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• How to make active services highly available?

  - by Jader Dias

  I know that with Network Load Balancing and Failover Clusteringwe can make passive services highly available. But what about active apps? Example: One of my apps retrieves some content from a external resource in a fixed interval. I have imagined the following scenarios: Run it in a single machine. Problem: if this instance falls, the content won't be retrieved Run it in each machine of the cluster. Problem: the content will be retrieved multiple times Have it in each machine of the cluster, but run it only in one of them. Each instance will have to check some sort of common resource to decide whether it its turn to do the task or not. When I was thinking about the solution #3 I have wondered what should be the common resource. I have thought of creating a table in the database, where we could use it to get a global lock. Is this the best solution? How does people usually do this? By the way it's a C# .NET WCF app running on Windows Server 2008

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• Why compiling in Flash IDE I cannot access stage in a Sprite constructor before addChild while if I

  - by yuri

  I've created this simple class (omissing package directive and imports) public class Viewer extends Sprite { public function Viewer():void { trace(stage); } } then in Flash IDE I import in first frame this AS: import Viewer var viewer = new Viewer(); stage.addChild(viewer); trace(viewer.stage); and this works as I expected: the first trace called in constructor say stage is "null" because I haven't yet add viewer to a DisplayObjectContainer. The second one output the stage object. So I created a project using AXDT eclipse plugin, I've recreated and compiled only the first class (trashed the AS init script used in Flash IDE because is not needed) and on the first trace ... wow ... the stage is filled with the stage Object. I seems to me that the compiler used by AXDT (Flex4 SDK open source) add the class... before construct it (!?).. to a DisplayObjectContainer already attached to a Stage. I want to understand how can reproduce this behaviour using compiler in Flash IDE so I can directrly access Stage in construction.

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• Strange behavior with complex Q object filter queries in Django

  - by HWM-Rocker

  Hi I am trying to write a tagging system for Django, but today I encountered a strange behavior in filter or the Q object (django.db.models.Q). I wrote a function, that converts a search string into a Q object. The next step would be to filter the TaggedObject with these query. But unfortunately I get a strange behavior. when I search (id=20) = Q: (AND: ('tags__tag__id', 20)) and it returns 2 Taged Objects with the ID 1127 and 132 when I search (id=4) = Q: (AND: ('tags__tag__id', 4)) and it returns also 2 Objects, but this time 1180 and 1127 until here is everything fine, but when i make a little bit more complex query like (id=4) or (id=20) = Q: (OR: ('tags__tag__id', 4), ('tags__tag__id', 20)) then it returns 4(!) Objects 1180, 1127, 1127, 132 But the object with the ID 1127 is returned twice, but thats not the behaviour I want. Do I have to live with it, and uniqify that list or can I do something different. The representation of the Q object looks fine for me. But the worst is now, when I search for (id=20) and (id=4) = Q: (AND: ('tags__tag__id', 20), ('tags__tag__id', 4)) then it returns no object at all. But why? The representation should be ok and the object with the id 1127 is tagged by both. What am I missing? Here are also the relevant parts of the classes, that are involved: class TaggedObject(models.Model): """ class that represent a tagged object """ tags = generic.GenericRelation('ObjectTagBridge', blank=True, null=True) class ObjectTagBridge(models.Model): """ Help to connect a generic object to a Tag. """ # pylint: disable-msg=W0232,R0903 content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField() content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey('content_type', 'object_id') tag = models.ForeignKey('Tag') class Tag(models.Model): ... Thanks for your help

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• c multithreading

  - by coubeatczech

  hi, there's a weird behaviour in my threads: void * foo(void * nic){ printf("foo"); } void * threadF(void * ukazatel){ printf("1\n"); pthread_t threadT; pthread_attr_t attr; pthread_attr_init (&attr); pthread_attr_setdetachstate(&attr, PTHREAD_CREATE_JOINABLE); pthread_create(&threadT,NULL,&foo,(void*)NULL); printf("2\n"); while (!feof(stdin)){ int id, in, out; fscanf(stdin,"%d:%d:%d",&id,&in,&out); } } int main(){ pthread_attr_t attr; pthread_attr_init (&attr); pthread_attr_setdetachstate(&attr, PTHREAD_CREATE_JOINABLE); pthread_t threadT; pthread_create(&vlaknoVstupu,&attr,&threadF,(void*)&data); pthread_join(threadT,NULL); pthread_attr_destroy (&attr); } // I skipped irelevant parts of code... the thing is, that sometimes, the output is 12foo, but usually just 12. Then the function waits for input. I would expect it to be always 12foo. Do anybody know why are my expectations wrong?

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• Default Button after dispose and setVisible

  - by DaDaDom

  Hi, given the following code: public class DialogTest implements ActionListener { public static void main(String[] args) {DialogTest g = new DialogTest();} public DialogTest() { JButton b1 = new JButton("Button A"); b1.addActionListener(this); JDialog d = new JDialog(); d.setDefaultCloseOperation(JDialog.DISPOSE_ON_CLOSE); JPanel p = new JPanel(); p.add(b1); d.add(p); d.getRootPane().setDefaultButton(b1); d.pack(); d.setVisible(true); d.dispose(); d.pack(); d.setVisible(true); } public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) {System.out.println("hello");} } Shouldn't pressing the Enter key write something to the console? According to the docs (http://java.sun.com/javase/7/docs/api/java/awt/Window.html#dispose()): The Window and its subcomponents can be made displayable again by rebuilding the native resources with a subsequent call to pack or show. The states of the recreated Window and its subcomponents will be identical to the states of these objects at the point where the Window was disposed Is this intended behaviour?

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• How to use IsKeyboardFocusWithin and IsSelected together?

  - by jpsstavares

  I have a style defined for my ListBoxItems with a trigger to set a background color when IsSelected is True: <Style x:Key="StepItemStyle" TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}"> <Setter Property="SnapsToDevicePixels" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="OverridesDefaultStyle" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ListBoxItem"> <Border Name="Border" Padding="0" SnapsToDevicePixels="true"> <ContentPresenter /> </Border> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsSelected" Value="True"> <Setter TargetName="Border" Property="Background" Value="#40a0f5ff"/> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> This style maintains the selected item even when the ListBox and ListBoxItem loses focus, which in my case is an absolute must. The problem is that I also want the ListBoxItem to be selected when one of its TextBox's child gets focused. To achieve this I add a trigger that sets IsSelected to true when IsKeyboardFocusWithin is true: <Trigger Property="IsKeyboardFocusWithin" Value="True"> <Setter Property="IsSelected" Value="True" /> </Trigger> When I add this trigger the Item is selected when the focus is on a child TextBox, but the first behaviour disappears. Now when I click outside the ListBox, the item is de-selected. How can I keep both behaviours?

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• What can I do about ambigous wildcard patterns in Struts?

  - by Hanno Fietz

  I have a problem finding the right wildcard pattern to extract parts of my URL into action parameters in Struts. This is how I set up the action. The intent of the pattern is to capture the last two path elements and then everything that might precede them. <action name="**/*/*" class="com.example.ObjectAction"> <param name="filter">{1}</param> <param name="type">{2}</param> <param name="id">{3}</param> </action> Calling it with the URL channels/123/transmissions/456 I get the following result (the action just sets the input parameters on a POJO and returns that as XML): <result> <filter>channels/123/transmissions</filter> <id/> <type>456</type> </result> It should be: <result> <filter>channels/123</filter> <id>456</id> <type>transmissions</type> </result> Now, because ** matches all characters including the slash, I guess my pattern allows more than one way to match the URL, and Struts happens to pick one that leaves the id empty. Is the behaviour for multiple possible matches defined somewhere? Can I make the pattern less ambigous? Are there alternative ways of doing this? I'm running Struts 2.0.8. Upgrading to 2.1.9 would give me regex matching, but I got into trouble with Struts' dependencies and my OSGi environment when I went past 2.0.8, so I'd like to stick to that version for now.

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• [php] Cookies only changing value every two page refreshes?

  - by Gazillion

  Hello, I'm trying to implement some pixel tracking where I will save certain values in a cookie to then forward users to another page. If users purchase a product after being forwarded to the online store by us the store adds an image tag in the page with our php script included. With the values set in the cookie we would like to track conversions. I understand this tracking technique has some limitations (like if a user has cookies turned off or if they do not load images but that's the direction my client wanted to go in). The problem I'm having is that the cookie's behaviour is extremely... random. I've been trying to track their values (with a var_dump so I don't have to wait for a page reload to view the cookie's value) but it seems the value for one field only gets refreshed every two page reloads. setcookie("tracking[cn]", $cn, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[t]", $t, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[kid]", $kid, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); redirectTo($redirect_url); the values of cn, t are fine but for some reason kid is always wrong (having taken the value of the previous kid) Any help would be extremely appreciated I've been at this all evening! :)

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• Lucene wildcard queries

  - by Javi

  Hello, I have this question relating to Lucene. I have a form and I get a text from it and I want to perform a full text search in several fields. Suppose I get from the input the text "textToLook". I have a Lucene Analyzer with several filters. One of them is lowerCaseFilter, so when I create the index, words will be lowercased. Imagine I want to search into two fields field1 and field2 so the lucene query would be something like this (note that 'textToLook' now is 'texttolook'): field1: texttolook* field2:texttolook* In my class I have something like this to create the query. I works when there is no wildcard. String text = "textToLook"; String[] fields = {"field1", "field2"}; //analyser is the same as the one used for indexing Analyzer analyzer = fullTextEntityManager.getSearchFactory().getAnalyzer("customAnalyzer"); MultiFieldQueryParser parser = new MultiFieldQueryParser(fields, analyzer); org.apache.lucene.search.Query queryTextoLibre = parser.parse(text); With this code the query would be: field1: texttolook field2:texttolook but If I set text to "textToLook*" I get field1: textToLook* field2:textToLook* which won't find correctly as the indexes are in lowercase. I have read in lucene website this: " Wildcard, Prefix, and Fuzzy queries are not passed through the Analyzer, which is the component that performs operations such as stemming and lowercasing" My problem cannot be solved by setting the behaviour case insensitive cause my analyzer has other fields which for examples remove some suffixes of words. I think I can solve the problem by getting how the text would be after going through the filters of my analyzer, then I could add the "*" and then I could build the Query with MultiFieldQueryParser. So in this example I woud get "textToLower" and after being passed to to these filters I could get "texttolower". After this I could make "textotolower*". But, is there any way to get the value of my text variable after going through all my analyzer's filters? How can I get all the filters of my analyzer? Is this possible? Thanks

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• Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

  - by Weeble

  In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

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• How do I ensure only the headers are shown for the first item in an ItemsControl in WPF?

  - by Dan Ryan

  I am using MVVM binding an ObservableCollection of children to an ItemsControl. The ItemsControl contains a UserControl used to style the UI for the children. <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Documents}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <View:DocumentView Margin="0, 10, 0, 0" /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I want to show a header row for the contents of the ItemsControl but only want to show this once at the top (not for every child). How can I implement this behaviour in the DocumentView user control? Fyi I am using a Grid layout to style the child rows: <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="34"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="100"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="60" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.Row="0" Text="Should only show this at the top"></TextBlock> <Image Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Height="24" Width="24" Source="/Beazley.Documents.Presentation;component/Icons/error.png"></Image> <ComboBox Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Name="ContentTypes" ItemsSource="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.ContentTypes}" SelectedValue="{Binding ContentType}"/> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" Text="{Binding Path=FileName}"/> <Button Grid.Column="3" Grid.Row="1" Command="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.RemoveFile}" CommandParameter="{Binding}">Remove</Button> </Grid>

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• Is extending a base class with non-virtual destructor dangerous in C++

  - by Akusete

  Take the following code class A { }; class B : public A { }; class C : public A { int x; }; int main (int argc, char** argv) { A* b = new B(); A* c = new C(); //in both cases, only ~A() is called, not ~B() or ~C() delete b; //is this ok? delete c; //does this line leak memory? return 0; } when calling delete on a class with a non-virtual destructor with member functions (like class C), can the memory allocator tell what the proper size of the object is? If not, is memory leaked? Secondly, if the class has no member functions, and no explicit destructor behaviour (like class B), is everything ok? I ask this because I wanted to create a class to extend std::string, (which I know is not recommended, but for the sake of the discussion just bear with it), and overload the +=,+ operator. -Weffc++ gives me a warning because std::string has a non virtual destructor, but does it matter if the sub-class has no members and does not need to do anything in its destructor? -- FYI the += overload was to do proper file path formatting, so the path class could be used like class path : public std::string { //... overload, +=, + //... add last_path_component, remove_path_component, ext, etc... }; path foo = "/some/file/path"; foo = foo + "filename.txt"; //and so on... I just wanted to make sure someone doing this path* foo = new path(); std::string* bar = foo; delete bar; would not cause any problems with memory allocation

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• Multiple Concurrent Postbacks when using UpdatePanels

  - by d4nt

  Here's an example app that I built to demonstrate my problem. A single aspx page with the following on it: <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager runat="server" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnGo" Text="Go" OnClick="btnGo_Click" /> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="txtVal1" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> Then, in code behind, we have the following: protected void btnGo_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(5000); Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("{0}: {1}", DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:MM:ss.fffffff"), txtVal1.Text)); txtVal1.Text = ""; } If you run this and click on the "Go" button multiple times you will see multiple debug statements on the "Output" window showing that multiple requests have been processed. This appears to contradict the documented behaviour of update panels (i.e. If you make a request while one is processing, the first requests gets terminated and the current one is processed). Anyway, the point is I want to fix it. The obvious option would be to use Javascript to disable the button after the first press, but that strikes me as hard to maintain, we potentially have the same issue on a lot of screens it could be easily broken if someone renames a button. Do you have any suggestions? Perhaps there is something I could do in BeginRequest in Global.asax to detect a duplicate request? Is there some setting or feature on the UpdatePanel to stop it doing this, or maybe something in the AjaxControlToolkit that will prevent it?

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• Deep copy objects from different namespaces

  - by Wasim

  Hi all, I have the following situation: I have class User with the follwing properies : public class User { string user name ; List <Contact> contacts ; List <BookMark> book marks; . . . } I have the same class in a different namespace , with some different properties . BWT , it's the same situation of it's classes (Contact) and (BookMark). I need to make a deep copy of the same properties from the two classes . Actually , I arrive to this situation by having an Entity Framework edmx file . I created the first database (SQL server 2008) from this model . And copied he same edmx file to another project and created the database with SQL CE db. Now I get the first data model objects by WCF service and need to persist them in the local database in my application . The objects are the same but there are some changs because of the modeling issue with a different databse. Do you have any workarround about this assue. Thanks in advance ...

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• Prevent default on a click within a JQuery tabs in Google Chrome.

  - by Sydney

  I would like to prevent the default behaviour of a click on a link. I tried the return false; also javascript:void(0); in the href attribute but it doesn’t seem to work. It works fine in Firefox, but not in Chrome and IE. I have a single tab that loads via AJAX the content which is a simple link. <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#tabs").tabs({ ajaxOptions: { error: function(xhr, status, index, anchor) { $(anchor.hash).html("Couldn't load this tab. We'll try to fix this as soon as possible. If this wouldn't be a demo."); }, success: function() { alert('hello'); $('#lk').click(function() { alert('Click Me'); return false; }); } }, load: function(event, ui) { $('a', ui.panel).click(function() { $(ui.panel).load(this.href); return false; }); } }); }); </script> <body> <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="linkChild.htm">Link</a></li> </ul> </div> </body> The content of linkChild.htm is <a href="javascript:void(0)" id="lk">Click Me</a> So basically when the tab content is loaded with success, a click event is attached to the link “lk”. When I click on the link, the alert is displayed but then link disappears. I check the HTML and the element is actually removed from the DOM.

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• TextArea being used as an itemEditor misbehaves when the enter key is pressed

  - by ChrisInCambo

  Hi, I have a TextArea inside an itemEditor component, the problem is that when typing in the TextArea if the enter key is pressed the itemEditor resets itself rather moving the caret to the next line as expected: <mx:List width="100%" editable="true" > <mx:dataProvider> <mx:ArrayCollection> <mx:Array> <mx:Object title="Stairway to Heaven" /> </mx:Array> </mx:ArrayCollection> </mx:dataProvider> <mx:itemRenderer> <mx:Component> <mx:Text height="100" text="{data.title}"/> </mx:Component> </mx:itemRenderer> <mx:itemEditor> <mx:Component> <mx:TextArea height="100" text="{data.title}"/> </mx:Component> </mx:itemEditor> </mx:List> </mx:Application> Could anyone advise how I can get around this strange behaviour and make the enter key behave as expected? Thanks, Chris

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• ExecutorService memory leak on exception

  - by TofuBeer

  I am having a hard time tracking this down since the profiler keeps crashing (hotspot error). Before I go too deep into figuring it out I'd like to know if I really have a problem or not :-) I have a few thread pools created via: Executors.newFixedThreadPool(10); The threads connect to different web sites and, on occasion, I get connection refused and wind up throwing an exception. When I later on call Future.get() to get the result it will then catch the ExecutionException that wraps the exception that was thrown when the connection could not be made. The program uses a fairly constant amount of memory up until the point in time that the exceptions get thrown (they tend to happen in batches when a particular site is overloaded). After that point the memory again remains constant but at a higher level. So my question is along the lines of is the memory behaviour (reported by "top" on Unix) expected because the exceptions just triggered something or do I probably have an actual leak that I'll need to track down? Additionally when Future.get() throws an exception is there anything else I need to do besides catch the exception (such as call Future.cancel() on it)?

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• high cpu in IIS

  - by Miki Watts

  Hi all. I'm developing a POS application that has a local database on each POS computer, and communicates with the server using WCF hosted in IIS. The application has been deployed in several customers for over a year now. About a week ago, we've started getting reports from one of our customers that the server that the IIS is hosted on is very slow. When I've checked the issue, I saw the application pool with my process rocket to almost 100% cpu on an 8 cpu server. I've checked the SQL Activity Monitor and network volume, and they showed no significant overload beyond what we usually see. When checking the threads in Process Explorer, I saw lots of threads repeatedly calling CreateApplicationContext. I've tried installing .Net 2.0 SP1, according to some posts I found on the net, but it didn't solve the problem and replaced the function calls with CLRCreateManagedInstance. I'm about to capture a dump using adplus and windbg of the IIS processes and try to figure out what's wrong. Has anyone encountered something like this or has an idea which directory I should check ? p.s. The same version of the application is deployed in another customer, and there it works just fine. I also tried rolling back versions (even very old versions) and it still behaves exactly the same. Edit: well, problem solved, turns out I've had an SQL query in there that didn't limit the result set, and when the customer went over a certain number of rows, it started bogging down the server. Took me two days to find it, because of all the surrounding noise in the logs, but I waited for the night and took a dump then, which immediately showed me the query.

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• SQL - Multiple join conditions using OR?

  - by Brandi

  I have a query that is using multiple joins. The goal is to say "Out of table A, give me all the customer numbers in which you can match table A's EmailAddress with either email_to or email_from of table B. Ignore nulls, internal emails, etc.". It seems like it would be better to use an or condition in the join than multiple joins since it is the same table. When I try to use AND/OR it does not give the behaviour I expect... AND finishes in a reasonable time, but yields no results (I know that there are matches, so it must be some flaw in my logic) and OR never finishes (I have to kill it). Here is example code to illustrate the question: --my original query SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from RIGHT JOIN B f WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = f.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR f.email_to IS NOT NULL) Here is what I tried, (I am attempting logical equivalence): SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from OR a.EmailAddress = e.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR e.email_to IS NOT NULL) So my question is two-fold: Why does having AND in the above query work in a few seconds and OR goes for minutes and never completes? What am I missing to make a logically equivalent statement that has only one join?

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• UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

  - by prd

  Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

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• Long-held TCP sessions in an ASMX client

  - by John

  Hi, I have an ASP.NET application which talks to a third-party SOAP web service. My application uses an ASMX client proxy (i.e. System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol). The third-party service uses WCF, although I don't expect that makes much difference. I should note that we're using .NET 3.5 SP1. We haven't customised the proxy or done anything unusual - we're just making standard web service requests and getting back the results. We have encapsulated the proxy reference within a using block so it will get disposed after the response is received. We've been told that our application is behaving strangely in its use of TCP sessions. Instead of opening a new TCP session for each request from a new proxy instance (which is what I would have expected it to do), it's apparently keeping several connections alive and re-using them. This is causing some issues at the third party end, as they are expecting us to be using multiple sessions. Is this a known behaviour for the SoapHttpClientProtocol client proxy? If so, is there any way we can override it so that each request results in a new TCP session? Thanks, John

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• How to export Oracle statistics

  - by A_M

  Hi, I am writing some new SQL queries and want to check the query plans that the Oracle query optimiser would come up with in production. My development database doesn't have anything like the data volumes of the production database. How can I export database statistics from a production database and re-import them into a development database? I don't have access to the production database, so I can't simply generate explain plans on production without going through a third party hosting organisation. This is painful. So I want a local database which is in some way representative of production on which I can try out different things. Also, this is for a legacy application. I'd like to "improve" the schema, by adding appropriate indexes. constraints, etc. I need to do this in my development database first, before rolling out to test and production. If I add an index and re-generate statistics in development, then the statistics will be generated around the development data volumes, which makes it difficult to assess the impact my changes on production. Does anyone have any tips on how to deal with this? Or is it just a case of fixing unexpected behaviour once we've discovered it on production? I do have a staging database with production volumes, but again I have to go through a third party to run queries against this, which is painful. So I'm looking for ways to cut out the middle man as much as possible. All this is using Oracle 9i. Thanks.

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• multiple ajax requests with jquery

  - by Emil

  I got problems with the async nature of Javascript / JQuery. Lets say the following (no latency is counted for, in order to not make it so troublesome); I got three buttons (A, B, C) on a page, each of the buttons adds an item into a shopping cart with one ajax-request each. If I put an intentional delay of 5 seconds in the serverside script (PHP) and pushes the buttons with 1 second apart, I want the result to be the following: Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 6 seconds Request C, 7 seconds However, the result is like this Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 10 seconds Request C, 15 seconds This have to mean that the requests are queued and not run simultaneously, right? Isnt this opposite to what async is? I also tried to add a random get-parameter to the url in order to force some uniqueness to the request, no luck though. I did read a little about this. If you avoid using the same "request object (?)" this problem wont occure. Is it possible to force this behaviour in JQuery? This is the code that I am using $.ajax( { url : strAjaxUrl + '?random=' + Math.floor(Math.random()*9999999999), data : 'ajax=add-to-cart&product=' + product, type : 'GET', success : function(responseData) { // update ui }, error : function(responseData) { // show error } }); I also tried both GET and POST, no difference. I want the requests to be sent right when the button is clicked, not when the previous request is finnished. I want the requests to be run simultaneously, not in a queue.

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• git rebase without changing commit timestamps

  - by Olivier

  Would it make sense to perform git rebase while preserving the commit timestamps? I believe a consequence would be that the new branch will not necessarily have commit dates chronologically. Is that theoretically possible at all? (e.g. using plumbing commands; just curious here) If it is theoretically possible, then is it possible in practice with rebase, not to change the timestamps? For example, assume I have the following tree: master <jun 2010> | : : : oldbranch <feb 1984> : / oldcommit <jan 1984> Now, if I rebase oldbranch on master, the date of the commit changes from feb 1984 to jun 2010. Is it possible to change that behaviour so that the commit timestamp is not changed? In the end I would thus obtain: oldbranch <feb 1984> / master <jun 2010> | : Would that make sense at all? Is it even allowed in git to have a history where an old commit has a more recent commit as a parent? Edit A crucial question of Von C helped me understand what is going on: when your rebase, the committer's timestamp changes, but not the author's timestamp, which suddenly all makes sense. So my question was actually not precise enough. The answer is that rebase actually doesn't change the author's timestamps (you don't need to do anything for that), which suits me perfectly.

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• Systems design question: DB connection management in load-balanced n-tier

  - by aoven

  I'm wondering about the best approach to designing a DB connection manager for a load-balanced n-tier system. Classic n-tier looks like this: Client -> BusinessServer -> DBServer A load-balancing solution as I see it would then look like this: +--> ... +--+ +--> BusinessServer +--+--> SessionServer --+ Client -> Gateway --+--> BusinessServer +--| +--> DBServer +--> BusinessServer +--+--------------------+ +--> ... +--+ As pictured, the business server component is being load-balanced via multiple instances, and a hardware gateway is distributing the load among them. Session server probably needs to be situated outside the load-balancing array, because it manages state, which mustn't be duplicated. Barring any major errors in design so far, what is the best way to implement DB connection management? I've come up with a couple of options, but there may be others I'm not aware of: Introduce a new Broker component between the DBServer and the other components and let it handle the DB connections. The upside is that all the connections can be managed from a single point, which is very convenient. The downside is that now there is an additional "single point of failure" in the system. Other components must go through it for every request that involves DB in some way, which also makes this a bottleneck. Move the DB connection management into BusinessServer and SessionServer components and let each handle its own DB connections. The upside is that there is no additional "single point of failure" or bottleneck components. The downside is that there is also no control over possible conflicts and deadlocks apart from what DBServer itself can provide. What else can be done? FWIW: Technology is .NET, but none of the vendor-specific stacks are used (e.g. no WCF, MSMQ or the like).

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