Search Results

Search found 7415 results on 297 pages for 'man behind'.

Page 254/297 | < Previous Page | 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261  | Next Page >

  • Binding Data into a Resource

    - by Jordan
    How do you bind data from the view model into an object in the resources of the user control? Here is a very abstract example: <UserControl ... xmlns:local="clr-namespace:My.Local.Namespace" Name="userControl"> <UserControl.Resources> <local:GroupingProvider x:Key="groupingProvider" GroupValue="{Binding ???}" /> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <local:GroupingConsumer Name="groupingConsumer1" Provider={StaticResource groupingProvider"} /> <local:GroupingConsumer Name="groupingConsumer2" Provider={StaticResource groupingProvider"} /> </Grid> </UserControl> How do I bind GroupValue to a property in the view model behind this view. I've tried the following: <local:GroupingProvider x:Key="groupingProvider" GroupValue="{Binding ElementName=userControl, Path=DataContext.Property}"/> But this doesn't work. Edit: GroupProvider extends DependencyObject and GroupValue is the name of a DependencyProperty. I'm getting an debugging message telling me that the property to which I am binding doesn't exist.

    Read the article

  • How do you submit an authenticated HTML form using XUL (Firefox extension) Javascript?

    - by machineghost
    I am working on a Firefox extension, and in that extension I am trying to use AJAX to submit a form on a webpage. I am using: var request = Components.classes["@mozilla.org/xmlextras/xmlhttprequest;1"].createInstance(Components.interfaces.nsIXMLHttpRequest); request.onload = loadHandler; request.open("POST", url, true); request.send(values); to make the request, and it works ... mostly. The one problem is that the form has an authentication token on it, and I need to submit that token with my POST. I tried doing a GET separately to get this token, but by the time I made my second (POST) request my session had (evidently) changed, and the authenticity token was considered invalid. Does anyone know of a way to use the XUL/Chrome Javscript to maintain a constant session across multiple requests (all "behind the scenes") for something this? I'm still a XUL n00b, so there may be a totally obvious alternative that I'm missing (eg. hidden IFRAME; I tried that briefly but couldn't get it to work).

    Read the article

  • Is it "right" to translate error messages?

    - by Iraklis
    This is somehow subjective depending on the target translation language, but bear with me for a sec. I have recently been involved in a translation project. The goal was to translate the strings of an MVC framework to the Greek language. 70% of the language strings of the framework where translated, however 30% where intentionally left out. The decision was that we will not translate error messages aimed towards the developer of the application. The reasoning behind this (in short) was: are aimed towards designers/programmers. Programmers ( and even designers :) ) should have a basic understanding of English, at least enough so they can search on it on Google if they do not know what it means. (racist?) are aimed towards the developer and in a perfect world should not be displayed to the end user of the application as they concern the inner workings of the web application itself. i.e "You must set the database name in your database config file." and perhaps most importantly, they make the life of the developer harder when he tries to get more information/help regarding the error. For example the above error yields 8 results in Google (in quotes), whereas its Greek translation yields exactly 0. I know that this depends on the popularity of the target translation language and the application itself. For example I'm guessing that there are is vast amount of documentation regarding German SAP error messages (i know, i know, SAP IS German, but you get the point), as opposed to Greek Error Messages documentation regarding random application X which has about 500 installations worldwide. So to summarize: When you develop language translation packs for your applications do you translate error messages? Do you only do for predominant languages like English/Spanish/German/French? Or do you live them intact? I'm not looking for the "right" or "correct" answer, I'm looking for a "best-practices" answer, or if this problem is defined in any "official" standard/policy that you have had experience with.

    Read the article

  • My python program always brings down my internet connection after several hours running, how do I debug and fix this problem?

    - by Shane
    I'm writing a python script checking/monitoring several server/websites status(response time and similar stuff), it's a GUI program and I use separate thread to check different server/website, and the basic structure of each thread is using an infinite while loop to request that site every random time period(15 to 30 seconds), once there's changes in website/server each thread will start a new thread to do a thorough check(requesting more pages and similar stuff). The problem is, my internet connection always got blocked/jammed/messed up after several hours running of this script, the situation is, from my script side I got urlopen error timed out each time it's requesting a page, and from my FireFox browser side I cannot open any site. But the weird thing is, the moment I close my script my Internet connection got back on immediately which means now I can surf any site through my browser, so it must be the script causing all the problem. I've checked the program carefully and even use del to delete any connection once it's used, still get the same problem. I only use urllib2, urllib, mechanize to do network requests. Anybody knows why such thing happens? How do I debug this problem? Is there a tool or something to check my network status once such situation occurs? It's really bugging me for a while... By the way I'm behind a VPN, does it have something to do with this problem? Although I don't think so because my network always get back on once the script closed, and the VPN connection never drops(as it appears) during the whole process.

    Read the article

  • I can learn either C or Java, which one should I choose first? Should I take them concurrently?

    - by GR1000
    I realize this is a subject of hot debate, but I'm interested in opinions that relate to my specific situation. I want to learn the basics and fundamentals of programming, so I'm already taking a college course in general programming concepts. It isn't covering a specific language, but it's giving me a solid foundation that I can build upon when I move on to a class that teaches a specific language. My two options for a specific language are Java and C because those are the two languages taught at the college I want to take classes from. What I want to do is learn a complex language so that I can apply that knowledge to languages that I use, or will eventually use, in my current job building web pages: XHTML, CSS, JavaScript, PHP, XML, ActionScript. I'm not necessariy interested in becoming a Java developer or a C developer in the immediate future, but I do have aspirations of developing web applications and iPod/iPhone applications. So, basically, I'm looking for answers to these questions and the reasoning behind them: Do I take the introductory course in Java first, and then take the intro course in C, or Do I take C first and then take Java? Is there any reason not to take them concurrently? Should I skip C altogether as Java covers everything I need to know? EDIT: Thanks everyone for your thoughtful and insightful responses.

    Read the article

  • How do you use stl's functions like for_each?

    - by thomas-gies
    I started using stl containers because they came in very handy when I needed functionality of a list, set and map and had nothing else available in my programming environment. I did not care much about the ideas behind it. STL documentations were only interesting up to the point where it came to functions, etc. Then I skipped reading and just used the containers. But yesterday, still being relaxed from my holidays, I just gave it a try and wanted to go a bit more the stl way. So I used the transform function (can I have a little bit of applause for me, thank you). From an academic point of view it really looked interesting and it worked. But the thing that boroughs me is that if you intensify the use of those functions, you need 10ks of helper classes for mostly everything you want to do in your code. The hole logic of the program is sliced in tiny pieces. This slicing is not the result of god coding habits. It's just a technical need. Something, that makes my life probably harder not easier. And I learned the hard way, that you should always choose the simplest approach that solves the problem at hand. And I can't see what, for example, the for_each function is doing for me that justifies the use of a helper class over several simple lines of code that sit inside a normal loop so that everybody can see what is going on. I would like to know, what you are thinking about my concerns? Did you see it like I do when you started working this way and have changed your mind when you got used to it? Are there benefits that I overlooked? Or do you just ignore this stuff as I did (and will go an doing it, probably). Thanks. PS: I know that there is a real for_each loop in boost. But I ignore it here since it is just a convenient way for my usual loops with iterators I guess.

    Read the article

  • need help with mvc & routes

    - by geoff
    I'm very new to MVC and I'm trying to get a new site set up using it. For SEO reasons we need to make the url of a page something like "Recruiter/4359/John_Smith" or basically {controller}/{id}/{name}. I have that working when I create the url in the code behind like so... //r is a recruiter object that is part of the results for the view r.Summary = searchResult.Summary + "... &lt;a href=\"/Recruiter/" + r.Id + "/" + r.FirstName + "_" + r.LastName + "\"&gt;Read More&lt;/a&gt;" But when I am using the collection of results from a search in my view and iterating through them I am trying to create another link to the same page doing something like <%=Html.ActionLink<RecruiterController>(x => x.Detail((int)r.Id), r.RecruiterName)%> but that doesn't work. When I use that code in the view it gives me a url in the form of /Recruiter/Detail/4359 I was told by a coworker that I should use the Html.ActionLink to create the link in both the view and the controller so that if the route changes in the future it will automatically work. Unfortunately he wasn't sure how to do that in this case. So, my problems are... How can I make the Html.ActionLink work in the view to create a url like I need (like r.Summary above)? How do I use the Html.ActionLink in a controller instead of hardcoding the link like I have above?

    Read the article

  • What Test Environment Setup do Committers Use in the Ruby Community?

    - by viatropos
    Today I am going to get as far as I can setting up my testing environment and workflow. I'm looking for practical advice on how to setup the test environment from you guys who are very passionate and versed in Ruby Testing. By the end of the day (6am PST?) I would like to be able to: Type one 1-command to run test suites for ANY project I find on Github. Run autotest for ANY Github project so I can fork and make TESTABLE contributions. Build gems from the ground up with Autotest and Shoulda. For one reason or another, I hardly ever run tests for projects I clone from Github. The major reason is because unless they're using RSpec and have a Rake task to run the tests, I don't see the common pattern behind it all. I have built 3 or 4 gems writing tests with RSpec, and while I find the DSL fun, it's less than ideal because it just adds another layer/language of methods I have to learn and remember. So I'm going with Shoulda. But this isn't a question about which testing framework to choose. So the questions are: What is your, the SO reader and Github project committer, test environment setup using autotest so that whenever you git clone a gem, you can run the tests and autotest-develop them if desired? What are the guys who are writing the Paperclip Tests and Authlogic Tests doing? What is their setup? Thanks for the insight. Looking for answers that will make me a more effective tester.

    Read the article

  • WPF Binding to variable / DependencyProperty

    - by Peter
    I'm playing around with WPF Binding and variables. Apparently one can only bind DependencyProperties. I have come up with the following, which works perfectly fine: The code-behind file: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } public string Test { get { return (string)this.GetValue(TestProperty); } set { this.SetValue(TestProperty, value); } //set { this.SetValue(TestProperty, "BBB"); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty TestProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Test", typeof(string), typeof(MainWindow), new PropertyMetadata("CCC")); private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(Test); Test = "AAA"; MessageBox.Show(Test); } } XAML: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication3.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:diag="clr-namespace:System.Diagnostics;assembly=WindowsBase" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525" DataContext="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}}"> <Grid> <TextBox Height="31" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="84,86,0,0" Name="textBox1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="152" Text="{Binding Test, Mode=TwoWay, diag:PresentationTraceSources.TraceLevel=High}"/> <Button Content="Button" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="320,85,0,0" Name="button1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="75" Click="button1_Click" /> <TextBox Height="31" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="84,138,0,0" Name="textBox2" Text="{Binding Test, Mode=TwoWay}" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="152" /> </Grid> The two TextBoxes update one an other. And the Button sets them to "AAA". But now I replaced the Setter function with the one that is commented out (simulating some manipulation of the given value). I would expect that whenever the property value is changed it will be reset to "BBB". It does so when you press the button, that is when you set the property in code. But it does for some reason not affect the WPF Bindings, that is you can change the TextBox contents and thus the property, but apparently the Setter is never called. I wonder why that is so, and how one would go about to achive the expected behaviour.

    Read the article

  • "Finding" an object instance of a known class?

    - by Sean C
    My first post here (anywhere for that matter!), re. Cocoa/Obj-C (I'm NOT up to speed on either, please be patient!). I hope I haven't missed the answer already, I did try to find it. I'm an old-school procedural dog (haven't done any programming since the mid 80's, so I probably just can't even learn new tricks), but OOP has my head spinning! My question is: is there any means at all to "discover/find/identify" an instance of an object of a known class, given that some OTHER unknown process instantiated it? eg. somthing that would accomplish this scenario: (id) anObj = [someTarget getMostRecentInstanceOf:[aKnownClass class]]; for that matter, "getAnyInstance" or "getAllInstances" might do the trick too. Background: I'm trying to write a plugin for a commercial application, so much of the heavy lifting is being done by the app, behind the scenes. I have the SDK & header files, I know what class the object is, and what method I need to call (it has only instance methods), I just can't identify the object for targetting. I've spent untold hours and days going over Apples documentation, tutorials and lots of example/sample code on the web (including here at Stack Overflow), and come up empty. Seems that everything requires a known target object to work, and I just don't have one. Since I may not be expressing my problem as clearly as needed, I've put up a web page, with diagram & working sample pages to illustrate: http://www.nulltime.com/svtest/index.html Any help or guidance will be appreciated! Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Questions about the Backpropogation Algorithm

    - by Colemangrill
    I have a few questions concerning backpropogation. I'm trying to learn the fundamentals behind neural network theory and wanted to start small, building a simple XOR classifier. I've read a lot of articles and skimmed multiple textbooks - but I can't seem to teach this thing the pattern for XOR. Firstly, I am unclear about the learning model for backpropogation. Here is some pseudo-code to represent how I am trying to train the network. [Lets assume my network is setup properly (ie: multiple inputs connect to a hidden layer connect to an output layer and all wired up properly)]. SET guess = getNetworkOutput() // Note this is using a sigmoid activation function. SET error = desiredOutput - guess SET delta = learningConstant * error * sigmoidDerivative(guess) For Each Node in inputNodes For Each Weight in inputNodes[n] inputNodes[n].weight[j] += delta; // At this point, I am assuming the first layer has been trained. // Then I recurse a similar function over the hidden layer and output layer. // The prime difference being that it further divi's up the adjustment delta. I realize this is probably not enough to go off of, and I will gladly expound on any part of my implementation. Using the above algorithm, my neural network does get trained, kind of. But not properly. The output is always XOR 1 1 [smallest number] XOR 0 0 [largest number] XOR 1 0 [medium number] XOR 0 1 [medium number] I can never train the [1,1] [0,0] to be the same value. If you have any suggestions, additional resources, articles, blogs, etc for me to look at I am very interested in learning more about this topic. Thank you for your assistance, I appreciate it greatly!

    Read the article

  • submittingthe form even if the form is in invalid state

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am using asp.net web forms and i am using bassistance.de jquery validation.. i have bunch of fields in the form and its validatating how it suppose to but its still executing my code behind code, why is it doing that? here is my code: form: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true } ................. }, messages: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter visit name", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters.") } ............ }, success: function(label) { label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); $("#aspnetForm").validate(); }); </script> <div > <h1> Page</h1> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1'>Visit Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtVisitName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> ............ ............... <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button> </div> and i have a external .js file referencing to my web form page. $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnSubmit").click(function() { SavePage(); }); }); i have a WebMethod .cs and i have bookmark and it does hitting that line of code even thoug my page is in invalid state. how would i fix this? thanks.

    Read the article

  • Rapid taps on an OpenGL ES app introducing input delay

    - by Tim R.
    I am starting out writing a 2D game in OpenGL ES, and I have encountered an odd problem: if I rapidly tap the touchscreen, the input starts lagging behind the display. The more times I tap, the more delay it causes between the input and any indication of that input onscreen. It only happens if I intentionally tap very rapidly, but not from tapping and dragging with any number of fingers. What could be causing this? Excessive details follow: Both accelerometer input and taps are delayed by just tapping. The only events I am responding to are touchesBegan (below) in my EAGLView and accelerometer:(UIAccelerometer *)accelerometer didAccelerate:(UIAcceleration *)acceleration in my Game object. There doesn't seem to be any upper limit to the amount of delay: I've gotten up to 12 seconds of delay by tapping rapidly with five fingers. I have not seen any drops in framerate (it stays constantly at 60 fps) in the OpenGL ES tool in Instruments or by taking 1/the time between updates. Possibly relevant code: - (void) drawView:(id) sender { [game update:allTouches]; [renderer render:game]; } -(void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { allTouches = [event allTouches]; } allTouches is a pointer that gets passed to my Game every update, which passes it to each GameObject in their update methods.

    Read the article

  • Can tomcat perform ssl redirection by filtering host alias?

    - by Stephen
    Hi, We have a tomcat server (6.0.20) running one web application behind two urls, e.g. www.foo and secure.foo This is configured in the server.xml as one host with a single alias: <Host name="www.foo" appBase="webapps"> <Context docBase="foo" path=""></Context> <Alias>secure.foo</Alias> </Host> Ideally we'd like any requests to secure.foo on port 80 to be automatically redirected to use ssl. However, I can only find instructions for redirecting based on the path after the hostname, so I could add a /* security constraint but then this would apply to both urls. Does anyone know if it's possible to apply the redirection by filtering on hostname requested? (We've already got the ssl connector, certificate, etc. working ok). I know we could do it by sticking an apache server in front of tomcat and handling the redirection there, but I'm curious to know if tomcat can do this on its own. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How do I controll clipping with non-opaque graphics-item's in Qt?

    - by JJacobsson
    I have a bunch of QGraphicsSvgItem's in a QGraphicsScene that are drawn connected by QGraphicsLineItem's. This show's a graph of a tree-structure. What I want to do is provide a feature where everything but a selected sub-tree becomes transparent. A kind of "highlight this sub-tree" feature. That part was easy, but the results are ugly because now the lines can be seen through the semi-transparent svg's. I am looking for some way to still clip other QGraphicsItem's in the scene to the svg item's, giving the effect that the svg's are semi-transparent windows to the background. I know this code does not use svg's but I figure you can replace that yourself if you are so inclined. int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { QApplication app(argc, argv); QGraphicsScene scene; for( int i = 0; i < 10; ++i ) { QGraphicsLineItem* line = new QGraphicsLineItem; line->setLine( i * 25.0 + 1.0, 0, i * 25.0 + 23.0, 0 ); scene.addItem( line ); } for( int i = 0; i < 11; ++i ) { QGraphicsEllipseItem* ellipse = new QGraphicsEllipseItem; ellipse->setRect( (i * 25.0) - 9.0, -9.0, 18.0, 18.0f ); ellipse->setBrush( QBrush( Qt::green, Qt::SolidPattern ) ); ellipse->setOpacity( 0.5 ); scene.addItem( ellipse ); } QGraphicsView view( &scene ); view.show(); return app.exec(); } I would like the line's to not be seen behind the circle's. I have tried fiddling with the depth-buffer and the stencil buffer using opengl rendering to no avail. How do I get the QGraphicsSvgItem's (or QGraphicsEllipseItem's in the example code) to still clip the lines even though they are semi-transparent?

    Read the article

  • How do I post back information from a webpage that has post-generated content?

    - by meanbunny
    Ok so I am very new to html and the web. Right now I am trying to generate list items on the fly and then have them post back to the web server so I know what the person is trying to obtain. Here is the code for generating the list items: foreach (var item in dataList) { MyDataList.InnerHtml += "<li><a runat='server' onclick='li_Click' id='" + item.Name + "-button'></a></li>"; } Further down I have my click event. protected void li_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //How do I determine here which item was actually clicked? } My question is how do I determine which list item was clicked? Btw, the code running behind is C#. EDIT 1 LinkButton link = new LinkButton(); link.ID = "all-button"; link.Text = "All"; link.Click += new EventHandler(link_Click); MyDataList.Controls.Add(link); Then below I have my link_Click event that never seems to hit a breakpoint. void link_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (sender != null) { if (sender.GetType() == typeof(LinkButton)) { LinkButton button = (LinkButton)sender; if (button.ID == "all-button") { } } } } I know this has to be possible I just cant figure out what I am missing. Edit 2 Ok ok I think I know what the problem is. I was trying to add a second list inside of another list. This was causing the whole thing to have problems. It is working now.

    Read the article

  • What is Wordpress doing for content encoding in it's mysql database?

    - by qbxk
    For some convoluted reasons best left behind us, I require direct access the contents of a wordpress database. I'm using mysql 5.0.70-r1 on gentoo with wordpress 2.6, and perl 5.8.8 ftr. So, sometimes we get high-order characters in the blog, we have quite a few authors contributing too, for the most part these characters end up in wp's database in wp_posts.post_content or wp_postmeta.meta_value, Wordpress is displaying these correctly on it's site, but the database stores it using single byte encoding that I can't figure out how to convert to the correct string. Today's example: the blog shows this, and doesn't even seem to escape any chars in the html, Hãhãhães but the database, when viewed via the mysql prompt, has, Hãhãhães So clearly this is some kind of double-byte encoding issue, but I don't know how I can correct it. I need to be able to pull that second string from the database (b/c that's what it gives me) and convert it to the first one, and i need to do so using perl. also, just to help unmuddy any waters, I took these strings and printed out the ascii codes for each character using perl's ord() function. Here is the output of the "wrong" string H = 72 à = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 à = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 à = 195 £ = 163 e = 101 s = 115 This is the correct string, that I need to produce in my script H = 72 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 e = 101 s = 115

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2008 closes unexpectedly

    - by Jose
    I don't know if I can really get an answer to this question, but it really irks me and I would like to know if someone has an idea how to arrive to an answer. I have a pretty large solution in VS 2008 that maybe every week/every other week whenever I click properties to get to the project properties the IDE closes without warning. After that happens it will close EVERY time I try and view the properties. At that point I try and delete the .suo file, I resize the IDE, I close the tabs within the project, I restore default VS Settings(when I'm desperate). Eventually 20-30 minutes later I can actually view the properties. I haven't figured out exactly what fixes it, seems to be different every time. Once it's "fixed" I can't break it again so I can figure out what "fixed" it. This seems to be project specific, because I can view properties of other projects while this project is misbehaving. I guess my first question is, does VS log reasons for closing unexpectedly? Can I find out what the offending reason behind this is? The main frustration is I don't know that cause, nor the cure. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Updating an image's ImageUrl within a Repeater

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I hope someone can help me. It's a pretty newbie question, I'm afraid. I have an image inside a repeater, and I would like to change its IMAGEURL based on parameter that's being passed to it. <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate> <asp:Image ID="imgType" runat="server" /> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <%# Eval("DisplayName")%> </ItemTemplate> <SeparatorTemplate> <hr /> </SeparatorTemplate> </asp:Repeater> There is a SWITCH statement in the code behind that is altering the IMAGEURL depending on what's being passed to it. Inevitably, however, the images ID ("imgType") is not visible to the SWITCH statement (presumably because it's inside a REPEATER). Any suggestions on the best way to implement this would be greatly appreciated. Sorry for such a newbie question.

    Read the article

  • WPF & Linq To SQL binding ComboBox to foreign key

    - by ZeroDelta
    I'm having trouble binding a ComboBox to a foreign key in WPF using Linq To SQL. It works fine when displaying records, but if I change the selection on the ComboBox, that change does not seem to affect the property to which it is bound. My SQL Server Compact file has three tables: Players (PK is PlayerID), Events (PK is EventID), and Matches (PK is MatchID). Matches has FKs for the the other two, so that a match is associated with a player and an event. My window for editing a match uses a ComboBox to select the Event, and the ItemsSource is set to the result of a LINQ query to pull all of the Events. And of course the user should be able to select the Event based on EventName, not EventID. Here's the XAML: <ComboBox x:Name="cboEvent" DisplayMemberPath="EventName" SelectedValuePath="EventID" SelectedValue="{Binding Path=EventID, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> And some code-behind from the Loaded event handler: var evt = from ev in db.Events orderby ev.EventName select ev; cboEvent.ItemsSource = evt.ToList(); var mtch = from m in db.Matches where m.PlayerID == ((Player)playerView.CurrentItem).PlayerID select m; matchView = (CollectionView)CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(mtch); this.DataContext = matchView; When displaying matches, this works fine--I can navigate from one match to the next and the EventName is shown correctly. However, if I select a new Event via this ComboBox, the CurrentItem of the CollectionView doesn't seem to change. I feel like I'm missing something stupid! Note: the Player is selected via a ListBox, and that selection filters the matches displayed--this seems to be working fine, so I didn't include that code. That is the reason for the "PlayerID" reference in the LINQ query

    Read the article

  • IE7 & 8 not fireing jQuery click events for elements appended inside a table

    - by Keith
    I have an IE bug that I'm not sure how to fix. Using jQuery I'm dynamically moving a menu to appear on an element on mouseover. My code (simplified) looks something like this: $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(document).ready(function() { //do something on the menu clicks $j('div.ico').click(function() { alert($j(this).parent().html()); }); setUpActions('#tableId', '#menuId'); }); //on mouseover set up the actions menu to appear on mouseover function setUpActions(tableSelector, menuSelector) { $j(tableSelector + ' div.test').mouseover(function() { //note that append will move the underlying //DOM element with all events from it's old //parent to the end of this one. $j(this).append($j(menuSelector).show()); }); } This menu doesn't seem to register events correctly for the menu after it's been moved in IE7, IE8 and IE8-as-IE7 (yeah MS, that's really a 'new rendering engine' in IE8, we all believe you). It works as expected in everything else. You can see the behaviour in a basic demo here. In the demo you can see two examples of the issue: The image behind the buttons should change on hover (done with a CSS :hover selector). It works on the first mouseover but then persists. The click event doesn’t fire – however with the dev tools you can manually call it and it is still subscribed. You can see (2) in IE8's dev tools: Open page in IE8 Open dev tools Select "Script" tab and "Console" sub-tab Type: $j('#testFloat div.ico:first').click() to manually call any subscribed events There will be an alert on the page This means that I'm not losing the event subscriptions, they're still there, IE's just not calling them when I click. Does anyone know why this bug occurs (other than just because of IE's venerable engine)? Is there a workaround? Could it be something that I'm doing wrong that just happens to work as expected in everything else?

    Read the article

  • jQuery validation plugin - no error messages instead custom backgrounds

    - by Skoota
    I am using the jQuery validation plugin. The form which is being validated has custom background images for the text input fields, so instead of showing an error message for invalid fields I would like to change the background image. Making things a bit trickier is that the background image for the fields is on a different div absolutely positioned behind the text field (which has a transparent background and no border). I will spare going into the reasons for this design decision here (it's related to margins within the text field) but I thought it should be mentioned since it is critical to this question. Therefore, I have two questions: How can I stop the display of the error messages all-together? How can I instead tell the validation plugin if, for example, the name field (e.g. <input id=name ... />) is invalid then it should change the background for the relevant div (e.g. <div id=name-bg... ></div>)? Thanks for any assistance!

    Read the article

  • itearation through gridview

    - by user1405508
    I want to get cell value from gridview,but empty string is returned .I am implemented code in selectedindexchanged event of radiobuttonlist .I iterate through gridview and access cell by code .but problem is stll remaining.I used three itemtemplate ,each has one elemnt so that each element get its own coulmn .aspx <asp:GridView ID="GridView2" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" > <Columns> <asp:Label ID="Label2" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("qno") %>'> </asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label3" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("description") %>'> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:RadioButtonList ID="RadioButtonList1" RepeatDirection="Horizontal" runat="server" OnSelectedIndexChanged="changed" AutoPostBack="true" > <asp:ListItem Value="agree" Selected="True" > </asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="disagree"> </asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="strongagree"> </asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="strondisagree"> </asp:ListItem> </asp:RadioButtonList> </Columns> </asp:GridView> <asp:Label ID="Labe11" runat="server" ></asp:Label> Code behind: public void changed(object sender, EventArgs e) { for(int i=0;i<GridView2.Rows.Count;i++) { string labtext; RadioButtonList list = GridView2.Rows[i].Cells[2].FindControl("RadioButtonList1") as RadioButtonList; labtext= GridView2.Rows[i].Cells[0].Text; Label1.Text = labtext; } }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET how can access public properties of MasterPage from external Class ?

    - by eugeneK
    Why i can't access MasterPage's public property (MessagePlaceholder) from other Class (Errors) ? my master page code behind using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public partial class MyMasterPage : System.Web.UI.MasterPage { public string MessagePlaceholder { get { return messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml; } set { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = value; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = Errors.getMessage(); } } } my Errors Class public static string getMessage() { HttpContext c = HttpContext.Current; string messageType = ""; if (c.Session["errorMessage"] != null) { messageType = "errorMessage"; } else if (c.Session["successMessage"] != null) { messageType = "successMessage"; } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(messageType)) { StringBuilder userMessageSb = new StringBuilder(); userMessageSb.Append(string.Format("<div id=\"{0}\" title=\"{1}\">{2}</div>", messageType, messageType.Replace("Message",string.Empty), c.Session[messageType])); // fix so message will not re-appear c.Session.Remove(messageType); messageType = userMessageSb.ToString(); } return messageType; } public static void setSuccess(string successMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["successMessage"] = successMessage; } public static void setError(string errorMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["errorMessage"] = errorMessage; if (!isRedirect) { ((HttpContext.Current.CurrentHandler as System.Web.UI.Page).Master as MyMasterPage).MessagePlaceholder = getMessage(); } } this is how i set error if (true) { Errors.setError("this is an error demo", false); return; } or with redirect after error if (true) { Errors.setError("yet another error", true); Response.Redirect("~/error.aspx"); }

    Read the article

  • How does asp.net MVC remember my false values on postback?

    - by Michel
    Hi, This is working, but how??? I have a controller action for a post: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post )] public ActionResult Edit(Person person) { bool isvalid = ModelState.IsValid; etc. The Person object has a property BirthDate, type DateTime. When i enter some invalid data in the form, say 'blabla' which is obvious not a valid Datetime, it fills all the (other) Person properties with the correct data and the BirthDate property with a new blank DateTime. The bool isvalid has the value 'false'. So far so good. Then i do this: return View(p); and in the view i have this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.BirthDate)) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("BirthDate", "*") %> Ant there it comes: i EXPECTED the model to contain the new, blank DateTime because i didn't put any new data in. Second, when the View displays something, it must be a DateTime, because Model.BirthDate can't hold anything but a DateTime. But to my surprise, it shows a textbox with the 'blabla' value! (and the red * behind it) Which ofcourse is nice because the user can seee what he typed wrong, but how can that (blabla)string be transferred to the View in a DateTime field?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261  | Next Page >