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• Help with Struts Action mapping

  - by nicotine

  I am having a problem with my struts application it is a class enrollment app and when the user clicks on a "show enrolled courses" button it is supposed to show the courses they are enrolled in but it shows nothing at the moment. Struts/Apache does not return any errors, it Just shows a blank page and I cannot figure out why. My action mapping in my struts-config: <action path="/showEnrolled" type="actions.ShowEnrolledAction" name="UserFormEnrolled" scope="request" validate="true" input="/students/StudentMenu.jsp"> <forward name="success" path="/students/enrolled.jsp"/> </action> My link to the jsp enrolled.jsp page: <li><html:form action="/showEnrolled"> <html:hidden property="id" value= "<%=request.getRemoteUser()%>"/> <html:submit value = "View Enrolled Classes"/> </html:form> </li> When I click the link I get nothing but my menu on the page. The text headings for the page are not even displayed.

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• Google App Engine, parsedatetime and TimeZones

  - by Ron

  Hey guys, I'm working on a Google App Engine / Django app and I encountered the following problem: In my html I have an input for time. The input is free text - the user types "in 1 hour" or "tomorrow at 11am". The text is then sent to the server in AJAX, which parses it using this python library: http://code.google.com/p/parsedatetime/. Once parsed, the server returns an epoch timestamp of the time. Here is the problem - Google App Engine always runs on UTC. Therefore, lets say that the local time is now 11am and the UTC time is 2am. When I send "now" to the server it will return "2am", which is good because I want the date to be received in UTC time. When I send "in 1 hour" the server will return "3am" which is good, again. However, when I send "at noon" the server will return "12pm" because it thinks that I'm talking about noon UTC - but really I need it to return 3am, which is noon for the request sender.. I can pass on the TZ of the browser that sends the request, but that wont really help me - the parsedatetime library wont take a timezone argument (correct me if I'm wrong). Is there a walk around this? Maybe setting the environments TZ somehow? Thanks!

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• REST API - why use PUT DELETE POST GET?

  - by Andre

  So -i was looking through some articles on creating REST API's. And some of them suggest using all types of HTTP requests: like PUT DELETE POST GET. So - we would create for example index.php and write API this way: $method = $_SERVER['REQUEST_METHOD']; $request = split("/", substr(@$_SERVER['PATH_INFO'], 1)); switch ($method) { case 'PUT': ....some put action.... break; case 'POST': ....some post action.... break; case 'GET': ....some get action.... break; case 'DELETE': ....some delete action.... break; } Ok - granted - I don't know much baout web services (yet). But - wouldn't it be easier to just accept JSON object through normal $_POST and then respond in JSON as well. We can easily serialize/deserialize via php's json_encode and json_decode and do whatever we want with that data without having to deal with different HTTP request methods... Am I missing something? UPDATE 1: Ok - after digging through various API's and learning a lot about XML-RPC, JSON-RPC, SOAP, REST I came to a conclusion that this type of API is sound. Actually stack exchange is pretty much using this approach on their sites and I do think that these people know what they are doing Stack Exchange API.

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• Replace low level web-service reference call transport with custom one

  - by hoodoos

  I'm not sure if title sounds right actually, so I will give more explanation here. I will begin from very beginning :) I'm using c# and .net for my development. I have an application that makes requests to some soap web-service and for each user request it produces 3 to 10 requests for web-service, they should all run async to finish in one time, so I use Async method of the web-service generated reference and then wait for result on callback. But it seems like it starts a thread (or takes it from pool) for every async call I make, so if I have 10 clients I got to spawn 30 to 100 threads and it sounds terrible even for my 16 cores server :) So i wanted to replace low level transport implementation with my own which uses non-blocking sockets and can handle at least 50 sockets run parallel in one thread with not much overhead. But I actually dunno where to put my override best. I analyzed System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol class and see that it has some GetWebRequest method which I actually could use. If only I could somehow interupt the object it creates and get a http request with all headers and body from there and then send it with my own sockets.. Any ideas what approach to use? Or maybe there's something built in the framework I can use?

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• Memory Leak Looping cfmodule inside cffunction

  - by orangepips

  Hoping someone else can confirm or tell me what I'm doing wrong. I am able to consistently reproduce an OOM running by calling the file oom.cfm (shown below). Using jconsole I am able to see the request consumes memory and never releases it until complete. The issue appears to be calling <cfmodule> inside of <cffunction>, where if I comment out the <cfmodule> call things are garbage collected while the request is running. ColdFusion version: 9,0,1,274733 JVM Arguments java.home=C:/Program Files/Java/jdk1.6.0_18 java.args=-server -Xms768m -Xmx768m -Dsun.io.useCanonCaches=false -XX:MaxPermSize=512m -XX:+UseParallelGC -Xbatch -Dcoldfusion.rootDir={application.home}/ -Djava.security.policy={application.home}/servers/41ep8/cfusion.ear/cfusion.war/WEB-INF/cfusion/lib/coldfusion.policy -Djava.security.auth.policy={application.home}/servers/41ep8/cfusion.ear/cfusion.war/WEB-INF/cfusion/lib/neo_jaas.policy -Xdebug -Xrunjdwp:transport=dt_socket,server=y,suspend=n,address=56033 Test Case oom.cfm (this calls template.cfm below) <cffunction name="fun" output="false" access="public" returntype="any" hint=""> <cfset var local = structNew()/> <!--- comment out cfmodule and no OOM ---> <cfmodule template="template.cfm"> </cffunction> <cfset size = 1000 * 200> <cfloop from="1" to="#size#" index="idx"> <cfset fun()> <cfif NOT idx mod 1000> <cflog file="se-err" text="#idx# of #size#"> </cfif> </cfloop> template.cfm <!--- I am empty! --->

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• How to extract block of XML from a log file on Linux

  - by dragonmantank

  I have a log file that looks like the following: 2010-05-12 12:23:45 Some sort of log entry 2010-05-12 01:45:12 Request XML: <RootTag> <Element>Value</Element> <Element>Another Value</Element> </RootTag> 2010-05-12 01:45:32 Response XML: <ResponseRoot> <Element>Value</Element> </ResponseRoot> 2010-05-12 01:45:49 Another log entry What I want to do is extract the Request and Response XML (and ultimately dump them into their own single files). I had a similar parser that used egrep but the XML was all on one line, not multiple ones like above. The log files are also somewhat large, hitting 500-600 megs a log. Smaller logs I would read in via a PHP script and use regex matching, but the amount of memory required for such a large file would more than likely kill the script. Is there an easy way using the built-in tools on a Linux box (CentOS in this case) to extract multiple lines or am I going to have to bite the bullet and use Perl or PHP to read in the entire file to extract it?

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• Using KnockoutJs templates with jQuery

  - by balteo

  I would like to end up with the following HTML in the DOM using jQuery and KnockoutJs templates: <div class="messageToAndFromOtherMember" id="13"> <span>the message</span> <span>2012-12-02 14:05:45.0</span> </div> I have started writing my KO template as follows: <div class="messageToAndFromOtherMember" data-bind="attr:{ id: messageId}"> <span data-bind="text: message"></span> <span data-bind="text: sendDateFmted"></span> </div> Upon a successful ajax request, the following js is executed: var messageViewModel = { message: response.message, sendDateFmted: response.sendDateFmted, messageId: response.messageId }; ko.applyBindings(messageViewModel); Now I am not sure how and where to actually do the binding: since my message does not exist before the ajax request is complete and I can have as several messages... Can anyone please suggest a solution? EDIT: I have added this to the html page: <div data-bind="template: { name: 'message-template', data: messageViewModel }"></div> I now get the following js error: Uncaught Error: Unable to parse bindings. Message: ReferenceError: $messageViewModel is not defined; Bindings value: template: { name: 'message-template', data: messageViewModel }

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• Analyzing Web Application Speed

  - by Amy

  I'm a bit confused because the logical/programmer brain in me says that if all things are constant, the speed of a function must be constant. I am working on a PHP web application with jqGrid as a front end for showing the data. I am testing on my personal computer, so network traffic does not apply. I make an HTTP request to a PHP function, it returns the data, and then jqGrid renders it. What has me befuddled is that sometimes, Firebug reports that this is taking 300-600 milliseconds sometimes, and sometimes, it's taking 3.68 seconds. I can run the request over and over again, with very radically different response times. The query is the same. The number of users on the system is the same. No network latency. Same code. I'm not running other applications on the computer while testing. I could understand query caching improving performance on subsequent requests, but the speed is just fluctuating wildly with no rhyme or reason. So, my question is, what else can cause such variability in the response time? How can I determine what's doing it? More importantly, is there any way to get things more consistent?

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• How to process AJAX requests more securely in PHP?

  - by animuson

  Ok, so I want to send AJAX requests to my website from my Flash games to process data, but I don't want people downloading them, decompiling them, then sending fake requests to be processed, so I'm trying to figure out the most secure way to process in the PHP files. My first idea was to use Apache's built in Authorization module to require a username and password to access the pages on a separate subdomain of my website, but then you'd have to include that username and password in the AJAX request anyway so that seems kind of pointless to even try. My current option looks pretty promising but I want to make sure it will work. Basically it just checks the IP address being sent using REMOTE_ADDR to make sure it's the IP address that my server runs on. <? $allowed = new Array("64.120.211.89", "64.120.211.90"); if (!in_array($_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'], $allowed)) header("HTTP/1.1 403 Forbidden"); ?> Both of those IP addresses point to my server. Things I'm worried about: 1) If I send a request from Flash/ActionScript, will that affect the IP address in any way? 2) Is it possible for malicious users to change the IP address that is being sent with REMOTE_ADDR to one of my IP addresses? Any other ways you would suggest that might be more secure?

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• PHP cURL error: "Empty reply from server"

  - by ABach

  All, I have a class function to interface with the RESTful API for Last.FM - its purpose is to grab the most recent tracks for my user. Here it is: private static $base_url = 'http://ws.audioscrobbler.com/2.0/'; public static function getTopTracks($options = array()) { $options = array_merge(array( 'user' => 'bachya', 'period' => NULL, 'api_key' => 'xxxxx...', // obfuscated, obviously ), $options); $options['method'] = 'user.getTopTracks'; // Initialize cURL request and set parameters $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt_array($ch, array( CURLOPT_URL => self::$base_url, CURLOPT_POST => TRUE, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS => $options, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER => TRUE, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT => 30, CURLOPT_USERAGENT => 'Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 5.01; Windows NT 5.0)' )); $results = curl_exec($ch); return $results; } This returns "Empty reply from server". I know that some have suggested that this error comes from some fault in network infrastructure; I do not believe this to be true in my case. If I run a cURL request through the command line, I get my data; the Last.FM service is up and accessible. Before I go to those folks and see if anything has changed, I wanted to check with you fine folks and see if there's some issue in my code that would be causing this. Thanks!

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• UISplitView's DetailView not changing its content

  - by Knodel

  I have an iPad app with a UISplitView. In the Root View I have a two level UITableView (it takes its content from a plist). In the Detail View I have a UIWebView. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { //Get the dictionary of the selected data source. NSDictionary *dictionary = [self.tableDataSource objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; //Get the children of the present item. NSArray *Children = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Children"]; RootViewController *rvController = [[RootViewController alloc] init]; rvController.CurrentTitle = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Title"]; rvController.CurrentLevel = +1; //Push the new table view on the stack [self.navigationController pushViewController:rvController animated:YES]; rvController.tableDataSource = Children; NSString *name = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@.rtfd.zip", rvController.CurrentTitle ]; NSString* resourcePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath]; NSString* sourceFilePath = [resourcePath stringByAppendingPathComponent:name]; NSURL* url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:sourceFilePath isDirectory:NO]; NSURLRequest* request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [detailViewController.webView loadRequest:request]; } That's how I want the UIWebView's content to be changed. If I name the .rtfd.zip file the same as a first level cell of the UITableView, it works, UIWebView's content changes. But this doesn't work with the second level UITableView. What am I doing wrong? Thanks in advance!

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• POST xml to php with apache2

  - by Berry

  I'm working on an application that receives XML data via POST, processes it with a PHP script, and returns an XML response. I'm getting the XML with this PHP code: $requestStr = file_get_contents('php://input'); $requests = simplexml_load_string($requestStr); which works fine on the Linux-based product hardware using nginx as the server. However, for testing I'd like to be able to run it on my MacBook Pro, so I can avoid the "build image, install on product, reboot product, wait, test change" loop while I do targeted development on this XML processor. I enabled "web sharing" which starts up Apache, added a rewrite rule to point a convenient URI at my development source directory and used curl to send a request to my PHP script thus: curl -H "Content-Type:text/xml" -d @request.xml http://localhost/test/path/testscript "testscript" is handled by the PHP script fine, but when it goes to read "php:://input" I get nothing -- the empty string. Anyone have a clue why this would work under Linux with nginx and not under MacOS with Apache? I've googled and searched stackoverlow.com to no avail. Thanks for any answers. UPDATE: I've discovered that at least in this configuration, reading from php://stdin will work fine, while php://input will not. Who knew?

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• How to fetch and populate backbone model for Google Places JS API?

  - by code-gijoe

  I'm implementing a system that require access to Google Places JS API. I've been using rails for most of the project, but now I want to inject a bit of AJAX in one of my views. Basically it is a view that displays places near your location. For this, I'm using the JS API of Google places. A quick workflow would be: 1- The user inputs a text query and hits enter. 2- There is an AJAX call to request data from Google Places API. 3- The successful result is presented to the user. The problem is primarily in step 2. I want to use backbone for this but when I create a backbone model, it requests to the 'rootURL'. This wouldn't be a problem if the requests to Places was done from the server but it is not. A place call is done like this: service = new google.maps.places.PlacesService(map); service.nearbySearch(request, callback); Passing a callback function: function callback(results, status) { if (status == google.maps.places.PlacesServiceStatus.OK) { for (var i = 0; i < results.length; i++) { var place = results[i]; createMarker(results[i]); } } } Is it possible to override the 'fetch' method in backbone model and populate the model with the successful Places result? Is this a bad idea?

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• ASP.NET MVC Posted date field comes in as 1/1/0001

  - by engil

  Just started working with .NET and MVC(1). I'm having a problem wherein in my add action the entered date for some reason ends up as 1/1/0001 instead of what is entered thus causing a date overflow. In my model, this field ("Added") is is of type datetime and does not allow nulls. In my controller I have: public ActionResult Add() { Instance instance = new Instance() { Added = DateTime.Now, Active = true }; return View(instance); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Add(Instance instance) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { System.Diagnostics.Trace.Write("test"); instanceRepository.Add(instance); instanceRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = instance.InstanceID }); } catch { ModelState.AddRuleViolations(instance.GetRuleViolations()); } } return View(instance); } And in my view I have: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Added) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Added,String.Format("{0:g}",Model.Added))%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Added) %> When I first go to Instances/Add the default value is set correctly, however as soon as I submit the date turns into 1/1/0001 (from my understanding this indicates that it was either null or in an unrecognizable format) When I debug and palce a watch on Request.Form I see the date coming in encoded ie Request.Form {Added=4%2f9%2f2010+8%3a24%3a39+AM} - is this an issue? I know its probably not enough information to make a conlusive determination on why this is failing, but if someone could provide some good debugging tips on how to determine where the submitted date is getting munged I'd really appreciate it.

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• How do I convert an AMD module from a singleton to an instance?

  - by Jamie Ide

  I'm trying to convert a working Durandal view model module from a singleton to an instance. The original working version followed this pattern: define(['knockout'], function(ko) { var vm = { activate: activate, companyId: null; company: ko.observable({}) }; return vm; function activate(companyId) { vm.companyId = companyId; //get company data then vm.company(data); } } The new version exports a function so that I get a new instance on every request... define(['knockout'], function(ko) { var vm = function() { activate = activate; companyId = null; company = ko.observable({}); }; return vm; function activate(companyId) { vm.companyId = companyId; //get company data then vm.company(data); } } The error I'm getting is "object function () [...function signature...] has no method company on the line vm.company(data);. What am I doing wrong? Why can I set the property but can't access the knockout observable? How should I refactor the original code so that I get a new instance on every request? My efforts to simplify the code for this question hid the actual problem. My real code was using Q promises and calling two methods with Q.All. Since Q is in the global namespace, it couldn't resolve my viewmodel after converting to a function. Passing the view model to the methods called by Q resolved the problem.

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• Crystal Report with Error : A number range is required here.

  - by gofor.net

  Hi Everyone, I am using the crystal report, in that i am using code like below to show the SQL data into the crystal report, string req = "{View_EODPumpTest.ROId} IN " + str + " AND " + "({View_EODPumpTest.RecordCreatedDate}>=date(" + fromDate.Year + " , " + fromDate.Month + " , " + fromDate.Day + ")" + "AND" + "{View_EODPumpTest.RecordCreatedDate}<=date(" + toDate.Year + " , " + toDate.Month + " ," + toDate.Day + " ))"; ReportDocument rep = new ReportDocument(); rep.Load(Server.MapPath("PumpTestReport.rpt")); DateTime fromDate = DateTime.Parse(Request.QueryString["fDate"].ToString()); DateTime toDate = DateTime.Parse(Request.QueryString["tDate"].ToString()); CrystalReportViewer_PumpTest.ReportSource = rep; //CrystalReportViewer1.SelectionFormula = str; rep.RecordSelectionFormula = str; CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.TextObject from = ((CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.TextObject)rep.ReportDefinition.ReportObjects["txtFrom"]); from.Text = fromDate.ToShortDateString(); CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.TextObject to = ((CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.TextObject)rep.ReportDefinition.ReportObjects["txtTO"]); to.Text = toDate.ToShortDateString(); //Session["Repo"] = rep; CrystalReportViewer_PumpTest.RefreshReport(); after running my application it executes fine with no exception but such error i am getting, A number range is required here. Error in File C:\DOCUME~1\Delmon\LOCALS~1\Temp\PumpTestReport {14E557A7-51B3-4791-9C78-B6FBAFFBD87C}.rpt: Error in formula . '{View_EODPumpTest.ROId} IN ['15739410','13465410'] AND ({View_EODPumpTest.RecordCreatedDate}>=date(2010 , 12 , 1)AND{View_EODPumpTest.RecordCreatedDate}<=date(2010 , 12 ,25 ))' A number range is required here. error. what i will do for this? Please help, Thanks in advance

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• Retrieve OpenId FullName from Google

  - by user294711

  I'm using DotNetOpenAuth lib to work with Google(only) OpenId. And I'm retrieving Email without any problem. But I can't get FullName, it is always null. request.AddExtension(new ClaimsRequest { Email = DemandLevel.Require, FullName = DemandLevel.Require }); ClaimsResponse claimsResponse = relyingPartyResponse.GetExtension<ClaimsResponse>(); if (claimsResponse != null) { var email = claimsResponse.Email; var fullName = claimsResponse.FullName; } I googled this problem and found that: Glad you got it working. Google will not give a full name or nickname for their users. They ONLY give email address, and (I think, but perhaps only on a white list) the timezone. It's not a matter of figuring out how to rig your RP so that it works. Google just won't do it yet. – Andrew Arnott Sep 8 at 14:22 stackoverflow.com/questions/1387438/retrieve-openid-user-information-claims-across-providers But it was in Sep 2009, maybe something was changed from that moment... I've found that in http://code.google.com/apis/accounts/docs/OpenID.html: openid.ax.required -- (required) Specifies the attribute being requested. Valid values include: "country", "email", "firstname", "language", "lastname". To request multiple attributes, set this parameter to a comma-delimited list of attributes. So, my question is how can I get FullName (FirstName, LastName) from Google OpenId?

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• Multiple Concurrent Postbacks when using UpdatePanels

  - by d4nt

  Here's an example app that I built to demonstrate my problem. A single aspx page with the following on it: <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager runat="server" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnGo" Text="Go" OnClick="btnGo_Click" /> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="txtVal1" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> Then, in code behind, we have the following: protected void btnGo_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(5000); Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("{0}: {1}", DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:MM:ss.fffffff"), txtVal1.Text)); txtVal1.Text = ""; } If you run this and click on the "Go" button multiple times you will see multiple debug statements on the "Output" window showing that multiple requests have been processed. This appears to contradict the documented behaviour of update panels (i.e. If you make a request while one is processing, the first requests gets terminated and the current one is processed). Anyway, the point is I want to fix it. The obvious option would be to use Javascript to disable the button after the first press, but that strikes me as hard to maintain, we potentially have the same issue on a lot of screens it could be easily broken if someone renames a button. Do you have any suggestions? Perhaps there is something I could do in BeginRequest in Global.asax to detect a duplicate request? Is there some setting or feature on the UpdatePanel to stop it doing this, or maybe something in the AjaxControlToolkit that will prevent it?

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• C Nested Structure Pointer Problem

  - by Halo

  I have a shared structure, and inside it a request structure: struct shared_data { pthread_mutex_t th_mutex_queue; struct request_queue { int min; int max; char d_name[DIR_SIZE]; pid_t pid; int t_index; } request_queue[BUFSIZE]; int count; int data_buffer_allocation[BUFSIZE]; int data_buffers[BUFSIZE][100]; }; Then I prepare a request; struct shared_data *sdata_ptr; ... ... sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].pid = pid; strcpy(sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].d_name, dir_path_name); sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].min = min; sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].max = max; And the compiler warns me that I'm doing an incompatible implicit declaration in the strcpy function. I guess that's a problem with the pointers, but isn't what I wrote above supposed to be true?

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• PHP: Best solution for links breaking in a mod_rewrite app

  - by psil

  I'm using mod rewrite to redirect all requests targeting non-existent files/directories to index.php?url=* This is surely the most common thing you do with mod_rewrite yet I have a problem: Naturally, if the page url is "mydomain.com/blog/view/1", the browser will look for images, stylesheets and relative links in the "virtual" directory "mydomain.com/blog/view/". Problem 1: Is using the base tag the best solution? I see that none of the PHP frameworks out there use the base tag, though. I'm currently having a regex replace all the relative links to point to the right path before output. Is that "okay"? Problem 2: It is possible that the server doesn't support mod_rewrite. However, all public files like images, stylesheets and the requests collector index.php are located in the directory /myapp/public. Normally mod_rewrite points all request to /public so it seems as if public was actually the root directory too all users. However if there is no mod_rewrite, I then have to point the users to /public from the root directory with a header() call. That means, however that all links are broken again because suddenly all images, etc. have to be called via /public/myimage.jpg Additional info: When there is no mod_rewrite the above request would look like this: mydomain.com/public/index.php/blog/view/1 What would be the best solutions for both problems?

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• Sending JSON to a server

  - by SK9

  I'm running the following Java, an HttpURLConnection PUT request with JSON data that will be sent from an Android device. I'll handle any raised exceptions after this is working. Authenticator.setDefault(new Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication(nameString, pwdString.toCharArray()); } }); url = new URL(myURLString); HttpURLConnection urlConnection = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); urlConnection.setDoOutput(true); urlConnection.setChunkedStreamingMode(0); urlConnection.setRequestMethod("PUT"); urlConnection.setRequestProperty("Content-Type", "application/json"); OutputStream output = null; try { output = urlConnection.getOutputStream(); output.write(jsonArray.toString().getBytes()); } finally { if (output != null) { output.close(); } } int status = ((HttpURLConnection) urlConnection).getResponseCode(); System.out.println("" + status); urlConnection.disconnect(); I'm receiving an HTTP 500 error (internal error code), that an unexpected property is blocking the request. The JSONArray comprises JSONObjects whose keys I know are correct. The server is pretty standard, and expects HTTP PUTs with JSON bodies. Am I missing something glaring? Thanking you kindly in advance.

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• POST a form in an iframe.

  - by Stavros Korokithakis

  I would like to POST a form in an iframe, generated like so: My JS loads an iframe inside the page, adds a form to the iframe and submits the form. What I would like to happen is the iframe to load the result of that request. So, I would effectively like to post a form and render the result inside the iframe, without touching the parent (apart from putting the iframe up for display in the first place). I am using the code from this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/133925/javascript-post-request-like-a-form-submit/134003#134003 but I can't get it to not reload the parent. I post the form, and instead of the iframe refreshing, the entire parent refreshes. I don't know why that is, since the url it's posting to is different and would at least redirect there. Can anyone help me with this problem? I just want a post inside an iframe and only within the iframe, basically. EDIT: After some more research, apparently the form is not being created properly. I'm using document.createElement("form") and then document.getElementById("my_iframe_id").appendChild(form) to append it, but it does not seem to be working correctly.

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• Django/jQuery - read file and pass to browser as file download prompt

  - by danspants

  I've previously asked a question regarding passing files to the browser so a user receives a download prompt. However these files were really just strings creatd at the end of a function and it was simple to pass them to an iframe's src attribute for the desired effect. Now I have a more ambitious requirement, I need to pass pre existing files of any format to the browser. I have attempted this using the following code: def return_file(request): try: bob=open(urllib.unquote(request.POST["file"]),"rb") response=HttpResponse(content=bob,mimetype="application/x-unknown") response["Content-Disposition"] = "attachment; filename=nothing.xls" return HttpResponse(response) except: return HttpResponse(sys.exc_info()) With my original setup the following jQuery was sufficient to give the desired download prompt: jQuery('#download').attr("src","/return_file/"); However this won't work anymore as I need to pass POST values to the function. my attempt to rectify that is below, but instead of a download prompt I get the file displayed as text. jQuery.get("/return_file/",{"file":"c:/filename.xls"},function(data) { jQuery(thisButton).children("iframe").attr("src",data); }); Any ideas as to where I'm going wrong? Thanks!

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• How to send parameters with same encoding from javascript?

  - by nimcap

  I have a javascript file that lots of people have embedded to their pages. Since I am hosting the file, I have control over that javascript file; I cannot control the way it is embedded because lots of people is using it already. This javascript file sends GET requests to my servlets, and the parameters passed with the request are recorded to DB. For example, javascript sends a request to http://myserver.com/servlet?p1=123&p2=aString and then servlet records 123 and aString to DB somehow. Before sending strings I use encodeURIComponent() to encode it. But what I figured out is every client sends the same string with different encodings depending on either their browser or the site they are visiting. As a result, same strings are represented with different characters when it reaches servlet (so they are different strings). What I am trying to do is to convert the strings to one kind of encoding from javascript so when they reach the client same words are represented with same characters. How is this possible? PS. If there is a way to convert the encoding from Java it is also applicable.

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• Prevent comment form re-submission

  - by Rob

  I'm got a comment form for an article and i'd to prevent re-submission. I notice that Worpdress handles this very well (going back doesn't cause the browser to request a form re-submission), but I can't figure out how they do it, even though our methods are very similar. My Script User visits mydomain.com/article/1/article_title.html Fills in a form which posts to mydomain.com/addnewcomment/1.html I then do a 302 redirect back to mydomain.com/article/1/article_title.html Now if I press back from this position it doesn't request a redirect. However, if I go to another page e.g. mydomain.com/tag/1/my_tag.html and press back it does resubmit the form. Obviously I want to prevent this. What Wordpress does User visits mydomain.com/?p=1 Fills in a form which posts to mydomain.com/wp-comments-post.php This then does a 302 redirect back to mydomain.com/?p=1 Pressing back or visiting another page and pressing back doesn't cause a re-submission. I've had a look through the WP code but I can't see how they manage this. Obviously it's something i'd like to achieve. Does anyone have any thoughts on where I may be going wrong? (I'm only using Wordpress as an example to prove that it's possible, obviously i'm not trying to exactly duplicate WP, that would be pointless)

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