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  • Is this a clean way to manage AsyncResults with Generic Methods?

    - by Michael Stum
    I've contributed Async Support to a Project I'm using, but I made a bug which I'm trying to fix. Basically I have this construct: private readonly Dictionary<WaitHandle, object> genericCallbacks = new Dictionary<WaitHandle, object>(); public IAsyncResult BeginExecute<T>(RestRequest request, AsyncCallback callback, object state) where T : new() { var genericCallback = new RequestExecuteCaller<T>(this.Execute<T>); var asyncResult = genericCallback.BeginInvoke(request, callback, state); genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] = genericCallback; return asyncResult; } public RestResponse<T> EndExecute<T>(IAsyncResult asyncResult) where T : new() { var cb = genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] as RequestExecuteCaller<T>; genericCallbacks.Remove(asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle); return cb.EndInvoke(asyncResult); } So I have a generic BeginExecute/EndExecute method pair. As I need to store the delegate that is called on EndExecute somewhere I created a dictionary. I'm unsure about using WaitHandles as keys though, but that seems to be the only safe choice. Does this approach make sense? Are WaitHandles unique or could I have two equal ones? Or should I instead use the State (and wrap any user provided state into my own State value)? Just to add, the class itself is non-generic, only the Begin/EndExecute methods are generic.

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  • Yahoo BOSS Question

    - by Fincha
    Hello everyone, I wonna to echo totalresults but somethink is wrong. // Get search results from Yahoo BOSS as an XML* $API = 'http://boss.yahooapis.com/ysearch/web/v1/'; $request = $API . $query .'?format=xml&appid='. APP_ID.'&start='.$start."0"; $ch = curl_init($request); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); $xml = simplexml_load_string(curl_exec($ch)); echo $xml->resultset_web->totalhits; // Display search results - Title, Date and URL. foreach ($xml->resultset_web->result as $result) { $ausgabe .= '<a href="'.$result->clickurl.'">'.$result->title.'</a><br />'; $ausgabe .= $result->abstract."<br>"; $ausgabe .= '<a href="'.$result->clickurl.'">'.$result->url."</a> - ".round(($result->size/1024), 2)." Kb<br><br>"; } Can someone help me

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  • Strange constructor

    - by Bilthon
    Well, I'm gonna be pretty straightforward here, I just have a piece of code in c++ which I'm not sure I really understand and need some help with. Ok, to simplify lets just say I have a class that is defined like this: (the real class is a little bit more complicated, but this is what matters) class myClass : public Runnable { Semaphore *m_pMySemaphore; __Queue<Requests> *m_pQueue; Request m_Request; VetorSlotBuffer *m_vetorSlotBuffer; } Up to here nothing is wrong, myClass is just a regular class which has 3 members that actually are pointers to other classes and an object of the class Request, the implementation of those classes not being important for my point here. Then when this person implemented the constructor for myClass he or she did this: myClass::myClass() : m_pMySemaphore(0), m_pQueue(0), m_vetorSlotBuffer(0) { } It's pretty evident that those three variables are treated like that by the constructor because they are pointers, am I right? but what kind of syntax is that? am I setting the pointers to null by doing that? I've seen a little bit of c++ already but never found something like that. And secondly, what's the deal with the ":" after the constructor declaration? that I've seen but never took the time to investigate. Is this like an inner class or something? Thank you very much in advance. Nelson R. Perez

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  • Link doesnt work in FF

    - by venom
    Here is the link: <a href="javascript://" onClick="print_gonder();"><img src="/images/print.gif" title="Gönder" border="0"></a> and its function print_gonder: function print_gonder() { var satirsayisi=document.list_basketww.row_count.value; var amnt=new Array(satirsayisi); var prc=new Array(satirsayisi); var kdv=new Array(satirsayisi); var kon=new Array(satirsayisi); var yap=new Array(satirsayisi); var ona=new Array(satirsayisi); var ode=new Array(satirsayisi); var tes=new Array(satirsayisi); for (i=0; i<satirsayisi; i++) { amnt[i]=eval("document.getElementById('amount" + (i+1) + "')").value; prc[i]=filterNum(eval("document.getElementById('price" + (i+1) + "')").value); kdv[i]=eval("document.getElementById('tax_dif" + (i+1) + "')").value; kon=eval("document.getElementById('konu')").value; yap=eval("document.getElementById('yapan')").value; ona=eval("document.getElementById('onay')").value; ode=eval("document.getElementById('odeme')").value; tes=eval("document.getElementById('teslim')").value; } windowopen('<cfoutput>#request.self#?fuseaction=objects2.popup_sale_propose&print=true#page_code#&amnt='+amnt+'&prc='+prc+'&kdv='+kdv+'&konu='+kon+'&yapan='+yap+'&onay='+ona+'&odeme='+ode+'&teslim='+tes+'</cfoutput>','page'); } The problem is that this link doesnt work in FF but work in IE, but if i change the function into something like this: <a href="javascript://" onClick="<cfoutput>windowopen('#request.self#?fuseaction=objects2.popup_sale_propose&print=true#page_code#','page')</cfoutput"><img src="/images/print.gif" title="Gönder" border="0"></a> it perfectly works in all the browsers.. i think that the problem is in defining the values of the functions, the FF just doesnt understand them... btw, the system is Workcube and it uses the Cold Fusion.

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  • Send email in wordpress

    - by jul
    hi, I'm trying to send an email using PHP mail() in a wordpress site. I created an empty page http://www.exam-vision.com/request-flip-up-instructions which template includes the php code shown below. When I post the data, isset($_REQUEST['email']) is false, while I can in firebug that the data have been posted correctly. What can be wrong? thanks <?php if (isset($_REQUEST['email'])) //if "email" is filled out, send email { //send email $email = $_REQUEST['email'] ; $subject = $_REQUEST['subject'] ; $message = $_REQUEST['message'] ; mail( "<someemail>", "Subject: $subject", $message, "From: $email" ); echo "Thank you for using our mail form"; } else //if "email" is not filled out, display the form { echo "<form method='post' action='http://www.exam-vision.com/request-flip-up-instructions'> Email: <input name='email' type='text' /><br /> Subject: <input name='subject' type='text' /><br /> Message:<br /> <textarea name='message' rows='15' cols='40'> </textarea><br /> <input type='submit' /> </form>"; } ?>

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  • My multipart email script sends HTML messages just fine, but the plain text alternative doesn't not

    - by hsatterwhite
    I have a script set up to send out multipart emails; plain text and html messages. The HTML messages work just fine, but when I used an email client that only does plain text the plaint text message does not render and I get the following: -- This message was generated automatically by Me http://www.somewebsite.com/ $html_msg = $message_details; $plain_text_msg = strip_tags($message_details); $headers = <<<HEADERS From: Me <[email protected]> MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: multipart/alternative; boundary="==PHP-alt$mime_boundary" HEADERS; // Use our boundary string to create plain text and HTML versions $message = <<<MESSAGE --==PHP-alt$mime_boundary Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1" Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit $plain_text_msg -- This message was generated automatically by Me http://www.somewebsite.com/ If you did not request this message, please notify [email protected] --==PHP-alt$mime_boundary Content-Type: text/html; charset="iso-8859-1" Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit <html> <body> $html_msg <p> --<br /> This message was generated automatically as a demonstration on <a href="http://www.somewebsite.com/">Me</a> </p> <p> If you did not request this message, please notify <a href="mailto:[email protected]">[email protected]</a> </p> </body> </html> --==PHP-alt$mime_boundary-- MESSAGE;

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  • memory alignment within gcc structs

    - by Mumbles
    I am porting an application to an ARM platform in C, the application also runs on an x86 processor, and must be backward compatible. I am now having some issues with variable alignment. I have read the gcc manual for __attribute__((aligned(4),packed)) I interpret what is being said as the start of the struct is aligned to the 4 byte boundry and the inside remains untouched because of the packed statement. originally I had this but occasionally it gets placed unaligned with the 4 byte boundary. typedef struct { unsigned int code; unsigned int length; unsigned int seq; unsigned int request; unsigned char nonce[16]; unsigned short crc; } __attribute__((packed)) CHALLENGE; so I change it to this. typedef struct { unsigned int code; unsigned int length; unsigned int seq; unsigned int request; unsigned char nonce[16]; unsigned short crc; } __attribute__((aligned(4),packed)) CHALLENGE; The understand I stated earlier seems to be incorrect as both the struct is now aligned to a 4 byte boundary, and and the inside data is now aligned to a four byte boundary, but because of the endianess, the size of the struct has increased in size from 42 to 44 bytes. This size is critical as we have other applications that depend on the struct being 42 bytes. Could some describe to me how to perform the operation that I require. Any help is much appreciated.

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  • Extensionless URLs in IIS 6

    - by Jason Marsell
    My client has asked me to build a personalized URL system so that they can send out really short URLs in postcards to customers like this: www.client.com/JasonSmith03 www.client.com/TonyAdams With these URLs, I need IIS 6 to trap the incoming request and pass that “JasonSmith03” token to my database to determine which landing page to redirect them to. I’d love to use an HttpHandler or HttpModule but they both look like they require an file extension (.aspx) in the URL. Wildcard mapping will chew up every incoming request and that’s ridiculous. ISAPI filters are just text routing files, so I can’t employ logic to call the database. According to Scott Guthrie, this would be cake if I had IIS 7, but I don’t. Can this be done using MVC? I’ve been working with MVP for the last few years, so I haven’t done any MVC and routing. I thought I remembered that MVC has the ability to use REST-style extensionless URLs. I’d be more than happy to have these personalized URLs land on a site that’s built in MVC, if it will work. Thank you!

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  • Proper use of HttpRequestInterceptor and CredentialsProvider in doing preemptive authentication with

    - by Preston
    I'm writing an application in Android that consumes some REST services I've created. These web services aren't issuing a standard Apache Basic challenge / response. Instead in the server-side code I'm wanting to interrogate the username and password from the HTTP(S) request and compare it against a database user to make sure they can run that service. I'm using HttpClient to do this and I have the credentials stored on the client after the initial login (at least that's how I see this working). So here is where I'm stuck. Preemptive authenticate under HttpClient requires you to setup an interceptor as a static member. This is the example Apache Components uses. HttpRequestInterceptor preemptiveAuth = new HttpRequestInterceptor() { @Override public void process( final HttpRequest request, final HttpContext context) throws HttpException, IOException { AuthState authState = (AuthState) context.getAttribute(ClientContext.TARGET_AUTH_STATE); CredentialsProvider credsProvider = (CredentialsProvider) context.getAttribute( ClientContext.CREDS_PROVIDER); HttpHost targetHost = (HttpHost) context.getAttribute(ExecutionContext.HTTP_TARGET_HOST); if (authState.getAuthScheme() == null) { AuthScope authScope = new AuthScope(targetHost.getHostName(), targetHost.getPort()); Credentials creds = credsProvider.getCredentials(authScope); if (creds != null) { authState.setAuthScheme(new BasicScheme()); authState.setCredentials(creds); } } } }; So the question would be this. What would the proper use of this be? Would I spin this up as part of the application when the application starts? Pulling the username and password out of memory and then using them to create this CredentialsProvider which is then utilized by the HttpRequestInterceptor? Or is there a way to do this more dynamically?

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  • passing in javascript values into iframe tag

    - by Cedar Jensen
    What's the best way to pass in the value held in a javascript variable into an iframe call on the same html page? I'm trying to improve my site's page response times by moving ad serving javascript code (the typical document.write('<script type="text/javascript" src="..") into a separate iframe. (Based on this posting) The request to the ad server typically require a seed variable declared once per site and incremented each time page is loaded by the client. What I want to do is pass in the seed variable into the document invoked by my iframe section. The seed variable is initialized in the 'head' tag of my main html document: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- custom_seed=1; //--> </script> </head> Later in the html document, I make the request through an iframe which returns the html necessary to invoke the ad server. <body> <!-- a bunch of html to display the page --> <iframe src="somepage.html" width="100%" height="100%"> <p>No support for iframe</p> </iframe> </body> The html returned in the 'somepage.html' has a script used to call the ad server and needs to use the earlier declared seed variable as a parameter: <script type="text/javascript"> document.write('<script type="text/javascript" src="http://ad.server.net/...seed='+ custom_seed +'?"></script>'); custom_seed++; </script> What's a good way to achieve this?

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  • SQL query in JSP file pulling variable from VXML file

    - by s1066
    Hi I'm trying to get an SQL query to work within a JSP file. The JSP file is pulled by a VXML file here is my JSP file code: <?xml version="1.0"?> <%@ page import="java.util.*" %> <%@ page import="java.sql.*" %> <% boolean success = true; // Always optimistic String info = ""; String schoolname = request.getParameter("schoolname"); String informationtype = request.getParameter("informationtype"); try { Class.forName("org.postgresql.Driver"); String connectString = "jdbc:postgresql://localhost:5435/N0176359"; String user = "****"; String password = "*****"; Connection conn = DriverManager.getConnection(connectString, user, password); Statement st = conn.createStatement(); ResultSet rsvp = st.executeQuery("SELECT * FROM lincolnshire_school_information_new WHERE school_name=\'"+schoolname+"\'"); rsvp.next(); info = rsvp.getString(2); }catch (ClassNotFoundException e) { success = false; // something went wrong } %> As you can see I'm trying to insert the value of the variable declared as "schooname" into the end of the SQL query. However when I come to run the jsp file it doesn't work and I get an error "ResultSet not positioned properly". When I put a standard query in (without trying to make it value of the variable it works fine) Hope that makes sense, and thank you for any help!

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  • HTTP: can GET and POST requests from a same machine come from different IPs?

    - by NoozNooz42
    I'm pretty sure I remember reading --but cannot find back the links anymore-- about this: on some ISP (including at least one big ISP in the U.S.) it is possible to have a user's GET and POST request appearing to come from different IPs. (note that this is totally programming related, and I'll give an example below) I'm not talking about having your IP adress dynamically change between two requests. I'm talking about this: IP 1: 123.45.67.89 IP 2: 101.22.33.44 The same user makes a GET, then a POST, then a GET again, then a POST again and the servers see this: - GET from IP 1 - POST from IP 2 - GET from IP 1 - POST from IP 2 So altough it's the same user, the webserver sees different IPs for the GET and the POSTs. Surely seen that HTTP is a stateless protocol this is perfectly legit right? I'd like to find back the explanation as to how/why certain ISP have their networks configured such that this may happen. I'm asking because someone asked me to implement the following IP filter and I'm pretty sure it is fundamentally broken code (breaking havoc for at least one major american ISP users). Here's a Java servlet filter that is supposed to protect against some attacks. The reasoning is that: "For any session filter checks that IP address in the request is the same that was used when session was created. So in this case session ID could not be stolen for forming fake sessions." http://www.servletsuite.com/servlets/protectsessionsflt.htm However I'm pretty sure this is inherently broken because there are ISPs where you may see GET and POST coming from different IPs. Any info on this subject is very welcome.

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  • ServiceLocator has not been initialized; I was trying to retrieve SharpArch.Core.CommonValidator.IVa

    - by Chinmaya
    Server Error in '/' Application. ServiceLocator has not been initialized; I was trying to retrieve SharpArch.Core.CommonValidator.IValidator Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.NullReferenceException: ServiceLocator has not been initialized; I was trying to retrieve SharpArch.Core.CommonValidator.IValidator Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [NullReferenceException: ServiceLocator has not been initialized; I was trying to retrieve SharpArch.Core.CommonValidator.IValidator] SharpArch.Core.SafeServiceLocator`1.GetService() in C:\MyStuff\Projects\SharpArchGitHub\src\SharpArch\SharpArch.Core\SafeServiceLocator.cs:20 SharpArch.Core.DomainModel.ValidatableObject.get_Validator() in C:\MyStuff\Projects\SharpArchGitHub\src\SharpArch\SharpArch.Core\DomainModel\ValidatableObject.cs:20 SharpArch.Core.DomainModel.ValidatableObject.ValidationResults() in C:\MyStuff\Projects\SharpArchGitHub\src\SharpArch\SharpArch.Core\DomainModel\ValidatableObject.cs:15 SharpArch.Web.ModelBinder.SharpModelBinder.OnModelUpdated(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) in C:\MyStuff\Projects\SharpArchGitHub\src\SharpArch\SharpArch.Web\ModelBinder\SharpModelBinder.cs:40 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.BindComplexElementalModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext, Object model) +304 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.BindComplexModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) +772 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) +345 SharpArch.Web.ModelBinder.SharpModelBinder.BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) in C:\MyStuff\Projects\SharpArchGitHub\src\SharpArch\SharpArch.Web\ModelBinder\SharpModelBinder.cs:241 System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.GetParameterValue(ControllerContext controllerContext, ParameterDescriptor parameterDescriptor) +219 System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.GetParameterValues(ControllerContext controllerContext, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor) +109 System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeAction(ControllerContext controllerContext, String actionName) +399 System.Web.Mvc.Controller.ExecuteCore() +126 System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) +27 System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.System.Web.Mvc.IController.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) +7 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext) +151 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) +57 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.System.Web.IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) +7 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +181 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +75

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  • Problem resizing loader after loading swf

    - by DanK
    I'm using the following code to load an swf in a pure actionscript project (Flex Builder 3) _loader = new Loader(); _loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, Loader_Complete); _loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.INIT, Loader_Init); var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest("Skins/TestSkin.swf"); _loader.load(request); this.addChild(_loader); This works okay and displays the swf on the stage (500x375 for some reason - not sure why, TestSkin.swf is a flex app with no defined width and height) However, when I try to scale the swf so that it will fill the stage, I have problems. I have tried: Setting _loader.width and _loader.height in my Loader_Complete handler Setting _loader.width and _loader.height in my Loader_Init handler Setting _loader.content.width and loader.content.height in my Loader_Complete handler Setting _loader.content.width and loader.content.height in my Loader_Init handler I have seen examples online where people say these work for them but whenever I set width or height in any of these ways, the loaded swf is simply not displayed at all. Any idea what could be causing this? What is the correct way to resize an swf that has been loaded with a Loader object?

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  • Getting the Access Token from a Facebook Open Graph response in Ruby

    - by Gearóid
    Hi, I'm trying to implement single sign-on using facebook in my ruby sinatra app. So far, I've been following this tutorial: http://jaywiggins.com/2010/05/facebook-oauth-with-sinatra/ I am able to send a request for a user to connect to my application but I'm having trouble actually "getting" the access token. The user can connect without trouble and I receive a response with the "code" parameter, which I'm supposed to use to exchange an Access Token - but its here where I get stuck. So I submit a url with the following parameters: https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token/{client_id}&{client_secret}&{code}&{redirect_uri} The words in the curly brackets above are obviously replaced by the values. I submit this using the following code: response = open(url) This doesn't seem to return anything of use in the way of an access token (it has a @base_uri which is the url I submitted above and few other parameters, though nothing useful looking). However, if I take that url I submitted and paste it into a browser, I receive back an access token. Can anyone tell me how I can get the request back from facebook and pull out the access token? Thanks.

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  • Reoccurring error "The current identity (NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE) does not have write access to

    - by tuseau
    Hi, I keep receiving this error in my ASP.NET web app (below). I give the Network Service account rights to the specified folder, it runs fine for a while, but then within a day or two the error reoccurs, as the Network Service account has been removed from the rights for the folder. Adding it again fixes it, but why does it keep reocurring? Could it be anything to do with using Interop components (such as WMI)? Here's the full error: Server Error in '/DriveMonitor' Application. The current identity (NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE) does not have write access to 'C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpException: The current identity (NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE) does not have write access to 'C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [HttpException (0x80004005): The current identity (NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE) does not have write access to 'C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files'.] System.Web.HttpRuntime.SetUpCodegenDirectory(CompilationSection compilationSection) +8918190 System.Web.HttpRuntime.HostingInit(HostingEnvironmentFlags hostingFlags) +152 [HttpException (0x80004005): The current identity (NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE) does not have write access to 'C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files'.] System.Web.HttpRuntime.FirstRequestInit(HttpContext context) +8890735 System.Web.HttpRuntime.EnsureFirstRequestInit(HttpContext context) +85 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestInternal(HttpWorkerRequest wr) +259

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  • .NET MVC custom routing with empty parameters

    - by user135498
    Hi All, I have a .net mvc with the following routes: routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}/{firstname}/{middlename}/{lastname}/{city}/{state}/{address}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = (string)null, middlename = (string)null, lastname = (string)null, city = (string)null, state = (string)null, address = (string)null, SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "" }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "", SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Account", action = "LogOn", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); The following request works fine: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john/w/smith/seattle/wa/123 main This request does not work: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john//smith//wa/ Not all requests will have all paramters and I would like empty parameters to be passed to the method as empty string or null. Where am I going wrong? The method: public ActionResult Search(string firstname, string middlename, string lastname, string city, string state, string address, SearchType searchtype, InputType inputtype) { SearchRequest r = new SearchRequest { Firstname = firstname, Middlename = middlename, Lastname = lastname, City = city, State = state, Address = address, SearchType = searchtype, InputType = inputtype }; return View(r); }

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How to create a usable UrlHelper instance?

    - by Marek
    I am using quartz.net to schedule regular events within asp.net mvc application. The scheduled job should call a service layer script that requires a UrlHelper instance (for creating Urls based on correct routes (via urlHelper.Action(..)) contained in emails that will be sent by the service). I do not want to hardcode the links into the emails - they should be resolved using the urlhelper. The job: public class EvaluateRequestsJob : Quartz.IJob { public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { // where to get a usable urlHelper instance? ServiceFactory.GetRequestService(urlHelper).RunEvaluation(); } } Please note that this is not run within the MVC pipeline. There is no current request being served, the code is run by the Quartz scheduler at defined times. How do I get a UrlHelper instance usable on the indicated place? If it is not possible to construct a UrlHelper, the other option I see is to make the job "self-call" a controller action by doing a HTTP request - while executing the action I will of course have a UrlHelper instance available - but this seems a little bit hacky to me.

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  • Classic ASP - Email form with attached file - please help

    - by apg1985
    Hi Guys, Ive got abit of a problem ive got an email web form that send the input to an email address but what I now need is a file input field were the user can also send an image as an attachment. So contact name, logo (attachment). Ive been told in order to send the attachment it needs to be saved in a folder on my hosting before it can be sent. Ive spoken to the hosting company and they dont have anything in place to make this easier such as aspupload. In the form name="contactname" and name="logo" I have a folder in the root directory called logos (this asp page also exists in the root directory) Man I hope someone can help me spent along time looking for answers Dim contactname, logo contactname = request.form("contactname") If request("contactname") <> "" THEN Set myMail=CreateObject("CDO.Message") myMail.Subject="Form" myMail.From="web@email" myMail.To="web@email" myMail.HTMLBody = "" & contactname & "" myMail.Configuration.Fields.Item("http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/sendusing") = 2 myMail.Configuration.Fields.Item("http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/smtpserver") = "relay.host" myMail.Configuration.Fields.Item("http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/smtpserverport") = 25 myMail.Configuration.Fields.Update myMail.Send set myMail=nothing

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  • Domain Transfer Protection - need advice

    - by Jack
    Hey, I am about to purchase a domain name for a bit of money. I do not personally know the person who I am purchasing the domain name from, we have only chatted via email. The proposed process for the transfer is: The owner of the domain lowest the domain name security and emails me the domain password, I request the transfer After the request, I transfer the money via PayPal When the money has been cleared the current domain name owner confirms the transfer via the link that he receives in that email I wait for it to be transferred. The domain is currently registered with DirectNIC - http://www.directnic.com/ Is this the best practice? Seeing I am paying a bit of money for this domain name, I am worried that after the money has been cleared that I won't see the domain name or hear from the current domain name owner again. Is there a 'domain governing body' which I can report to if this is the case? Is the proposed transfer process the best solution? Any advice would be awesome. Thanks! Jack

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  • How do I DYNAMICALLY cast in C# and return for a property

    - by ken-forslund
    I've already read threads on the topic, but can't find a solution that fits. I'm working on a drop-down list that takes an enum and uses that to populate itself. i found a VB.NET one. During the porting process, I discovered that it uses DirectCast() to set the type as it returns the SelectedValue. See the original VB here: http://jeffhandley.com/archive/2008/01/27/enum-list-dropdown-control.aspx the gist is, the control has Type _enumType; //gets set when the datasource is set and is the type of the specific enum The SelectedValue property kind of looks like (remember, it doesn't work): public Enum SelectedValue //Shadows Property { get { // Get the value from the request to allow for disabled viewstate string RequestValue = this.Page.Request.Params[this.UniqueID]; return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; } set { base.SelectedValue = value.ToString(); } } Now this touches on a core point that I think was missed in the other discussions. In darn near every example, folks argued that DirectCast wasn't needed, because in every example, they statically defined the type. That's not the case here. As the programmer of the control, I don't know the type. Therefore, I can't cast it. Additionally, the following examples of lines won't compile because c# casting doesn't accept a variable. Whereas VB's CType and DirectCast can accept Type T as a function parameter: return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true); or return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; or return (_enumType)Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) ; or return Convert.ChangeType(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true), _enumType); or return CastTo<_enumType>(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true)); So, any ideas on a solution? What's the .NET 3.5 best way to resolve this?

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  • Struts ActionError

    - by user287663
    Hi all. Anyone knows why the code below doesn't compile? The reason is that it could not find symbol for ActionError. Thanks in advance. package com.hbs; import javax.servlet.RequestDispatcher; import javax.servlet.ServletException; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletRequest; import javax.servlet.http.HttpSession; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletResponse; import org.apache.struts.action.Action; import org.apache.struts.action.ActionError; import org.apache.struts.action.ActionErrors; import org.apache.struts.action.ActionForm; import org.apache.struts.action.ActionMapping; import org.apache.struts.action.ActionForward; import org.apache.struts.util.MessageResources; import org.apache.commons.beanutils.PropertyUtils; public class FeedbackAction extends org.apache.struts.action.Action { private final static String SUCCESS = "success"; public ActionForward execute(ActionMapping mapping, ActionForm form, HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ActionErrors errors = new ActionErrors(); String fullName = (String)PropertyUtils.getSimpleProperty(form, "fullName"); String fullName1 = ""; if(fullName.equals(fullName1)) { errors.add("fullName", new ActionError("error.fullName", fullName)); saveErrors(request,errors); return (new ActionForward(mapping.getInput())); } return mapping.findForward(SUCCESS); } }

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  • Trouble adding video controls to video selected by XML comboBox

    - by user560128
    Hello, it's been a few years since I've touched flash, so perhaps I'm just overlooking something. If anyone could look at the code and offer any suggestions that would be awesome. What's working, I select a video from a combobox that is populated from an XML file, pick the video and it plays. I've been trying to add pause/play, stop, forward and reverse functionality, once I get that to work I also want to add a video scrubber(slider), and previous/next buttons to go to the previous/next video as listed in the xml file. At the moment I have a component button on the stage called playButton, which I'm trying to use for pause/play functionality. Below is my code, the player control is at the very bottom. Thanks. import fl.data.DataProvider; var nc:NetConnection = new NetConnection(); nc.connect(null); var ns:NetStream = new NetStream(nc); var videosXML:XML = new XML(); var loader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); var request:URLRequest= new URLRequest("xml/videos.xml"); var videos:Array = new Array({label:"Select a Video",data:""}); var client:Object = new Object(); theVideo.attachNetStream(ns); ns.client = client; loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE,loaderOnComplete); loader.load (request); function loaderOnComplete(event:Event):void{ videosXML = new XML(event.target.data); for each (var video:XML in videosXML.video){ videos.push({label:video.name.toString(),data:video.url.toString()}); } moviesCB.dataProvider = new DataProvider(videos); } moviesCB.addEventListener(Event.CHANGE, changeHandler); function changeHandler(event:Event):void { if(ComboBox(event.target).selectedItem.data != ""){ ns.play(ComboBox(event.target).selectedItem.data); } }; client.onMetaData = metadataHandler; function metadataHandler(md:Object):void{ } //player controls playButton.onRelease = function() { ns.pause(); }

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  • jQuery error when aborting an ajax call only in Internet Explorer

    - by Rob Crowell
    When mousing over an image in a jcarousel, my site displays a popup whose contents are loaded via ajax. I'm doing what I thought was fairly straightforward; keeping a handle to the xhrRequest object, and aborting the existing one before making a new request. It works great in all browsers except IE, where I receive an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" Here's the code that is triggering it: function showPopup { // ... code snipped ... // cancel the existing xhr request if (showPopup.xhrRequest != null) { showPopup.xhrRequest.abort(); showPopup.xhrRequest = null; } showPopup.xhrRequest = $.ajax({url: url, type: "GET", success:function(data) { $("#popup-content").html(data); } }); // ... code snipped ... } showPopup.xhrRequest = null; Works great in Firefox and Chrome. I traced the error down to this bit of code in jquery.js inside the ajax function (line 5233 in my copy of jQuery): // Override the abort handler, if we can (IE doesn't allow it, but that's OK) // Opera doesn't fire onreadystatechange at all on abort try { var oldAbort = xhr.abort; xhr.abort = function() { if (xhr ) { oldAbort.call( xhr ); } onreadystatechange( "abort" ); } catch(e) { } The specific error occurs on the oldAbort.call( xhr ) line. Any ideas?

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  • Rails' page caching vs. HTTP reverse proxy caches

    - by John Topley
    I've been catching up with the Scaling Rails screencasts. In episode 11 which covers advanced HTTP caching (using reverse proxy caches such as Varnish and Squid etc.), they recommend only considering using a reverse proxy cache once you've already exhausted the possibilities of page, action and fragment caching within your Rails application (as well as memcached etc. but that's not relevant to this question). What I can't quite understand is how using an HTTP reverse proxy cache can provide a performance boost for an application that already uses page caching. To simplify matters, let's assume that I'm talking about a single host here. This is my understanding of how both techniques work (maybe I'm wrong): With page caching the Rails process is hit initially and then generates a static HTML file that is served directly by the Web server for subsequent requests, for as long as the cache for that request is valid. If the cache has expired then Rails is hit again and the static file is regenerated with the updated content ready for the next request With an HTTP reverse proxy cache the Rails process is hit when the proxy needs to determine whether the content is stale or not. This is done using various HTTP headers such as ETag, Last-Modified etc. If the content is fresh then Rails responds to the proxy with an HTTP 304 Not Modified and the proxy serves its cached content to the browser, or even better, responds with its own HTTP 304. If the content is stale then Rails serves the updated content to the proxy which caches it and then serves it to the browser If my understanding is correct, then doesn't page caching result in less hits to the Rails process? There isn't all that back and forth to determine if the content is stale, meaning better performance than reverse proxy caching. Why might you use both techniques in conjunction?

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