Search Results

Search found 7415 results on 297 pages for 'man behind'.

Page 258/297 | < Previous Page | 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265  | Next Page >

• .net web service annoying issue

  - by JL

  Excuse the title, but it's best I just explain the problem. I have 2 projects in my solution A Class Library A Web Application, which consists of a web service (asmx). the web service has code sitting in the app_code folder, with a file [webservicename].cs Inside the webservice code behind class, I have a web method here is a sample example (its simplified): [WebMethod] public EnumTaskExportState ProcessTask() { var tm = new UploadTaskManager(); return tm.ProcessTask(); } Now at design time, in visual studio (2010 or 2008), when I right click on UploadTaskMananger, and then select "Go to definition". I get taken to AppData\Temp[some folder structure]...etc.... and it displays the public class definition. Instead I would like to have complete integration, so that I get taken directly to the actual class in the class library project. My guess is, this is happening because I am using the app_code route, and not a compiled file for the web service class. But I don't know any other way to do this. How can I fix this? Possibly do away with the need for the app_code directory?

  Read the article

• Structuring iPhone/iPad application views

  - by Mark

  I have an idea about an application that I want to build and Im new to iPhone/iPad development (but not new to development in other languages/frameworks such as .NET and Java). I want to layout some views on the screen so that they animate (slide in) from different directions into their places. The question is about the strucuture of the application, if I have say 4 rectanglular areas on the screen that contain business data, such as contacts (name, photo, etc...) and they all take up different widths of the screen (say the first contact takes up one row of the screen, but the next 2 take up half the width of the next row each, and so on). Should I create a custom view for the different sized contact views, (i.e. LargeCustomView and SmallCustomView, and any other special type that I make) or should it all be one type, say, CustomerDetailsView which could be stretched to fit at design time? Also, if there were, say, 3 different instances of the same custom view on the one screen, are there 3 instances of the view controller also? Im a little confused about powering the data behind a view, can someone shed some light on this for me? Do I just set the properties (say an instance variable ContactForView) on the view controller for each instance? Thanks for any help you can give Cheers, Mark

  Read the article

• Windows service: Listening on socket while running as LocalSystem

  - by Socob

  I'm writing a small server-like program in C for Windows (using MinGW/GCC, testing on Windows 7) which is eventually supposed to run as a service with the LocalSystem account. I am creating a socket, and using Windows Sockets bind(), listen() and accept() to listen for incoming connections. If I run the application from the command line (i.e. not as a service, but as a normal user), I have no problems connecting to it from external IPs. However, if I run the program as a service with the LocalSystem account, I can only connect to the service from my own PC, either with 127.0.0.1 or my local address, 192.168.1.80 (I'm behind a router in a small local network). Neither external IPs nor other PCs in the same local network, using my local address, can connect now, even though there were no problems without running as a service. Now, I've heard that networking is handled differently or even not accessible (?) when running as LocalSystem or LocalService or that services cannot access both the desktop and the network (note: my service is not interactive) at the same time due to security considerations. Essentially, I need to find out what's going wrong/how to listen for connections in a service. Is running as NetworkService the same as running as LocalSystem, but with network access? Surely there must be servers that can run as background services, so how do they do it?

  Read the article

• Automating Excel through the PIA makes VBA go squiffy.

  - by Jon Artus

  I have absolutely no idea how to start diagnosing this, and just wondered if anyone had any suggestions. I'm generating an Excel spreadsheet by calling some Macros from a C# application, and during the generation process it somehow breaks. I've got a VBA class containing all of my logging/error-handling logic, which I instantiate using a singleton-esque accessor, shown here: Private mcAppFramework As csys_ApplicationFramework Public Function AppFramework() As csys_ApplicationFramework If mcAppFramework Is Nothing Then Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework Call mcAppFramework.bInitialise End If Set AppFramework = mcAppFramework End Function The above code works fine before I've generated the spreadsheet, but afterwards fails. The problem seems to be the following line; Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework which I've never seen fail before. If I add a watch to the variable being assigned here, the type shows as csys_ApplicationFramework/wksFoo, where wksFoo is a random worksheet in the same workbook. What seems to be happening is that while the variable is of the right type, rather than filling that slot with a new instance of my framework class, it's making it point to an existing worksheet instead, the equivalent of Set mcAppFramework = wksFoo which is a compiler error, as one might expect. Even more bizarrely, if I put a breakpoint on the offending line, edit the line, and then resume execution, it works. For example, I delete the word 'New' move off the line, move back, re-type 'New' and resume execution. This somehow 'fixes' the workbook and it works happily ever after, with the type of the variable in my watch window showing as csys_ApplicationFramework/csys_ApplicationFramework as I'd expect. This implies that manipulating the workbook through the PIA is somehow breaking it temporarily. All I'm doing in the PIA is opening the workbook, calling several macros using Excel.Application.Run(), and saving it again. I can post a few more details if anyone thinks that it's relevant. I don't know how VBA creates objects behind the scenes or how to debug this. I also don't know how the way the code executes can change without the code itself changing. As previously mentioned, VBA has frankly gone a bit squiffy on me... Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• please help me for performing serch in my program

  - by Abid

  i want to perform searching in my programe.. i have my class in which i have made a function i.e. public DataTable Search() { string SQL = "Select * from Customer where " + mField + " like '%" + mValue + "%'"; DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt = dm.GetData(SQL); return (dt); } in which i have made setters and getters for mField and mValue.. where dm is the object of class Datamanagement in which i have made a function GetData i.e. public DataTable GetData(string SQL) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(); SqlDataAdapter dbAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); DataTable DataTable = new DataTable(); command.Connection = clsConnection.GetConnection(); command.CommandText = SQL; dbAdapter.SelectCommand = command; dbAdapter.Fill(DataTable); return (DataTable); } and behind the search button, i have written.. private void btnfind_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //cust is the object of class customer// if (tbCustName.Text != "") { cust.Field="CustName"; cust.Value = tbCustName.Text; } else if (tbAddress.Text != "") { cust.Value = tbAddress.Text; cust.Field="Address"; } else if (tbEmail.Text != "") { cust.Value = tbEmail.Text; cust.Field="Email"; } else if (tbCell.Text != "") { cust.Value = tbCell.Text; cust.Field = "Cell"; } DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt = cust.Search(); dgCustomer.DataSource = dt; RefreshGrid(); } where my referesh grid fuction does that : private void RefreshGrid() { DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt = cust.GetCustomers(); dgCustomer.DataSource = dt; } but this is not working.. i dont knw y.. please help..

  Read the article

• initalizing two pointers to same value in "for" loop

  - by MCP

  I'm working with a linked list and am trying to initalize two pointers equal to the "first"/"head" pointer. I'm trying to do this cleanly in a "for" loop. The point of all this being so that I can run two pointers through the linked list, one right behind the other (so that I can modify as needed)... Something like: //listHead = main pointer to the linked list for (blockT *front, *back = listHead; front != NULL; front = front->next) //...// back = back->next; The idea being I can increment front early so that it's one ahead, doing the work, and not incrementing "back" until the bottom of the code block in case I need to backup in order to modify the linked list... Regardless as to the "why" of this, in addition to the above I've tried: for (blockT *front = *back = listHead; /.../ for (blockT *front = listHead, blockT *back = listHead; /.../ I would like to avoid pointer to a pointer. Do I just need to initialize these before the loop? As always, thanks!

  Read the article

• How to synchronize two (or n) replication processes for SQL Server databases?

  - by Yauheni Sivukha

  There are two master databases and two read-only copies updated by standard transactional replication. It is needed to map some entity from both read-only databases, lets say that A databases contains orders and B databases contains lines. The problem is that replication to one database can lag behind replication of second database, and at the moment of mapping R-databases will have inconsistent data. For example. We stored 2 orders with lines at 19:00 and 19:03. Mapping process started at 19:05, but to the moment of mapping A database replication processed all changes up to 19:03, but B database replication processed only changes up to 19:00. After mapping we will have order entity with order as of 19:03 and lines as of 19:00. The troubles are guaranteed:) In my particular case both databases have temporal model, so it is possible to fetch data for every time slice, but the problem is to identify time of latest replication. Question: How to synchronize replication processes for several databases to avoid situation described above? Or, in other words, how to compare last time of replication in each database? UPD: The only way I see to synchronize is to continuously write timestamps into service tables in each database and to check these timestamps on replicated servers. Is that acceptable solution?

  Read the article

• Javascript object properties access functions in parent constructor?

  - by Bob Spryn

  So I'm using this pretty standard jquery plugin pattern whereby you can grab an api after applying the jquery function to a specific instance. This API is essentially a javascript object with a bunch of methods and data. So I wanted to essentially create some private internal methods for the object only to manipulate data etc, which just doesn't need to be available as part of the API. So I tried this: // API returned with new $.TranslationUI(options, container) $.TranslationUI = function (options, container) { // private function? function monkey(){ console.log("blah blah blah"); } // extend the default settings with the options object passed this.settings = $.extend({},$.TranslationUI.defaultSettings,options); // set a reference for the container dom element this.container = container; // call the init function this.init(); }; The problem I'm running into is that init can't call that function "monkey". I'm not understanding the explanation behind why it can't. Is it because init is a prototype method?($.TranslationUI's prototype is extended with a bunch of methods including init elsewhere in the code) $.extend($.TranslationUI, { prototype: { init : function(){ // doesn't work monkey(); // editing flag this.editing = false; // init event delegates here for // languagepicker $(this.settings.languageSelector, this.container).bind("click", {self: this}, this.selectLanguage); } } }); Any explanations would be helpful. Would love other thoughts on creating private methods with this model too. These particular functions don't HAVE to be in prototype, and I don't NEED private methods protected from being used externally, but I want to know how should I have that requirement in the future.

  Read the article

• Is Maven really flexible?

  - by Dima

  I understand how Maven works with .java files in src/java/main. But may it be used for a more general case? Let us put it more abstract: Suppose I already have some a.exe that read some (not necessarily only .java) sources from directories A1, A2, A3 and puts some files (maybe some are generated .java) to directories B1, B2. I also have some b.exe that currently reads files from B1, B2, B3 and generates something else. Some more similar steps. (A real life problem stands behind). I would like to right POM.xml file so that maven will do this work. Is that possible? I assume that a.exe and b.exe should be warped as maven plugings. Next, in Maven docs I see : <build> <sourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/main/java</sourceDirectory> <scriptSourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/main/scripts</scriptSourceDirectory> <testSourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/test/java</testSourceDirectory> <outputDirectory>${basedir}/target/classes</outputDirectory> <testOutputDirectory>${basedir}/target/test-classes</testOutputDirectory> ... </build> What bothers me is that "sourceDirectory" looks by itself as a hard coded name. Will Maven accept A1 and A2 tags instead?

  Read the article

• How to make sure an action completes before you continue

  - by HurkNburkS

  I am trying to close a UIView thats in one method from another method by calling it, The UIView closes fine but not untill after all of the processes are finished in the current method. I would like to know if there is a way to force the first thing to happen first (i.e. close UIviews) then continue the current method? This is what my method looks like - (void)selectDeselectAllPressed:(UIButton*)button { int id = button.tag; [SVProgressHUD showWithStatus:@"Updating" maskType:SVProgressHUDMaskTypeGradient]; [self displaySelected]; // removes current view so you can load hud will not be behind it if (id == 1) { [self selectAllD]; } else if (id == 2) { [self deselectAllD]; } else if (id == 3) { [self selectAllI]; } else if (id == 4) { [self deselectAllI]; } } as you can see what happens is this method is called when a button is pressed, I would like for the displaySelected method to do what it needs to do before any of the other methods are called? Currently what happes when i debug this is displaySelected method is called the thread walks through that then continues to the if statment then after the method in the if statment has finished then displaySelected changes are made... its so weird. any help would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Need some help understanding a weird C behavior

  - by mike

  This part of my code works fine: #include <stdio.h> int main(){ //char somestring[3] = "abc"; int i, j; int count = 5; for((i=0) && (j=0); count > 0; i++ && j++){ printf("i = %d and j = %d\n", i, j); count--; } return 0; } The output as expected: i : 0 and j : 0 i : 1 and j : 1 i : 2 and j : 2 i : 3 and j : 3 i : 4 and j : 4 Things get weird when I uncomment the char string declaration on the first line of the function body. #include <stdio.h> int main(){ char somestring[3] = "abc"; ... } The output: i : 0 and j : 4195392 i : 1 and j : 4195393 i : 2 and j : 4195394 i : 3 and j : 4195395 i : 4 and j : 4195396 What's the logic behind this? I'm using gcc 4.4.1 on Ubuntu 9.10.

  Read the article

• templated method on T inside a templated class on TT : Is that possible/correct.

  - by paercebal

  I have a class MyClass which is templated on typename T. But inside, I want a method which is templated on another type TT (which is unrelated to T). After reading/tinkering, I found the following notation: template <typename T> class MyClass { public : template<typename TT> void MyMethod(const TT & param) ; } ; For stylistic reasons (I like to have my templated class declaration in one header file, and the method definitions in another header file), I won't define the method inside the class declaration. So, I have to write it as: template <typename T> // this is the type of the class template <typename TT> // this is the type of the method void MyClass<T>::MyMethod(const TT & param) { // etc. } I knew I had to "declare" the typenames used in the method, but didn't know how exactly, and found through trials and errors. The code above compiles on Visual C++ 2008, but: Is this the correct way to have a method templated on TT inside a class templated on T? As a bonus: Are there hidden problems/surprises/constraints behind this kind of code? (I guess the specializations can be quite amusing to write)

  Read the article

• Is there a way to rotate an html table?

  - by Josh

  Is there a way to rotate an html table? So, say I had a table like this: <table id="table-1" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="2"> <tr><td>1</td></tr> <tr><td>2</td></tr> <tr><td>3</td></tr> <tr><td>4</td></tr> <tr><td>5</td></tr> <tr><td>6</td></tr> </table> and wanted to some sort of button that had javascript behind it that could rotate the table any which direction. For example, clicking the right button, results in: <table id="table-1" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="2"> <tr><td>6</td><td>5</td><td>4</td><td>3</td><td>2</td><td>1</td></tr> </table> I have a drag and drop plugin that uses a table, and I am trying to do a piece that allows for a user to add to a queue (that results in the table), and then they can also rotate it around as well. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Accessing to Request object will lead to ReadEntityBody to return 0 (in a HttpHandler class)

  - by EBAG

  I created a httpHandler that successfully implements IHttpHandler for handling file uploads. It works perfectly fine. You send the file with the form, the class receives it and will save it to hard disk. It reads chunks of file with ReadEntityBody function of HttpWorkerRequest class. Here is the situation i'm faced with.If at any stage before trying to read the file with ReadEntityBody, I try to access Request object (even Request.InputStream.Length!) ReadEntityBody would return 0 means it won't read from file stream. After further testing I found out the reason behind it. Accessing to Context.Current.Request object will trigger some sort of functionality that will cause asp.net to handle file uploads at that moment by it's own! I believe this is a bug. for example exactly after this line of code, asp.net will upload the file completely, and so there will be no stream for ReadEntityBody to read from later. int FileSize = context.Request.InputStream.Length; Can anybody tell how to stop this?

  Read the article

• Silverlight: Why doesn't this binding expression work?

  - by Rosarch

  I'm having difficulty with a binding expression in Silverlight 3 for the Windows Phone 7. <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="Transparent"> <controls:Pivot ItemsSource="{Binding SectionViewModels}"> <!-- ... --> <controls:Pivot.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <!-- this is the troublesome binding --> <TextBlock Style="{StaticResource disabledText}" Visibility="{Binding ElementName=LayoutRoot, Path=DataContext.NoStoryContent}"> Do you have a network connection? </TextBlock> <!-- ... --> The style, in app.xaml: <Style x:Key="disabledText" TargetType="TextBlock"> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="{StaticResource PhoneDisabledBrush}" /> <Setter Property="TextWrapping" Value="Wrap" /> <Setter Property="FontSize" Value="{StaticResource PhoneFontSizeLarge}" /> </Style> Code behind: public Visibility NoStoryContent { get { // trivial return value for debugging // no breakpoint here is hit return Visibility.Collapsed; } } public Sections() { InitializeComponent(); LayoutRoot.DataContext = this; } What am I doing wrong here? I suspect I have a mistake in the binding expression, but I'm not sure where.

  Read the article

• can upstart expect/respawn be used on processes that fork more than twice?

  - by johnjamesmiller

  I am using upstart to start/stop/automatically restart daemons. One of the daemons forks 4 times. The upstart cookbook states that it only supports forking twice. Is there a workaround? how it fails If I try to use expect daemon or expect fork upstart uses the pid of the second fork. When I try to stop the job nobody responds to upstarts SIGKILL signal and it hangs until you exhaust the pid space and loop back around. It gets worse if you add respawn. Upstart thinks the job died and immediately starts another one. bug acknowledged by upstream A bug has been entered for upstart. The solutions presented are stick with the old sysvinit, rewrite your daemon, or wait for a re-write. rhel is close to 2 years behind the latest upstart package so by the time the rewrite is released and we get updated the wait will probably be 4 years. The daemon is written by a subcontractor of a subcontractor of a contractor so it will not be fixed any time soon either.

  Read the article

• How to stream authenticated content with MediaPlayer on Android

  - by 102790073222983779908

  I've seen quite a few posts askign this question on SO but there doesn't seem to be a definitive answer (or at least an answer I like!) I've got content protected behind basic auth (username/password) -- I can download it fine using the various HTTP download clases but for the life of me I can't sort out how to tell media player to stream it (and provide the authentication). I saw one post that suggested it wasn't possible since the MediaPlayer is all native code and doesn't things like the Authenticator. There are plenty of examples of how to first download to a cached copy and then play that back but....That sort of sucks (and the files maybe 100's of MB's). I saw at least one proposal to download it in smalish chunks and then start & stop the playback (redirecting to the new file) but that sort of sucks also since there would (I presume) be a stutter (I haven't tried it though) The best idea I have at this point is to start downloading to a cache file and then when it's 'full enough' start up playback while I continue to fill the file.... I hope that this works (but again, haven't tried it). Am I missing something obvious? It's so painful to have all the various pieces almost working and I sort of convinced myself that there had to be a way to natively stream protected content (or have it take a already established & qualified InputStream) but it appears no joy. BTW I'm a Mac/iPhone guy and a newb at Android so I'm still fighting a bit of Java learning.... Excuse me if I'm missing somthing obvious. -john

  Read the article

• How to store and synchronize a big list of strings

  - by Joel

  I have a large database table in SQLExpress on Windows, with a particular field of interest 'code'. I have an Apache web server with MySQL on Linux. The web application on the Linux box needs access to the list of all codes. The only thing it will use the list for is checking for the existence of a given code. Having the Linux server call out to the Windows server is impractical as the Windows server is behind a NAT'ed office internet connection, and it may not always be accessible. I have set it so the Windows server will push the list of codes to the web server by means of a simple HTTP POST request. However, at this point I have not implemented the storage of the codes on the Linux box. Should I store them in a MySQL table with a single field 'code'? Then I get fast indexed lookups O(1), however I think synchronization will be an issue - given an updated list of codes, pushed from the Windows box, how would I optimally synchronize the list with the database? TRUNCATE, followed by INSERT? Should I instead store them in a flat file? Then I have O(n) look up time rather than O(1). Additionally an extra constant-time overhead too, as I will be processing the file in Ruby. However, synchronization is easy - simply replace the file.

  Read the article

• GDI+ not clearing my window on repaint for vista

  - by Michael

  on WM_PAINT i do the following: //RectF mNameRect; //WCHAR* mName; //HWND mWin; // this is the window handle { PAINTSTRUCT ps; HDC hdc = BeginPaint(mWin, &ps); Graphics g(hdc); g.Clear(Color::White); StringFormat stringForm; stringForm.SetLineAlignment(StringAlignmentCenter); stringForm.SetAlignment(StringAlignmentCenter); // set the rectangle to the size of the whole window mNameRect.Width = static_cast<float>(size.cx); mNameRect.Height = static_cast<float>(size.cy); g.DrawString(mName, -1, &mNameFont, mNameRect, &stringForm, &mNameBrush); EndPaint(mWin, &ps); } In XP this works fine, the mName is displayed in the middle of the window. However on Vista the text doesn't move, it stays in its location no matter how I resize the window. the g.Clear(Color::White) doesn't seem to do any difference. The text doesn't even change position when the window is hidden behind another window and on focus needs to be repainted again. How do I make mName change position in Vista?

  Read the article

• zend studio 5.5.1 on windows xp - won't open!

  - by esther h

  I have been using zend studio 5.5.1 for the last year and and a half (on windows xp), with some occasional issues, such as a blank error dialog box when I started the program, but always went away when i restarted my computer, and usually got messages about javaw.exe errors. But now, the program does not open at all. What happens is, I get a little dialog that says Loading project - this is normal... but then, nothing. The zend program item is sitting in the taskbar, but when i click on it - nothing! there is nothing to show. i can right click and press close, but that is all. restarting computer did not help. i just uninstalled it, downloaded again from zend website, and reinstalled. tried opening - get loading box, seems to have loaded, even got tip of the day box. but there is nothing showing behind them. once i closed the tip box, i dont have any indication that zend is open besides the program item in the taskbar. windows task manager says it is running... anyone have a clue? help!!! thanks

  Read the article

• Coding style in .NET: whether to refactor into new method or not?

  - by Dione

  Hi As you aware, in .NET code-behind style, we already use a lot of function to accommodate those _Click function, _SelectedIndexChanged function etc etc. In our team there are some developer that make a function in the middle of .NET function, for example: public void Button_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) {     some logic here..     some logic there..     DoSomething();     DoSomethingThere();     another logic here..     DoOtherSomething(); } private void DoSomething() { } private void DoSomethingThere() { } private void DoOtherSomething() { } public void DropDown_SelectedIndexChanged() { } public void OtherButton_Click() { } and the function listed above is only used once in that function and not used anywhere else in the page, or called from other part of the solution. They said it make the code more tidier by grouping them and extract them into additional sub-function. I can understand if the sub-function is use over and over again in the code, but if it is only use once, then I think it is not really a good idea to extract them into sub-function, as the code getting bigger and bigger, when you look into the page and trying to understand the logic or to debug by skimming through line by line, it will make you confused by jumping from main function to the sub-function then to main function and to sub-function again. I know this kind of grouping by method is better when you writing old ASP or Cold fusion style, but I am not sure if this kind of style is better for .NET or not. Question is: which is better when you developing .NET, is grouping similar logic into a sub-method better (although they only use once), or just put them together inside main function and add //explanation here on the start of the logic is better? Hope my question is clear enough. Thanks.

  Read the article

• make selectable area using javascript

  - by Mher

  lets say I have a html page. <html> <body> ... This is my HTML Page, full of html objects and mouse events on them ... <div id='blocker' style="height: 100%; position: absolute; width: 100%; top: 0px; left: 0px; right: 0px; bottom: 0px; z-index: 1001; background: none repeat scroll 0% 0% black; opacity: 0.5;"></div> <div id='window_to_my_html_page' style="display: block; left: 50px; top: 50px; width: 200px; height: 200px; z-index: 1002; position: absolute;"></div> </body> </html> In this example div which id is 'blocker' will block all mouse events from my page. All my HTML page elements behind of my second div(which id is 'window_to_my_html_page') must be active, all mouse events must work on them, this div must be like a window to my HTML page I want to make all elements from my HTML page active(to work as normal) inside this area (left: 50px; top: 50px; width: 200px; height: 200px).... and other content, outside of this area make inactive The question: how can I do it?

  Read the article

• Creating a new window that stays on top even when in full screen mode (Qt on Linux)

  - by Lorenz03Tx

  I'm using Qt 4.6.3, and ubuntu linux on an embedded target. I call dlg->setWindowState(Qt::WindowFullScreen); on my windows in my application (so I don't loose any real-estate on the touch screen to task bar and status panel on the top and bottom of the screen. This all works fine and as expected. The issue comes in when I want to popup the on screen keyboard to allow the user to input some data. I use m_keyProc= new QProcess(); m_keyProc->start("onboard -s 640x120"); This pops up the keyboard but it is behind the full screen window. The onbaord keyboards preferences are set such that it is always on top, but that seems to actually mean "except for full screen windows". I guess that makes sense and probably meets most use cases, but I need it to be really on top. Can I either A) Not be full screen mode (so the keyboard works) and programmatically hide the task bars? or B) Force the keyboard to be on top despite my full screen status? Note: On windows we call m_keyProc->start("C:\\Windows\\system32\\osk.exe"); and the osk keyboard is on top despite the full screen status. So, I'm guessing this is a difference in window mangers on the different operating systems. So do I need to set some flag on the window with the linux window manager?

  Read the article

• Silverlight ~ MVVM ~ Dynamic setting of Style property based on model value

  - by eponymous23

  I have a class called Question that represents a question and it's answer. I have an application that renders an ObservableCollection of Question objects. Each Question is rendered as a StackPanel that contains a TextBlock for the question verbiage, and a TextBox for the user to enter in an answer. The questions are rendered using an ItemsControl, and I have initially set the Style of the Questions's StackPanel using a StaticResource key called 'IncorrectQuestion' (defined in UserControl.Resources section of the page). In the UserControl.Resources section, I've also defined a key calld 'CorrectQuestion' which I need to somehow apply to the Question's StackPanel when the user correctly answers the question. My problem is I'm not sure how to dynamically change the Style of the StackPanel, specifically within the constraints of a ViewModel class (i.e. I don't want to put any style selection code in the View's code-behind). My Question class has an IsCorrect property which is accurately being set when the correction is answered. I'd like to somehow reflect the IsCorrect value in the form of a Style selection. How do I do that?

  Read the article

• Manipulate method functionality call

  - by danrichardson

  Hello, is it possibly in c# to have some sort of base class functionality which is manipulated slightly based on the class. For instance say i have the following code (which will quite obviously not compile it's meant to only be for demonstrative purposes) class BaseFunctionality { public virtual bool adminCall public static string MethodName(int id, string parameter) { if (adminCall) return dbcall.Execute(); else return dbcall.ExecuteMe(); } } class Admin : BaseFunctionality { override bool adminCall = true; } class Front : BaseFunctionality { override bool adminCall = false; } Now what i would like to be able to do is; string AdminCall = Admin.MethodName(1, "foo"); string FrontCall = Front.MethodName(2, "bar"); Is their any way to do something like this? I'm trying to do everything with static methods so i do not have to instantiate classes all the time, and have nice clean code which is only being manipulated in one place. The idea behind this is so that there is minimal code repeating and makes things easier to expand on, so for instance another class could implement the BaseFunctionality later on. Thanks Dan

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265  | Next Page >