I tried to associate the first link with the first category: >>link = Link.first => #<Link id: 1, path: "http://www.yahoo.com", created_at: "2011-01-10... >>category = Category.first => #<category id : 1, name: "News Site", created_at: "2011-01-11... >>link.category << category => ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid: SQLite3::Exception: no such column : categories.link_id: Are my associations wrong or am I missing something in the database? I expected it to find the links_categories table. Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • next previous button in div jquery mobile

    - by satine kianne
    i have a total of 11 div in my app. what i want to do is to display 3 divs in between 2 permanent div it should look like this |first permanent div| |div 1| |div 2| |div 3| |second permanent div| |previous| |next| when i click on next is should look like this |first permanent div| |div 2| |div 3| |div 4| |second permanent div| |previous| |next| and so on. and when im not div 1,2,3 the previous should be disabled and when im no 7,8,9 the next should be disabled. but i cant make it i'm using this fiddle as a sample http://jsfiddle.net/WGkPV/1/ its working but only one div is shown in the center of my two permanent div which is not in my plan.im getting like this |first permanent div| |div 1| |second permanent div| |previous| |next| any suggestion will be taken seriously. here is the code of the fiddle im working on as tutorial $(document).ready(function () { var divs = $('.mydivs>div'); var now = 0; // currently shown div divs.hide().first().show(); $("button[name=next]").click(function (e) { divs.eq(now).hide(); now = (now + 1 < divs.length) ? now + 1 : 0; divs.eq(now).show(); // show next }); $("button[name=prev]").click(function (e) { divs.eq(now).hide(); now = (now > 0) ? now - 1 : divs.length - 1; divs.eq(now).show(); // or .css('display','block'); //console.log(divs.length, now); }); }); <div class="mydivs"> <div>div 1</div> <div>div 2</div> <div>div 3</div> <div>div 4</div> </div>

    Read the article

  • Learning Python else syntax error

    - by user1441016
    Hi I am learning python by doing the practice problems for Open course at MIT 6.00 Intro to Computer Science. I am Trying to do practice problem 1 part 2 create a recursive function to count the instance of key in target. My code so far... from string import * def countSubStringMatchRecursive (target, key,x,s): if (find(target,key)==find(target,key,s)) and (find(target,key)==find(target,key,(find(target,key)))):#if first and last return (1) elif (find(target,key)==find(target,key,s))and (find(target,key)!=find(target,key,(find(target,key)))):#if first but not last x=1 s= find(target,key) return (countSubStringMatchRecursive(target,key,s,x) elif (find(target,key,s))==-1 and (find(target,key)!=find(target,key,s)):#if last but not first return (x+1) elif:(find(target,key,s))!=-1 and (find(target,key)!=find(target,key,s)):#if not last and not first x=x+1 s= find(target,key,s) return (countSubStringMatchRecursive(target,key,s,x) I getting a syntax error at line 8. I would just like to know what I did wrong there. Dont worry about the other mistakes I should be able to get those sorted out. I just Stuck on this. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Pointer and malloc issue

    - by Andy
    I am fairly new to C and am getting stuck with arrays and pointers when they refer to strings. I can ask for input of 2 numbers (ints) and then return the one I want (first number or second number) without any issues. But when I request names and try to return them, the program crashes after I enter the first name and not sure why. In theory I am looking to reserve memory for the first name, and then expand it to include a second name. Can anyone explain why this breaks? Thanks! #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> void main () { int NumItems = 0; NumItems += 1; char* NameList = malloc(sizeof(char[10])*NumItems); printf("Please enter name #1: \n"); scanf("%9s", NameList[0]); fpurge(stdin); NumItems += 1; NameList = realloc(NameList,sizeof(char[10])*NumItems); printf("Please enter name #2: \n"); scanf("%9s", NameList[1]); fpurge(stdin); printf("The first name is: %s",NameList[0]); printf("The second name is: %s",NameList[1]); return 0; }

    Read the article

  • jQuery script works in Firefox but not in IE. Why am I not surprised?

    - by Ben Tew
    I'm working with the context of a CMS system and trying to turn seperate div's into tabs. You can see it at http://www.wtvynews4.com/test I've kludged together some code from a tutorial site. <script charset="utf-8" type="text/javascript"> jQuery(function() { //When page loads... $("div[ondblclick$='87119417']").attr("id", "87119417"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119482']").attr("id", "87119482"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119672']").attr("id", "87119672"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119727']").attr("id", "87119727"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119812']").attr("id", "87119812"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119417']").addClass("tab_content"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119482']").addClass("tab_content"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119672']").addClass("tab_content"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119727']").addClass("tab_content"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119812']").addClass("tab_content"); $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all content $("ul.morenewstabs li:first").addClass("active").show(); //Activate first tab $(".tab_content:first").show(); //Show first tab content //On Click Event $("ul.morenewstabs li").click(function() { $("ul.morenewstabs li").removeClass("active"); //Remove any "active" class $(this).addClass("active"); //Add "active" class to selected tab $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all tab content var activeTab = $(this).find("a").attr("href"); //Find the href attribute value to identify the active tab + content $(activeTab).show(); //Fade in the active ID content return false; }); }); </script> Everything works fine in Firefox but not IE. can you provide any assistance? When the page loads the attribute ID's and classes aren't assigned. I tried changing jQuery(function() { to $(document).ready(function() still no luck.

    Read the article

  • Assigning a value to an integer in a C linked list

    - by Drunk On Java
    Hello all. I have a question regarding linked lists. I have the following structs and function for example. struct node { int value; struct node *next; }; struct entrynode { struct node *first; struct node *last; int length; }; void addnode(struct entrynode *entry) { struct node *nextnode = (struct node *)malloc(sizeof(struct node)); int temp; if(entry->first == NULL) { printf("Please enter an integer.\n"); scanf("%d", &temp); nextnode->value = temp; nextnode->next = NULL; entry->first = nextnode; entry->last = nextnode; entry->length++; } else { entry->last->next = nextnode; printf("Please enter an integer.\n"); scanf("%d", nextnode->value); nextnode->next = NULL; entry->last = nextnode; entry->length++; } } In the first part of the if statement, I store input into a temp variable and then assign that to a field in the struct. The else branch, I tried to assign it directly which did not work. How would I go about assigning it directly? Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • Why isn't the pathspec magic :(exclude) excluding the files I specify from git log's output?

    - by Jubobs
    This is a follow-up to Ignore files in git log -p and is also related to Making 'git log' ignore changes for certain paths. I'm using Git 1.9.2. I'm trying to use the pathspec magic :(exclude) to specify that some patches should not be shown in the output of git log -p. However, patches that I want to exclude still show up in the output. Here is minimal working example that reproduces the situation: cd ~/Desktop mkdir test_exclude cd test_exclude git init mkdir testdir echo "my first cpp file" >testdir/test1.cpp echo "my first xml file" >testdir/test2.xml git add testdir/ git commit -m "added two test files" Now I want to show all patches in my history expect those corresponding to XML files in the testdir folder. Therefore, following VonC's answer, I run git log --patch -- . ":(exclude)testdir/*.xml" but the patch for my testdir/test2.xml file still shows up in the output: commit 37767da1ad4ad5a5c902dfa0c9b95351e8a3b0d9 Author: xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx Date: Mon Aug 18 12:23:56 2014 +0100 added two test files diff --git a/testdir/test1.cpp b/testdir/test1.cpp new file mode 100644 index 0000000..3a721aa --- /dev/null +++ b/testdir/test1.cpp @@ -0,0 +1 @@ +my first cpp file diff --git a/testdir/test2.xml b/testdir/test2.xml new file mode 100644 index 0000000..8b7ce86 --- /dev/null +++ b/testdir/test2.xml @@ -0,0 +1 @@ +my first xml file What am I doing wrong? What should I do to tell git log -p not to show the patch associated with all XML files in my testdir folder?

    Read the article

  • Pair equal operator overloading for inserting into set

    - by Petwoip
    I am trying to add a pair<int,int> to a set. If a pair shares the same two values as another in the set, it should not be inserted. Here's my non-working code: typedef std::pair<int, int> PairInt; template<> bool std::operator==(const PairInt& l, const PairInt& r) { return (l.first == r.first && l.second == r.second) || (l.first == r.second && l.second == r.first); } int main() { std::set<PairInt> intSet; intSet.insert(PairInt(1,3)); intSet.insert(PairInt(1,4)); intSet.insert(PairInt(1,4)); intSet.insert(PairInt(4,1)); } At the moment, the (4,1) pair gets added even though there is already a (1,4) pair. The final contents of the set are: (1 3) (1 4) (4 1) and I want it to be (1 3) (1 4) I've tried putting breakpoints in the overloaded method, but they never get reached. What have I done wrong?

    Read the article

  • Problem with mathamatical calculation in JQUERY

    - by Param-Ganak
    Hello friends! I have two text boxes. I enter number in one textbox. I write following JQUERY for that textbox which get executed when the focus out from first text box. The JQUERY code takes the entered value from first text box and multiply it by a decimal number 34.95 and display the answer in second text box. The code is doing the calculation little bit ok because when I enter the value 1000 in first text box it gives answer 34950 in second textbox and when I enter the value 100 in first text box it gives answer 3495.0000000000005 in second text box. **Please any one tell me what is the problem. is problem is in my JQUERY code. I also want to show the answer always in decimal point. Answer should always dislply only two digits after decimal point. so How to achieve this too.** This is my JQUERY code. $("#id_pvalue").focusout(function() { q=$("#id_pvalue").val(); var ans=q*34.95; $("#id_tvalue").val(ans); }); Please guide me friends! Thank You!

    Read the article

  • Open new UserControl in the mainWindows

    - by user287964
    Hi I have this snippet public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void ToggleButton_Checked(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { switch ((sender as Button).Content.ToString()) { case "UserControl 1": AddItemToContainer(new UserControl1()); break; case "UserControl 2": AddItemToContainer(new UserControl2()); break; case "UserControl 3": AddItemToContainer(new UserControl3()); break; default: break; } } void AddItemToContainer(UIElement _myElement) { Grid.SetColumn(_myElement, 1); HostContainer.Children.Add(_myElement); } } } } With this I can open a new userControl in myMainwindow Let’s say something like adding child to myMainWinodw,Now I’m trying to click on a button from my userControl so I open another userControl that take the place of the first one I explain: I have the mainWindows it has 3 button first one to open the first UserControl the second one to open the second userControl and the third to open the last UserControl,imagine that I opened the first UserControl let’s call it UC1, In the UC1 I have a button to open the second userControl (let’s call it UC2) I like that when I clik the button from the UC1 the UC2 is opened and take the place of the UC1 (of course the UC2 is still a child of myMainWinodw) I have alredy try to call the AddItemToContainer methode from other methode but nothing is happened Any suggestion please

    Read the article

  • Entity framework 4.0 compiled query with Where() clause issue

    - by Andrey Salnikov
    Hello, I encountered with some strange behavior of System.Data.Objects.CompiledQuery.Compile function - here is my code for compile simple query: private static readonly Func<DataContext, long, Product> productQuery = CompiledQuery.Compile((DataContext ctx, long id) => ctx.Entities.OfType<Data.Product>().Where(p => p.Id == id) .Select(p=>new Product{Id = p.Id}).SingleOrDefault()); where DataContext inherited from ObjectContext and Product is a projection of POCO Data.Product class. My data context in first run contains Data.Product {Id == 1L} and in second Data.Product {Id == 2L}. First using of compilled query productQuery(dataContext, 1L) works perfect - in result I have Product {Id == 1L} but second run productQuery(dataContext, 2L) always returns null, instead of context in second run contains single product with id == 2L. If I remove Where clause I will get correct product (with id == 2L). It seems that first id value caching while first run of productQuery, and therefore all further calls valid only when dataContext contains Data.Product {id==1L}. This issue can't be reproduced if I've used direct query instead of its precompiled version. Also, all tests I've performed on test mdf base using SQL Server 2008 express and Visual studio 2010 final from my ASP.net application.

    Read the article

  • Display TableViews corresponding to segmentedControl in a single tableview without pushing a new view

    - by user1727927
    I have a tableViewController where I have used the Interface Builder to insert a Segmented Controller having two segments. Since by default, first segment is always selected, I am not facing any problem in displaying the tableview corresponding to first segment. However, when I click on the second segment, I want to display another tableView. Here goes the problem. I am calling newTableViewController class on clicking the second segment. Hence, this view is getting pushed instead. Please suggest me a method to have these two tableViews in the main tableView upon clicking the segments. I have used switch case for switching between the segments. Here's the relevant part of the code: This method is in the FirstTableViewController since first segment is by default selected. -(IBAction) segmentedControlChanged { switch(segmentedControl.selectedSegmnentIndex) { case 0: //default first index selected. [tableView setHidden:NO]; break; case 1: NewViewController *controller=[[NewViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"NewViewController" bundle:nil]; self.navigationController pushViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; break; default: break; } }

    Read the article

  • "pseudo-atomic" operations in C++

    - by dan
    So I'm aware that nothing is atomic in C++. But I'm trying to figure out if there are any "pseudo-atomic" assumptions I can make. The reason is that I want to avoid using mutexes in some simple situations where I only need very weak guarantees. 1) Suppose I have globally defined volatile bool b, which initially I set true. Then I launch a thread which executes a loop while(b) doSomething(); Meanwhile, in another thread, I execute b=true. Can I assume that the first thread will continue to execute? In other words, if b starts out as true, and the first thread checks the value of b at the same time as the second thread assigns b=true, can I assume that the first thread will read the value of b as true? Or is it possible that at some intermediate point of the assignment b=true, the value of b might be read as false? 2) Now suppose that b is initially false. Then the first thread executes bool b1=b; bool b2=b; if(b1 && !b2) bad(); while the second thread executes b=true. Can I assume that bad() never gets called? 3) What about an int or other builtin types: suppose I have volatile int i, which is initially (say) 7, and then I assign i=7. Can I assume that, at any time during this operation, from any thread, the value of i will be equal to 7? 4) I have volatile int i=7, and then I execute i++ from some thread, and all other threads only read the value of i. Can I assume that i never has any value, in any thread, except for either 7 or 8? 5) I have volatile int i, from one thread I execute i=7, and from another I execute i=8. Afterwards, is i guaranteed to be either 7 or 8 (or whatever two values I have chosen to assign)?

    Read the article

  • How do I display core data on second view controller?

    - by jon
    I am working on my first core data iPhone application. I am using a navigation controller, and the root view controller displays 4 rows. Clicking the first row takes me to a second table view controller. However, when I click the back button, repeat the row tap, click the back button again, and tap the row a third time, I get an error. I have been researching this for a week with no success. I can reproduce the error easily: Create a new Navigation-based Application, use Core Data for storage, call it MyTest which creates MyTestAppDelegate and RootViewController. Add new UIViewController subclass, with UITableViewController and xib, call it ListViewController. Copy code from RootViewController.h and .m to ListViewController.h and .m., changing the file names appropriately. To simplify the code, I removed the trailing “_” from all variables. In RootViewController, I added #import ListViewController.h, set up an array to display 4 rows and navigate to ListViewController when clicking the first row. In ListViewController.m, I added #import MyTestAppDelegate.h” and the following code: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; if (managedObjectContext == nil) { managedObjectContext = [(MyTestAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate] managedObjectContext]; } .. } The sequence that causes the error is tap row, return, tap row, return, tap row - error. managedObjectContext is synthesized for the third time. I appreciate your patience and your help, as this makes no sense to me. ADDENDUM: I may have a partial solution. http://www.iphonedevsdk.com/forum/iphone-sdk-development/41688-accessing-app-delegates-managed-object-context.html If I do not release the managedObjectContext in the .m file, the error goes away. Is that ok or will that cause me issues? - (void)dealloc { [fetchedResultsController release]; // [managedObjectContext release]; [super dealloc]; } ADDENDUM 2: See solution below. Sorry for the formatting issues - this was my first post.

    Read the article

  • problem with jquery each and swich between 2 things

    - by moustafa
    first see this post i got this code $('.yesno').click(function(){ $('.yesno').each(function(i, v){ $(v).removeClass('selected'); }); $(this).addClass('selected'); return false; }); and html this <a href="#"> <span class="Yes yesno">Yes</span> </a> <a href="#"> <span class="No yesno">No</span> no the problem when i make more than one vote iam get very big problem see this <a href="#"> <span class="Yes yesno">Yes</span> </a> <a href="#"> <span class="No yesno">No</span> </a> <a href="#"> <span class="Yes yesno">Yes</span> </a> <a href="#"> <span class="No yesno">No</span> </a> </a> when click first yes its choose the first yes and hwen iam going to the next yes when click its because selected but the first yes because unselected i want make some thin make each yes and know is differant of others

    Read the article

  • Is there a simple LDAP-to-HTTP gateway out there?

    - by larsks
    We have a local LDAP directory that provides basic contact information about our user community. We would like to integrate this into some third-party hosted services that allow us to implement widgets that run arbitrary Javascript. In order to connect Javascript to our LDAP directory, I would like to set up a simple LDAP-to-HTTP proxy that would accept HTTP GET requests, translate them into an appropriate LDAP query, and respond with directory information as JSON-encoded data. In an ideal world, something like this: GET /[email protected] Would get me something like this: { "cn": "Bob Person", "title": "System Administrator", "sn": "Person", "mail": "[email protected]", "telepehoneNumber": "617-555-1212", "givenName": "Bob" } (And this obviously assumes that the web application has locally configured information about what base DN to use, how to authenticate, etc). I guess I could write one...but surely something like this already exists? UPDATE The consensus seems to be that there isn't a pre-existing solution out there and that I should just get off my lazy derriere and write one. So I did, and it's here. It's not especially pretty, but it works for my prototyping and I figure maybe someone else will find it useful someday.

    Read the article

  • How can i link a oracle user to a business objects user

    - by Robert Speckmann
    I have a problem with linking the oracle user to a business objects user. I will try to explain it as detailed as possible; I have a Oracle database (10g) where a couple of users are defined. These users can query on information with application X. Those records will then be written into the oracle database. The records that is written into the database has a ID that links to the person that has run the query. I also have a active directory in wich a couple of users are made; testuser1, testuser2. When those users log on, and want to load a report in Business Objects XI i want them to see the information that was created when the report was activated by that same user that had runned the query before with application X. The name of the person in the active directory and the name in the oracle database are not the same but i dont think that would be a problem in this stage. So the steps i took: First, i run a report in application X (with a account prodpim_rs) wich fills my Oracle database with a record. The second step is logging on as testuser1 (from the AD) and then login on Business Objects XI with the account. Now i want to load a report with the information in my Oracle database. So the prodpim_rs user and the testuser must have a link between them. I am wondering how to forfill this. Can i link the account, wich is made in a Oracle database, with the user of BO wich is linked to my AD? Thank you in advance for your reply Robert

    Read the article

  • Better way to design a database

    - by cMinor
    I have a conceptual problem and I would like to get your ideas on how I'll be able to do what I am aiming. My goal is to create a database with information of persons who work at a place depending on their profession and skills,and keep control of salary and projects (how much would cost summing all the hours of work) I have 3 categories which can have subcategories: Outsourcing Technician welder turner assistant Administrative supervisor manager So each person has its information and the projects they are working on, also one person may do several jobs... I was thinking about having 5 tables (EMPLOYEE, SKILLS, PROYECTS, SALARY, PROFESSION) but I guess there is a better way of doing this. create table Employee ( PRIMARY KEY [Person_ID] int(10), [Name] varchar(30), [sex] varchar(10), [address] varchar(10), [profession] varchar(10), [Skills_ID] int(10), [Proyect_ID] int(10), [Salary_ID] int(10), [Salary] float ) create table Skills ( PRIMARY KEY [Skills_ID] int(10), FOREIGN KEY [Skills_name] varchar(10) REFERENCES Employee(Person_ID), [Skills_pay] float(10), [Comments] varchar(50) ) create table Proyects ( PRIMARY KEY [Proyect_ID] int(10), FOREIGN KEY [Skills_name] varchar(10) REFERENCES Employee(Person_ID) [Proyect_name] varchar(10), [working_Hours] float(10), [Comments] varchar(50) ) create table Salary ( PRIMARY KEY [Salary_ID] int(10), FOREIGN KEY [Skills_name] varchar(10) REFERENCES Employee(Person_ID) [Proyect_name] varchar(10), [working_Hours] float(10), [Comments] varchar(50) ) So to get the total amount of the cost of a project I would just sum the working hours of each employee envolved and sum some extra costs in an aggregate query. Is there a way to do this in a more efficient way? What to add or delete of this small model? I guess I am missing something in the salary - maybe I need another table for that?

    Read the article

  • Changing order of Thunderbird email address autocomplete?

    - by Brooks Moses
    I recently did a system wipe and installed Thunderbird 3.0, and imported all of my email setup from a previous Thunderbird 2.0 installation. Almost everything is working fine, but I'm having a problem with the autocomplete in email addresses when writing messages. The relevant behavior is this: In the old 2.0 installation, the autocomplete appeared to know which email addresses I used most frequently, and so when I typed "m" in the address line, it would pick as the default selection the "m"-person who I frequently write email to. (It's possible this is an illusion and it simply picked people in the order I added them to my address book.) Thus, I have become used to typing "m"-"enter" in the address field, and getting this person. In the current 3.0 installation, however, the autocomplete order has changed. It's not the same as it was, and it's not alphabetical. The result is that I'm spending extra time looking at the email address bar, and more annoyingly, half the time the old muscle-memory kicks in and I find myself with an email that's addressed to a couple of customers rather than to my boss and coworker. Thus, two questions: How does Thunderbird determine this autocomplete order, among a set of addresses all of which are in the same address book? How can I change this ordering to be what I want? (I have tried Google-searching, and found a number of incomplete answers, nearly all of which were for version 1.0 or thereabouts, and reference settings dialog boxes that no longer exist.)

    Read the article

  • VNC as a Support Tool Over the Internet

    - by dosboy
    I'd like to set up an environment where I can use VNC to remotely support my clients over the internet. No VPNs involved. I've used the UltraVNC repeater in the past, but the problem is that it requires a dedicated Windows server. What I'd like to do is as follows: VNC Client (me) - NAT - Internet - NAT - VNC Server (the person I'm offering support to) I'd basically like the same functionality that the UltraVNC repeater offers, but the only internet environment I have to host something on is a Linux shared server (standard hosting - PHP, Apache, etc.). Requirements: Multiple platform support for both Client and Server - specifically Mac and Windows Allows for connection with multiple NATs involved (Client and Server side) Will allow me to use my existing hosting environment for any repeater that might be involved I believe the way this would work is that the Server (the person I'm offering support to) when online would connect to a listener on the internet. When they needed support I would connect my Client to the same listener, see them connected, and use the listener (man-in-the-middle) to piggyback my Client to connect to their Server. I'm open to using any software (not limiting myself to VNC) but would prefer a FOSS solution (which is why I'm leaning towards VNC). Any advice would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Networking - intermittent, slow speeds

    - by jack
    Hi all I'm a novice when it comes to networking. I live in a large two storey building that used to be a school and we have an internet connection with BT (british telecoms provider), the connection speed is 12Mb.. Basically our connection is slow and very intermittent and I was wondering if anybody here could provide some help or ideas. There are about 11 people in the building who could be online at any time. We have a router on the ground floor which is bog standard supplied by BT. To provide Broadband access to the 1st and 2nd floors, we used an old switch that the school left, we have a cable running from the router on the first floor to the switch which connects to a wireless router which is configured as a bridge on the 2nd floor supplying broadband access to the 1st and 2nd floors. Additionally we have 3 computers that are connected via the switch through the ethernet sockets left by the school on the ground floor. The router we use on the 2nd floor came in a pack of 2 and cost about £15 (bought by another person). Sometimes the connection is perfectly fine, i.e. early hours of the morning or when everybody is out, we have rang BT who say that the connection cannot cope with the numbers of people online, plus I'm not sure whether each person is streaming etc. Can anybody offer any advice?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200  | Next Page >