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  • New to asp.net. Need help debugging this email form.

    - by Roeland
    Hey guys, First of all, I am a php developer and most of .net is alien to me which is why I am posting here! I just migrated over a site from one set of webhosting to another. The whole site is written in .net. None of the site is database driven so most of it works, except for the contact form. The output on the site simple states there was an error with "There has been an error - please try to submit the contact form again, if you continue to experience problems, please notify our webmaster." This is just a simple message it pops out of it gets to the "catch" part of the email function. I went into web.config and changed the parameters: <emailaddresses> <add name="System" value="[email protected]"/> <add name="Contact" value="[email protected]"/> <add name="Info" value="[email protected]"/> </emailaddresses> <general> <add name="WebSiteDomain" value="hoyespharmacy.com"/> </general> Then the .cs file for contact contains the mail function EmailFormData(): private void EmailFormData() { try { StringBuilder body = new StringBuilder(); body.Append("Name" + ": " + txtName.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Phone" + ": " + txtPhone.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Email" + ": " + txtEmail.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Fax" + ": " + txtEmail.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Subject" + ": " + ddlSubject.SelectedValue + "\n\r"); body.Append("Message" + ": " + txtMessage.Text); MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); mail.IsBodyHtml = false; mail.To.Add(new MailAddress(Settings.GetEmailAddress("System"))); mail.Subject = "Contact Us Form Submission"; mail.From = new MailAddress(Settings.GetEmailAddress("System"), Settings.WebSiteDomain); mail.Body = body.ToString(); SmtpClient smtpcl = new SmtpClient(); smtpcl.Send(mail); } catch { Utilities.RedirectPermanently(Request.Url.AbsolutePath + "?messageSent=false"); } } How do I see what the actual error is. I figure I can do something with the "catch" part of the function.. Any pointers? Thanks!

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  • GCC: Simple inheritance test fails

    - by knight666
    I'm building an open source 2D game engine called YoghurtGum. Right now I'm working on the Android port, using the NDK provided by Google. I was going mad because of the errors I was getting in my application, so I made a simple test program: class Base { public: Base() { } virtual ~Base() { } }; // class Base class Vehicle : virtual public Base { public: Vehicle() : Base() { } ~Vehicle() { } }; // class Vehicle class Car : public Vehicle { public: Car() : Base(), Vehicle() { } ~Car() { } }; // class Car int main(int a_Data, char** argv) { Car* stupid = new Car(); return 0; } Seems easy enough, right? Here's how I compile it, which is the same way I compile the rest of my code: /home/oem/android-ndk-r3/build/prebuilt/linux-x86/arm-eabi-4.4.0/bin/arm-eabi-g++ -g -std=c99 -Wall -Werror -O2 -w -shared -fshort-enums -I ../../YoghurtGum/src/GLES -I ../../YoghurtGum/src -I /home/oem/android-ndk-r3/build/platforms/android-5/arch-arm/usr/include -c src/Inheritance.cpp -o intermediate/Inheritance.o (Line breaks are added for clarity). This compiles fine. But then we get to the linker: /home/oem/android-ndk-r3/build/prebuilt/linux-x86/arm-eabi-4.4.0/bin/arm-eabi-gcc -lstdc++ -Wl, --entry=main, -rpath-link=/system/lib, -rpath-link=/home/oem/android-ndk-r3/build/platforms/android-5/arch-arm/usr/lib, -dynamic-linker=/system/bin/linker, -L/home/oem/android-ndk-r3/build/prebuilt/linux-x86/arm-eabi-4.4.0/lib/gcc/arm-eabi/4.4.0, -L/home/oem/android-ndk-r3/build/platforms/android-5/arch-arm/usr/lib, -rpath=../../YoghurtGum/lib/GLES -nostdlib -lm -lc -lGLESv1_CM -z /home/oem/android-ndk-r3/build/platforms/android-5/arch-arm/usr/lib/crtbegin_dynamic.o /home/oem/android-ndk-r3/build/platforms/android-5/arch-arm/usr/lib/crtend_android.o intermediate/Inheritance.o ../../YoghurtGum/bin/YoghurtGum.a -o bin/Galaxians.android As you can probably tell, there's a lot of cruft in there that isn't really needed. That's because it doesn't work. It fails with the following errors: intermediate/Inheritance.o:(.rodata._ZTI3Car[typeinfo for Car]+0x0): undefined reference to `vtable for __cxxabiv1::__si_class_type_info' intermediate/Inheritance.o:(.rodata._ZTI7Vehicle[typeinfo for Vehicle]+0x0): undefined reference to `vtable for __cxxabiv1::__vmi_class_type_info' intermediate/Inheritance.o:(.rodata._ZTI4Base[typeinfo for Base]+0x0): undefined reference to `vtable for __cxxabiv1::__class_type_info' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make: *** [bin/Galaxians.android] Fout 1 These are the same errors I get from my actual application. If someone could explain to me where I went wrong in my test or what option or I forgot in my linker, I would be very, extremely grateful. Thanks in advance. UPDATE: When I make my destructors non-inlined, I get new and more exciting link errors: intermediate/Inheritance.o:(.rodata+0x78): undefined reference to `vtable for __cxxabiv1::__si_class_type_info' intermediate/Inheritance.o:(.rodata+0x90): undefined reference to `vtable for __cxxabiv1::__vmi_class_type_info' intermediate/Inheritance.o:(.rodata+0xb0): undefined reference to `vtable for __cxxabiv1::__class_type_info' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make: *** [bin/Galaxians.android] Fout 1

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  • Invalid character in a Base-64 string when Concatenating and Url encoding a string

    - by Rob
    I’m trying to write some encryption code that is passed through a Url. For the sake of the issue I’ve excluded the actual encryption of the data and just shown the code causing the problem. I take a salt value, convert it to a byte array and then convert that to a base64 string. This string I concatenate to another base64 string (which was previously a byte array). These two base64 strings are then Url encoded. Here’s my code... using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Security.Cryptography; using System.IO; using System.Web; class RHEncryption { private static readonly Encoding ASCII_ENCODING = new System.Text.ASCIIEncoding(); private static readonly string SECRET_KEY = "akey"; private static string md5(string text) { return BitConverter.ToString(new MD5CryptoServiceProvider().ComputeHash(ASCII_ENCODING.GetBytes(text))).Replace("-", "").ToLower(); } public string UrlEncodedData; public RHEncryption() { // encryption object RijndaelManaged aes192 = new RijndaelManaged(); aes192.KeySize = 192; aes192.BlockSize = 192; aes192.Mode = CipherMode.CBC; aes192.Key = ASCII_ENCODING.GetBytes(md5(SECRET_KEY)); aes192.GenerateIV(); // convert Ivector to base64 for sending string base64IV = Convert.ToBase64String(aes192.IV); // salt value string s = "maryhadalittlelamb"; string salt = s.Substring(0, 8); // convert to byte array // and base64 for sending byte[] saltBytes = ASCII_ENCODING.GetBytes(salt.TrimEnd('\0')); string base64Salt = Convert.ToBase64String(saltBytes); //url encode concatenated base64 strings UrlEncodedData = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(base64Salt + base64IV, ASCII_ENCODING); } public string UrlDecodedData() { // decode the url encode string string s = HttpUtility.UrlDecode(UrlEncodedData, ASCII_ENCODING); // convert back from base64 byte[] base64DecodedBytes = null; try { base64DecodedBytes = Convert.FromBase64String(s); } catch (FormatException e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Message.ToString()); Console.ReadLine(); } return s; } } If I then call the UrlDecodedData method I get a “Invalid character in a Base-64 string” exception. This is generated because the base64Salt variable contains an invalid character (I’m guessing a line termination) but I can’t seem to strip it off.

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  • How to convert a 32bpp image to an indexed format?

    - by Ed Swangren
    So here are the details (I am using C# BTW): I receive a 32bpp image (JPEG compressed) from a server. At some point, I would like to use the Palette property of a bitmap to color over-saturated pixels (brightness 240) red. To do so, I need to get the image into an indexed format. I have tried converting the image to a GIF, but I get quality loss. I have tried creating a new bitmap in an index format by these methods: // causes a "Parameter not valid" error Bitmap indexed = new Bitmap(orig.Width, orig.Height, PixelFormat.Indexed) // no error, but the resulting image is black due to information loss I assume Bitmap indexed = new Bitmap(orig.Width, orig.Height, PixelFormat.Format8bppIndexed) I am at a loss now. The data in this image is changed constantly by the user, so I don't want to manually set pixels that have a brightness 240 if I can avoid it. If I can set the palette once when the image is created, my work is done. If I am going about this the wrong way to begin with please let me know. EDIT: Thanks guys, here is some more detail on what I am attempting to accomplish. We are scanning a tissue slide at high resolution (pathology application). I write the interface to the actual scanner. We use a line-scan camera. To test the line rate of the camera, the user scans a very small portion and looks at the image. The image is displayed next to a track bar. When the user moves the track bar (adjusting line rate), I change the overall intensity of the image in an attempt to model what it would look like at the new line rate. I do this using an ImageAttributes and ColorMatrix object currently. When the user adjusts the track bar, I adjust the matrix. This does not give me per pixel information, but the performance is very nice. I could use LockBits and some unsafe code here, but I would rather not rewrite it if possible. When the new image is created, I would like for all pixels with a brightness value of 240 to be colored red. I was thinking that defining a palette for the bitmap up front would be a clean way of doing this.

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  • Why am I getting org.xml.sax.SAXException for this block of XML?

    - by drachenstern
    I've anonymised a bit of this. Hopefully it doesn't detract from the useful message. stringARRAY is where I think I'm getting thrown at, but I'm not sure, so if I'm looking at the wrong place, lemme know. From the WSDL <xsd:element name="LongishOpName"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:sequence> <xsd:element maxOccurs="unbounded" name="stringARRAY" type="xsd:string" /> <xsd:element name="stringfield1" type="xsd:string" /> <xsd:element name="stringfield2" type="xsd:string" /> </xsd:sequence> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> Actual method call looks like this: string originalValue = "some useful value"; string[] usefulName1 = new[] { originalValue }; service.response[] responses = server.LongishOpName( usefulName1, someString1, someString2 ); And it generates this XML to the server (Thanks to Fiddler2): <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <soap:Body> <LongishOpName xmlns="http://appropriate-namespace"> <stringARRAY>114003</stringARRAY> <stringfield1>a string</stringfield1> <stringfield2>a string</stringfield2> </LongishOpName> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope> To which I get this response <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <soapenv:Body> <soapenv:Fault> <faultcode>soapenv:Server.userException</faultcode> <faultstring>org.xml.sax.SAXException: Found character data inside an array element while deserializing</faultstring> <detail> <ns1:hostname xmlns:ns1="http://xml.apache.org/axis/">SERVERNAME</ns1:hostname> </detail> </soapenv:Fault> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> Is my soap message actually coming out malformed? (yes I am using the ASP.NET web references to do all the lifting, I'm not generating by hand) Should I be doing something different? Do I just need to go home and sleep on it and tomorrow everything will "just work"?

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  • Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture not working consistently

    - by xTRUMANx
    I've been working on a pet project on the weekends to learn more about C# and have encountered an odd problem when working with localization. To be more specific, the problem I have is with System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture. I've set up my app so that the user can quickly change the language of the app by clicking a menu item. The menu item in turn, saves the two-letter code for the language (e.g. "en", "fr", etc.) in a user setting called 'Language' and then restarts the application. Properties.Settings.Default.Language = "en"; Properties.Settings.Default.Save(); Application.Restart(); When the application is started up, the first line of code in the Form's constructor (even before InitializeComponent()) fetches the Language string from the settings and sets the CurrentUICulture like so: public Form1() { Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = new CultureInfo(Properties.Settings.Default.Language); InitializeComponent(); } The thing is, this doesn't work consistently. Sometimes, all works well and the application loads the correct language based on the string saved in the settings file. Other times, it doesn't, and the language remains the same after the application is restarted. At first I thought that I didn't save the language before restarting the application but that is definitely not the case. When the correct language fails to load, if I were to close the application and run it again, the correct language would come up correctly. So this implies that the Language string has been saved but the CurrentUICulture assignment in my form constructor is having no effect sometimes. Any help? Is there something I'm missing of how threading works in C#? This could be machine-specific, so if it makes any difference I'm using Pentium Dual-Core CPU. UPDATE Vlad asked me to check what the CurrentThread's CurrentUICulture is. So I added a MessageBox on my constructor to tell me what the CurrentUICulture two-letter code is as well as the value of my Language user string. MessageBox.Show(string.Format("Current Language: {0}\nCurrent UI Culture: {1}", Properties.Settings.Default.Language, Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture.TwoLetterISOLanguageName)); When the wrong language is loaded, both the Language string and CurrentUICulture have the wrong language. So I guess the CurrentUICulture has been cleared and my problem is actually with the Language Setting. So I guess the problem is that my application sometimes loads the previously saved language string rather than the last saved language string. If the app is restarted, it will then load the actual saved language string.

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  • Can you pass by reference in Java?

    - by dbones
    Hi. Sorry if this sounds like a newbie question, but the other day a Java developer mentioned about passing a paramter by reference (by which it was ment just pass a Reference object) From a C# perspective I can pass a reference type by value or by reference, this is also true to value types I have written a noddie console application to show what i mean.. can i do this in Java? namespace ByRefByVal { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { //Creating of the object Person p1 = new Person(); p1.Name = "Dave"; PrintIfObjectIsNull(p1); //should not be null //A copy of the Reference is made and sent to the method PrintUserNameByValue(p1); PrintIfObjectIsNull(p1); //the actual reference is passed to the method PrintUserNameByRef(ref p1); //<-- I know im passing the Reference PrintIfObjectIsNull(p1); Console.ReadLine(); } private static void PrintIfObjectIsNull(Object o) { if (o == null) { Console.WriteLine("object is null"); } else { Console.WriteLine("object still references something"); } } /// <summary> /// this takes in a Reference type of Person, by value /// </summary> /// <param name="person"></param> private static void PrintUserNameByValue(Person person) { Console.WriteLine(person.Name); person = null; //<- this cannot affect the orginal reference, as it was passed in by value. } /// <summary> /// this takes in a Reference type of Person, by reference /// </summary> /// <param name="person"></param> private static void PrintUserNameByRef(ref Person person) { Console.WriteLine(person.Name); person = null; //this has access to the orginonal reference, allowing us to alter it, either make it point to a different object or to nothing. } } class Person { public string Name { get; set; } } } If it java cannot do this, then its just passing a reference type by value? (is that fair to say) Many thanks Bones

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  • Can I get a bitmap of an arbitrary window in another application process?

    - by Chris Farmer
    I am trying to automate a third-party Win32 application where I want to capture the graphics content of a particular window at defined time intervals. I am in the early phases of this, and I'm currently trying to use the Microsoft UI Automation API via C# to do most of the interaction between my client app and the external app. I can now get the external app to do what I want it to do, but now I want to capture the graphics from a specific window that seems to be some third-party owner-drawn control. How can I do this? The window I want to capture is the one marked by the red rectangle in this image: I have an implementation that sort of works, but it's dependent on the external app's UI being on top, and that's not guaranteed for me, so I'd prefer to find something more general. var p = Process.Start("c:\myapp.exe"); var mainForm = AutomationElement.FromHandle(p.MainWindowHandle); // "workspace" below is the window whose content I want to capture. var workspace = mainForm.FindFirst(TreeScope.Descendents, new PropertyCondition(AutomationElement.ClassNameProperty, "AfxFrameOrView70u")); var rect = (Rect) workspace.GetCurrentPropertyValue(AutomationElement.BoundingRectangleProperty); using (var bmp = new Bitmap((int)rect.Width, (int)rect.Height)) { using (var g = Graphics.FromImage(bmp)) { g.CopyFromScreen((int)rect.Left, (int)rect.Top, 0, 0, new Size((int)rect.Width, (int)rect.Height)); bmp.Save(@"c:\screenshot.png", ImageFormat.Png); } } The above works well enough when the automated app is on top, but it just blindly copies the screen in the rectangle, so my code is at the mercy of whatever happens to be running on the machine and might cover my app's window. I have read some suggestions to send the WM_PRINT message to the window. This question/answer from a few months back seemed promising, but when I use this code, I just get a white rectangle with none of my control's actual contents. var prop = (int)workspace.GetCurrentPropertyValue(AutomationElement.NativeWindowHandleProperty); var hwnd = new IntPtr(prop); using ( var bmp2 = new Bitmap((int)rect.Width, (int)rect.Height)) { using (Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(bmp2)) { g.FillRectangle(SystemBrushes.Control, 0, 0, (int)rect.Width, (int)rect.Height); try { SendMessage(hwnd, WM_PRINT, g.GetHdc().ToInt32(), (int)(DrawingOptions.PRF_CHILDREN | DrawingOptions.PRF_CLIENT | DrawingOptions.PRF_OWNED)); } finally { g.ReleaseHdc(); } bmp2.Save(@"c:\screenshot.bmp"); } } So, first, is it even possible for me to reliably save a bitmap of a window's contents? If so, what is the best way, and what is wrong with my WM_PRINT with SendMessage attempt?

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  • Multiple Connection Types for one Designer Generated TableAdapter

    - by Tim
    I have a Windows Forms application with a DataSet (.xsd) that is currently set to connect to a Sql Ce database. Compact Edition is being used so the users can use this application in the field without an internet connection, and then sync their data at day's end. I have been given a new project to create a supplemental web interface for displaying some of the same reports as the Windows Forms application so certain users can obtain reports without installing the Windows app. What I've done so far is create a new Web Project and added it to my current Solution. I have split both the reports (.rdlc) and DataSets out of the Windows Forms project into their own projects so they can be accessed by both the Windows and Web applications. So far, this is working fine. Here's my dilemma: As I said before, the DataSets are currently set up to connect to a local Sql Ce database file. This is correct for the Windows app, but for the Web application I would like to use these same TableAdapters and queries to connect to the Sql Server 2005 database. I have found that the designer generated, strongly-typed TableAdapter classes have a ConnectionModifier property that allows you to make the TableAdapter's Connection public. This exposes the Connection property and allows me to set it, however it is strongly-typed as a SqlCeConnection, whereas I would like to set it to a SqlConnection for my Web project. I'm assuming the DataSet Designer strongly-types the Connection, Command, and DataAdapter objects based on the Provider of the ConnectionString as indicated in the app.config file. Is there any way I can use some generic provider so that the DataSet Designer will use object types that can connect to both a Sql Ce database file AND the actual Sql Server 2005 database? I know that SqlCeConnection and SqlConnection both inherit from DbConnection, which implements IDbConnection. Relatively, the same goes for SqlCeCommand/SqlCommand:DbCommand:IDbCommand. It would be nice if I could just figure out a way for the designer to use the Interface types rather than the strong types, but I'm hesitant that that is possible. I hope my problem and question are clear. Any help is much appreciated. Let me know if there's anything I can clarify.

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  • Postgresql: Implicit lock acquisition from foreign-key constraint evaluation

    - by fennec
    So, I'm being confused about foreign key constraint handling in Postgresql. (version 8.4.4, for what it's worth). We've got a couple of tables, mildly anonymized below: device: (id, blah, blah, blah, blah, blah x 50)… primary key on id whooooole bunch of other junk device_foo: (id, device_id, left, right) Foreign key (device_id) references device(id) on delete cascade; primary key on id btree index on 'left' and 'right' So I set out with two database windows to run some queries. db1> begin; lock table device in exclusive mode; db2> begin; update device_foo set left = left + 1; The db2 connection blocks. It seems odd to me that an update of the 'left' column on device_stuff should be affected by activity on the device table. But it is. In fact, if I go back to db1: db1> select * from device_stuff for update; *** deadlock occurs *** The pgsql log has the following: blah blah blah deadlock blah. CONTEXT: SQL statement "SELECT 1 FROM ONLY "public"."device" x WHERE "id" OPERATOR(pg_catalog.=) $1 FOR SHARE OF X: update device_foo set left = left + 1; I suppose I've got two issues: the first is that I don't understand the precise mechanism by which this sort of locking occurs. I have got a couple of useful queries to query pg_locks to see what sort of locks a statement invokes, but I haven't been able to observe this particular sort of locking when I run the update device_foo command in isolation. (Perhaps I'm doing something wrong, though.) I also can't find any documentation on the lock acquisition behavior of foreign-key constraint checks. All I have is a log message. Am I to infer from this that any change to a row will acquire an update lock on all the tables which it's foreign-keyed against? The second issue is that I'd like to find some way to make it not happen like that. I'm ending up with occasional deadlocks in the actual application. I'd like to be able to run big update statements that impact all rows on device_foo without acquiring a big lock on the device table. (There's a lot of access going on in the device table, and it's kind of an expensive lock to get.)

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  • Programming graphics and sound on PC - Total newbie questions, and lots of them!

    - by Russel
    Hello, This isn't exactly specifically a programming question (or is it?) but I was wondering: How are graphics and sound processed from code and output by the PC? My guess for graphics: There is some reserved memory space somewhere that holds exactly enough room for a frame of graphics output for your monitor. IE: 800 x 600, 24 bit color mode == 800x600x3 = ~1.4MB memory space Between each refresh, the program writes video data to this space. This action is completed before the monitor refresh. Assume a simple 2D game: the graphics data is stored in machine code as many bytes representing color values. Depending on what the program(s) being run instruct the PC, the processor reads the appropriate data and writes it to the memory space. When it is time for the monitor to refresh, it reads from each memory space byte-for-byte and activates hardware depending on those values for each color element of each pixel. All of this of course happens crazy-fast, and repeats x times a second, x being the monitor's refresh rate. I've simplified my own likely-incorrect explanation by avoiding talk of double buffering, etc Here are my questions: a) How close is the above guess (the three steps)? b) How could one incorporate graphics in pure C++ code? I assume the practical thing that everyone does is use a graphics library (SDL, OpenGL, etc), but, for example, how do these libraries accomplish what they do? Would manual inclusion of graphics in pure C++ code (say, a 2D spite) involve creating a two-dimensional array of bit values (or three dimensional to include multiple RGB values per pixel)? Is this how it would be done waaay back in the day? c) Also, continuing from above, do libraries such as SDL etc that use bitmaps actual just build the bitmap/etc files into machine code of the executable and use them as though they were build in the same matter mentioned in question b above? d) In my hypothetical step 3 above, is there any registers involved? Like, could you write some byte value to some register to output a single color of one byte on the screen? Or is it purely dedicated memory space (=RAM) + hardware interaction? e) Finally, how is all of this done for sound? (I have no idea :) )

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  • Mocking a concrete class : templates and avoiding conditional compilation

    - by AshirusNW
    I'm trying to testing a concrete object with this sort of structure. class Database { public: Database(Server server) : server_(server) {} int Query(const char* expression) { server_.Connect(); return server_.ExecuteQuery(); } private: Server server_; }; i.e. it has no virtual functions, let alone a well-defined interface. I want to a fake database which calls mock services for testing. Even worse, I want the same code to be either built against the real version or the fake so that the same testing code can both: Test the real Database implementation - for integration tests Test the fake implementation, which calls mock services To solve this, I'm using a templated fake, like this: #ifndef INTEGRATION_TESTS class FakeDatabase { public: FakeDatabase() : realDb_(mockServer_) {} int Query(const char* expression) { MOCK_EXPECT_CALL(mockServer_, Query, 3); return realDb_.Query(); } private: // in non-INTEGRATION_TESTS builds, Server is a mock Server with // extra testing methods that allows mocking Server mockServer_; Database realDb_; }; #endif template <class T> class TestDatabaseContainer { public: int Query(const char* expression) { int result = database_.Query(expression); std::cout << "LOG: " << result << endl; return result; } private: T database_; }; Edit: Note the fake Database must call the real Database (but with a mock Server). Now to switch between them I'm planning the following test framework: class DatabaseTests { public: #ifdef INTEGRATION_TESTS typedef TestDatabaseContainer<Database> TestDatabase ; #else typedef TestDatabaseContainer<FakeDatabase> TestDatabase ; #endif TestDatabase& GetDb() { return _testDatabase; } private: TestDatabase _testDatabase; }; class QueryTestCase : public DatabaseTests { public: void TestStep1() { ASSERT(GetDb().Query(static_cast<const char *>("")) == 3); return; } }; I'm not a big fan of that compile-time switching between the real and the fake. So, my question is: Whether there's a better way of switching between Database and FakeDatabase? For instance, is it possible to do it at runtime in a clean fashion? I like to avoid #ifdefs. Also, if anyone has a better way of making a fake class that mimics a concrete class, I'd appreciate it. I don't want to have templated code all over the actual test code (QueryTestCase class). Feel free to critique the code style itself, too. You can see a compiled version of this code on codepad.

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  • In a DDD approach, is this example modelled correctly?

    - by Tag
    Just created an acc on SO to ask this :) Assuming this simplified example: building a web application to manage projects... The application has the following requirements/rules. 1) Users should be able to create projects inserting the project name. 2) Project names cannot be empty. 3) Two projects can't have the same name. I'm using a 4-layered architecture (User Interface, Application, Domain, Infrastructure). On my Application Layer i have the following ProjectService.cs class: public class ProjectService { private IProjectRepository ProjectRepo { get; set; } public ProjectService(IProjectRepository projectRepo) { ProjectRepo = projectRepo; } public void CreateNewProject(string name) { IList<Project> projects = ProjectRepo.GetProjectsByName(name); if (projects.Count > 0) throw new Exception("Project name already exists."); Project project = new Project(name); ProjectRepo.InsertProject(project); } } On my Domain Layer, i have the Project.cs class and the IProjectRepository.cs interface: public class Project { public int ProjectID { get; private set; } public string Name { get; private set; } public Project(string name) { ValidateName(name); Name = name; } private void ValidateName(string name) { if (name == null || name.Equals(string.Empty)) { throw new Exception("Project name cannot be empty or null."); } } } public interface IProjectRepository { void InsertProject(Project project); IList<Project> GetProjectsByName(string projectName); } On my Infrastructure layer, i have the implementation of IProjectRepository which does the actual querying (the code is irrelevant). I don't like two things about this design: 1) I've read that the repository interfaces should be a part of the domain but the implementations should not. That makes no sense to me since i think the domain shouldn't call the repository methods (persistence ignorance), that should be a responsability of the services in the application layer. (Something tells me i'm terribly wrong.) 2) The process of creating a new project involves two validations (not null and not duplicate). In my design above, those two validations are scattered in two different places making it harder (imho) to see whats going on. So, my question is, from a DDD perspective, is this modelled correctly or would you do it in a different way?

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  • Available Coroutine Libraries in Java

    - by JUST MY correct OPINION
    I would like to do some stuff in Java that would be clearer if written using concurrent routines, but for which full-on threads are serious overkill. The answer, of course, is the use of coroutines, but there doesn't appear to be any coroutine support in the standard Java libraries and a quick Google on it brings up tantalising hints here or there, but nothing substantial. Here's what I've found so far: JSIM has a coroutine class, but it looks pretty heavyweight and conflates, seemingly, with threads at points. The point of this is to reduce the complexity of full-on threading, not to add to it. Further I'm not sure that the class can be extracted from the library and used independently. Xalan has a coroutine set class that does coroutine-like stuff, but again it's dubious if this can be meaningfully extracted from the overall library. It also looks like it's implemented as a tightly-controlled form of thread pool, not as actual coroutines. There's a Google Code project which looks like what I'm after, but if anything it looks more heavyweight than using threads would be. I'm basically nervous of something that requires software to dynamically change the JVM bytecode at runtime to do its work. This looks like overkill and like something that will cause more problems than coroutines would solve. Further it looks like it doesn't implement the whole coroutine concept. By my glance-over it gives a yield feature that just returns to the invoker. Proper coroutines allow yields to transfer control to any known coroutine directly. Basically this library, heavyweight and scary as it is, only gives you support for iterators, not fully-general coroutines. The promisingly-named Coroutine for Java fails because it's a platform-specific (obviously using JNI) solution. And that's about all I've found. I know about the native JVM support for coroutines in the Da Vinci Machine and I also know about the JNI continuations trick for doing this. These are not really good solutions for me, however, as I would not necessarily have control over which VM or platform my code would run on. (Indeed any bytecode manipulation system would suffer similar problems -- it would be best were this pure Java if possible. Runtime bytecode manipulation would restrict me from using this on Android, for example.) So does anybody have any pointers? Is this even possible? If not, will it be possible in Java 7? Edited to add: Just to ensure that confusion is contained, this is a related question to my other one, but not the same. This one is looking for an existing implementation in a bid to avoid reinventing the wheel unnecessarily. The other one is a question relating to how one would go about implementing coroutines in Java should this question prove unanswerable. The intent is to keep different questions on different threads.

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  • Why does C# exit when calling the Ada elaboration routine using debug?

    - by erict
    I have a DLL created in Ada using GPS. I am dynamically loading it and calling it successfully both from Ada and from C++. But when I try to call it from C#, the program exits on the call to Elaboration init. What am I missing? The exact same DLL is perfectly happy getting called from C++ and Ada. Edit: If I start the program without Debugging, it also works with C#. But if I run it with the Debugger, then it exits on the call to ElaborationInit. There are no indications in any of the Windows event logs. If the Ada DLL is Pure, and I skip the elaboration init call, the actual function DLL is called correctly, so it has something to do with the elaboration. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace CallingDLLfromCS { class Program { [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] public static extern IntPtr LoadLibrary(string dllToLoad); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Ansi, SetLastError = true)] public static extern IntPtr GetProcAddress(IntPtr hModule, string procedureName); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] public static extern bool FreeLibrary(IntPtr hModule); [UnmanagedFunctionPointer(CallingConvention.StdCall)] delegate int AdaCallable2_dlgt(int val); static AdaCallable2_dlgt fnAdaCallable2 = null; [UnmanagedFunctionPointer(CallingConvention.StdCall)] delegate void ElaborationInit_dlgt(); static ElaborationInit_dlgt ElaborationInit = null; [UnmanagedFunctionPointer(CallingConvention.StdCall)] delegate void AdaFinal_dlgt(); static AdaFinal_dlgt AdaFinal = null; static void Main(string[] args) { int result; bool fail = false; // assume the best IntPtr pDll2 = LoadLibrary("libDllBuiltFromAda.dll"); if (pDll2 != IntPtr.Zero) { // Note the @4 is because 4 bytes are passed. This can be further reduced by the use of a DEF file in the DLL generation. IntPtr pAddressOfFunctionToCall = GetProcAddress(pDll2, "AdaCallable@4"); if (pAddressOfFunctionToCall != IntPtr.Zero) { fnAdaCallable2 = (AdaCallable2_dlgt)Marshal.GetDelegateForFunctionPointer(pAddressOfFunctionToCall, typeof(AdaCallable2_dlgt)); } else fail = true; pAddressOfFunctionToCall = GetProcAddress(pDll2, "DllBuiltFromAdainit"); if (pAddressOfFunctionToCall != IntPtr.Zero) { ElaborationInit = (ElaborationInit_dlgt)Marshal.GetDelegateForFunctionPointer(pAddressOfFunctionToCall, typeof(ElaborationInit_dlgt)); } else fail = true; pAddressOfFunctionToCall = GetProcAddress(pDll2, "DllBuiltFromAdafinal"); if (pAddressOfFunctionToCall != IntPtr.Zero) AdaFinal = (AdaFinal_dlgt)Marshal.GetDelegateForFunctionPointer(pAddressOfFunctionToCall, typeof(AdaFinal_dlgt)); else fail = true; if (!fail) { ElaborationInit.Invoke(); // ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^ FAILS HERE result = fnAdaCallable2(50); Console.WriteLine("Return value is " + result.ToString()); AdaFinal(); } FreeLibrary(pDll2); } } } }

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  • What's the standard algorithm for syncing two lists of objects?

    - by Oliver Giesen
    I'm pretty sure this must be in some kind of text book (or more likely in all of them) but I seem to be using the wrong keywords to search for it... :( A common task I'm facing while programming is that I am dealing with lists of objects from different sources which I need to keep in sync somehow. Typically there's some sort of "master list" e.g. returned by some external API and then a list of objects I create myself each of which corresponds to an object in the master list. Sometimes the nature of the external API will not allow me to do a live sync: For instance the external list might not implement notifications about items being added or removed or it might notify me but not give me a reference to the actual item that was added or removed. Furthermore, refreshing the external list might return a completely new set of instances even though they still represent the same information so simply storing references to the external objects might also not always be feasible. Another characteristic of the problem is that both lists cannot be sorted in any meaningful way. You should also assume that initializing new objects in the "slave list" is expensive, i.e. simply clearing and rebuilding it from scratch is not an option. So how would I typically tackle this? What's the name of the algorithm I should google for? In the past I have implemented this in various ways (see below for an example) but it always felt like there should be a cleaner and more efficient way. Here's an example approach: Iterate over the master list Look up each item in the "slave list" Add items that do not yet exist Somehow keep track of items that already exist in both lists (e.g. by tagging them or keeping yet another list) When done iterate once more over the slave list Remove all objects that have not been tagged (see 4.) Update Thanks for all your responses so far! I will need some time to look at the links. Maybe one more thing worthy of note: In many of the situations where I needed this the implementation of the "master list" is completely hidden from me. In the most extreme cases the only access I might have to the master list might be a COM-interface that exposes nothing but GetFirst-, GetNext-style methods. I'm mentioning this because of the suggestions to either sort the list or to subclass it both of which is unfortunately not practical in these cases unless I copy the elements into a list of my own and I don't think that would be very efficient. I also might not have made it clear enough that the elements in the two lists are of different types, i.e. not assignment-compatible: Especially, the elements in the master list might be available as interface references only.

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  • How to copy DispatcherObject (BitmapSource) into different thread?

    - by Tomáš Kafka
    Hi, I am trying to figure out how can I copy DispatcherObject (in my case BitmapSource) into another thread. Use case: I have a WPF app that needs to show window in a new thread (the app is actually Outlook addin and we need to do this because Outlook has some hooks in the main UI thread and is stealing certain hotkeys that we need to use - 'lost in translation' in interop of Outlook, WPF (which we use for UI), and Winforms (we need to use certain microsoft-provided winforms controls)). With that, I have my implementation of WPFMessageBox, that is configured by setting some static properties - and and one of them is BitmapSource for icon. This is used so that in startup I can set WPFMessageBox.Icon once, and since then, every WPFMessageBox will have the same icon. The problem is that BitmapSource, which is assigned into icon, is a DispatcherObject, and when read, it will throw InvalidOperationException: "The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it.". How can I clone that BitmapSource into the actual thread? It has Clone() and CloneCurrentValue() methods, which don't work (they throw the same exception as well). It also occured to me to use originalIcon.Dispatcher.Invoke( do the cloning here ) - but the BitmapSource's Dispatcher is null, and still - I'd create a copy on a wrong thread and still couldnt use it on mine. BitmapSource.IsFrozen == true. Any idea on how to copy the BitmapSource into different thread (without completely reconstructing it from an image file in a new thread)? EDIT: So, freezing does not help: In the end I have a BitmapFrame (Window.Icon doesn't take any other kind of ImageSource anyway), and when I assign it as a Window.Icon on a different thread, even if frozen, I get InvalidOperationException: "The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it." with a following stack trace: WindowsBase.dll!System.Windows.Threading.Dispatcher.VerifyAccess() + 0x4a bytes WindowsBase.dll!System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherObject.VerifyAccess() + 0xc bytes PresentationCore.dll!System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapDecoder.Frames.get() + 0xe bytes PresentationFramework.dll!MS.Internal.AppModel.IconHelper.GetIconHandlesFromBitmapFrame(object callingObj = {WPFControls.WPFMBox.WpfMessageBoxWindow: header}, System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapFrame bf = {System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapFrameDecode}, ref MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle largeIconHandle = {MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle}, ref MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle smallIconHandle = {MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle}) + 0x3b bytes > PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.UpdateIcon() + 0x118 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.SetupInitialState(double requestedTop = NaN, double requestedLeft = NaN, double requestedWidth = 560.0, double requestedHeight = NaN) + 0x8a bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.CreateSourceWindowImpl() + 0x19b bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.SafeCreateWindow() + 0x29 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.ShowHelper(object booleanBox) + 0x81 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.Show() + 0x48 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.ShowDialog() + 0x29f bytes WPFControls.dll!WPFControls.WPFMBox.WpfMessageBox.ShowDialog(System.Windows.Window owner = {WPFControlsTest.MainWindow}) Line 185 + 0x10 bytes C#

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  • GWT combobox not displaying correctly

    - by James
    Hi, I am using GWT with GWT-EXT running in glassfish. I create 2 combo boxes as follows: import com.extjs.gxt.ui.client.widget.form.ComboBox; import com.extjs.gxt.ui.client.widget.form.SimpleComboBox; this.contentPanel = new ContentPanel(); this.contentPanel.setFrame(true); this.contentPanel.setSize((int)(Window.getClientWidth()*0.95), 600); this.contentPanel.setLayout(new FitLayout()); initWidget(this.contentPanel); SimpleComboBox<String> combo = new SimpleComboBox<String>(); combo.setEmptyText("Select a topic..."); combo.add("String1"); combo.add("String2"); this.contentPanel.add(combo); ComboBox combo1 = new ComboBox(); combo1.setEmptyText("Select a topic..."); ListStore topics = new ListStore(); topics.add("String3"); topics.add("String4"); combo.setStore(topics); this.contentPanel.add(combo1); When these are loaded in the browser (IE 8.0, Firefox 3.6.6 or Chrome 10.0) the combo boxes are shown but don't have the pull down arrow. They look like a text field with the "Select a topic..." text. When you select the text it disappears and if you type a character and then delete it the options are shown (i.e. pull down is invoked) however, there is still no pull down arrow. Does anyone know what the issue might be? Or how I can investigate further? Is it possible to see the actual HTML the browser is getting, when I View Page Source I only get the landing page HTML. As an additional I also have a import com.google.gwt.user.client.ui.Grid that does not render correctly. It is in table format but has no grid lines or header bar etc. Cheers, James

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  • passing custom object as parameter to a webmethod of asp.net web service

    - by Jon
    Hi, I have a custom class declared as follows (in vb.net) <Serializable()> _ Public Class NumInfo Public n As String Public f As Integer Public fc As char() Public t As Integer Public tc As char() Private validFlag As Boolean = True Public Sub New() End Sub 'I also have public properties(read/write) for all the public variablesEnd Class In my service.asmx codebehind class I have a webmethod as follows: <WebMethod()> _ <XmlInclude(GetType(NumInfo))> _ Public Function ConvertTo(ByVal info As NumInfo) As String Return mbc(info)'mbc is another function defined in my service.asmx "service" class End Function The problem is that when I start debugging it to test it, the page that I get does not contain any fields where I could input the values for the public fields of numInfo. How do I initialise the class? There is no "Invoke" button either. All I see are soap details as below: ConvertToTestThe test form is only available for methods with primitive types as parameters.SOAP 1.1The following is a sample SOAP 1.1 request and response. The placeholders shown need to be replaced with actual values.POST /Converter/BC.asmx HTTP/1.1Host: localhostContent-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8Content-Length: lengthSOAPAction: "http://Services/ConvertTo"<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Body> <ConvertTo xmlns="http://Services/"> <info> <n>string</n> <f>int&lt/f> <fc> <char>char</char> <char>char>/char> </fc>..etc.. What am I doing wrong? For the record I tried replacing char() with string to see if it was the array causing problems but that didn't help either. I'm fairly new to web services. I tried replacing the custom object parameter with a primitive parameter just to check how things worked and it rendered a page with an input field and invoke button. I just can't seem to get it working with custom object. Help!

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  • embedded Italic, bold fonts don't look the same in flex as in Windows...

    - by Mark
    ...unless they're something like "Times New Roman" or some other established font with a fully designed italic and bold, presumably in seperate files. Let me explain what I mean (though why no one has commented on this before I have no idea.) Numerous, numerous fonts do not have a seperate file for italic and bold, and in fact to the best of my knowledge don't even have italic and bold defined as such. But if you install them on windows (for example) and then use them in an app, You can still make use of italic and bold with those fonts. For italic, and oblique angle is just given to it, presumably by Windows, and it looks the same in all Windows apps, and the bold is just given a heavier weight. OK, well here's the problem: if you embed a font like that in a Flex app, as a "SystemFont" the italic and bold will not look the same as they do in Windows. Specifically, the oblique angle is invariably much less than in Windows (i.e the italic slant is much less) and the bold version is not bold enough. I vaguely recall thinking that there was some flex mechanism to assign custom oblique angles for italic (and weight for bold) but now can't recall what it is. Does anyone know the correct established way to do this. The following is actually a seperate (but related) font question (in case anyone is expert in all this.) Its rather a lengthy question and can be skipped, but its something that's plagued me for a long time. I mention above embedding as a "SystemFont", so iow something like this: package fonts { import flash.display.Sprite; public class FLW_Script_I extends Sprite { [Embed(systemFont='FLW Script', fontName='FLW Script', fontStyle='italic', fntWeight='normal', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype')] public var wrFont:Class; } } The other alternative to SystemFont for embedding, is "Source" followed by the name of an actual font file. If you try to embed one of the aformentioned single file fonts as a Source file (as opposed to SystemFont) and specify fontStyle='italic', then the mxmlc compiler will return an error and say there is no italic info in the font file. So up to now I have only been embedding these fonts as "SystemFont". The problem is, flex uses two different font compilers internally for Source embedding and SystemFont embedding. For source font embeds it uses the "Batik" compiler and for SystemFont, the JRE (Java Runtime) font compiler. Well actually the Batik is considered a superior compiler and generally produces better looking fonts. And also if you mix normal fonts compiled with Batik and italic compiled with JRE, sometimes the line spacing is different for the two, and it doesn't look right. So does anyone have an idea how to get mxmlc to do italic and bold for these single file fonts when embedding as "Source". Would there be a way using C++ or whatever to construct an "italic" font file from the SystemFont for such a font in windows.

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  • Is READ UNCOMMITTED / NOLOCK safe in this situation?

    - by Ben Challenor
    I know that snapshot isolation would fix this problem, but I'm wondering if NOLOCK is safe in this specific case so that I can avoid the overhead. I have a table that looks something like this: drop table Data create table Data ( Id BIGINT NOT NULL, Date BIGINT NOT NULL, Value BIGINT, constraint Cx primary key (Date, Id) ) create nonclustered index Ix on Data (Id, Date) There are no updates to the table, ever. Deletes can occur but they should never contend with the SELECT because they affect the other, older end of the table. Inserts are regular and page splits to the (Id, Date) index are extremely common. I have a deadlock situation between a standard INSERT and a SELECT that looks like this: select top 1 Date, Value from Data where Id = @p0 order by Date desc because the INSERT acquires a lock on Cx (Date, Id; Value) and then Ix (Id, Date), but the SELECT acquires a lock on Ix (Id, Date) and then Cx (Date, Id; Value). This is because the SELECT first seeks on Ix and then joins to a seek on Cx. Swapping the clustered and non-clustered index would break this cycle, but it is not an acceptable solution because it would introduce cycles with other (more complex) SELECTs. If I add NOLOCK to the SELECT, can it go wrong in this case? Can it return: More than one row, even though I asked for TOP 1? No rows, even though one exists and has been committed? Worst of all, a row that doesn't satisfy the WHERE clause? I've done a lot of reading about this online, but the only reproductions of over- or under-count anomalies I've seen (one, two) involve a scan. This involves only seeks. Jeff Atwood has a post about using NOLOCK that generated a good discussion. I was particularly interested in a comment by Rick Townsend: Secondly, if you read dirty data, the risk you run is of reading the entirely wrong row. For example, if your select reads an index to find your row, then the update changes the location of the rows (e.g.: due to a page split or an update to the clustered index), when your select goes to read the actual data row, it's either no longer there, or a different row altogether! Is this possible with inserts only, and no updates? If so, then I guess even my seeks on an insert-only table could be dangerous. Update: I'm trying to figure out how snapshot isolation works. It seems to be row-based, where transactions read the table (with no shared lock!), find the row they are interested in, and then see if they need to get an old version of the row from the version store in tempdb. But in my case, no row will have more than one version, so the version store seems rather pointless. And if the row was found with no shared lock, how is it different to just using NOLOCK?

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  • AJAX response not valid in C++ but Apache

    - by fehergeri
    I want to make a server written in C++ to power my game. I learned the basics of sockets and wrote a basic chat program that worked well. Now I want to create an HTTP server like Apache, but only for the AJAX request-response part. I think just for the beginning i copied one Apache response text, and i sent the exact response with the C++ server program. The problem that is that the browser (Firefox) connnects to the apache and everything works fine, except all of the requests get a correct response. But if i send this with the C++ client, then FireBug tells me that the response status is OK (200) but there is no actual response text. (How is this possible?) This response-text is exactly the same what apache sends. I made a bit-bit comparison and they were the same. The php file wich is the original response <?php echo "AS";echo rand(0,9); ?> And the origional source code: Socket.h http://pastebin.com/bW9qxtrR Socket.cpp http://pastebin.com/S3c8RFM7 main.cpp http://pastebin.com/ckExuXsR index.html http://pastebin.com/mcfEEqPP < this is the requester file. ajax.js http://pastebin.com/uXJe9hVC benchmark.js http://pastebin.com/djSYtKg9 jQuery is not needed. The main.cpp there is lot of trash code like main3 and main4 functions, these do not affect the result. I know that the response stuff in the C++ code is not really good because the connection closing is not the best; I will fix that later now I want to send a success response first. UPDATE: now i tested today a lot again and i find out there is no problem with the socket. I used the fiddler program to capture the the good answer and to capture the bad. They were the same. After this i turned off my socket application, and forced fiddler to auto respond, and the answer from the 'bad' answer still bat. So after that i replaced the bad with the good and nothing happedned. The bad answer with the good text still bad on the :8888 port but the other on the original :80 port was good, but they were absolutly the same and the same program sended it (fiddler) i think there is something missing if the response is not on the same server address (even not the same port). UPDATE: oh my god! i cant send ajax request to a remote server. now i know this.

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  • How does the rsync algorithm correctly identify repeating blocks?

    - by Kai
    I'm on a personal quest to learn how the rsync algorithm works. After some reading and thinking, I've come up with a situation where I think the algorithm fails. I'm trying to figure out how this is resolved in an actual implementation. Consider this example, where A is the receiver and B is the sender. A = abcde1234512345fghij B = abcde12345fghij As you can see, the only change is that 12345 has been removed. Now, to make this example interesting, let's choose a block size of 5 bytes (chars). Hashing the values on the sender's side using the weak checksum gives the following values list. abcde|12345|fghij abcde -> 495 12345 -> 255 fghij -> 520 values = [495, 255, 520] Next we check to see if any hash values differ in A. If there's a matching block we can skip to the end of that block for the next check. If there's a non-matching block then we've found a difference. I'll step through this process. Hash the first block. Does this hash exist in the values list? abcde -> 495 (yes, so skip) Hash the second block. Does this hash exist in the values list? 12345 -> 255 (yes, so skip) Hash the third block. Does this hash exist in the values list? 12345 -> 255 (yes, so skip) Hash the fourth block. Does this hash exist in the values list? fghij -> 520 (yes, so skip) No more data, we're done. Since every hash was found in the values list, we conclude that A and B are the same. Which, in my humble opinion, isn't true. It seems to me this will happen whenever there is more than one block that share the same hash. What am I missing?

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  • Array values disappear in PHP SoapClient call to Cisco phone system.

    - by Jamin
    I am attempting to consume a SOAP service provided by our Cisco phone system (documentation), to get the current status of a given set of phones. I have an array of phone names, which I'm trying to pass to the service, however, the values of the array are being eaten somewhere Array of items like so: $items = array( 0 => "SEP0004F2E57F8C", 1 => "SEP001111BF8758", 2 => "SEP001320BD485C" ); Attempting to call the method: $client = new SoapClient( "https://x.x.x.x/realtimeservice/services/RisPort?wsdl", array( "login" => "admin", "password"=> "xxxxx", "trace" => true ) ); $devices = $client->SelectCmDevice( "", array( "SelectBy" => "Name", "Status" => "Any", "SelectedItems" => $items ) ); When I debug the complete request I get the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope mlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ns1="http://schemas.cisco.com/ast/soap/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"> <SOAP-ENV:Body> <ns1:SelectCmDevice> <StateInfo xsi:type="xsd:string"></StateInfo> <CmSelectionCriteria xsi:type="ns1:CmSelectionCriteria"> <MaxReturnedDevices xsi:nil="true"/> <Class xsi:nil="true"/> <Model xsi:nil="true"/> <Status xsi:type="xsd:string">Any</Status> <NodeName xsi:nil="true"/> <SelectBy xsi:type="xsd:string">Name</SelectBy> <SelectItems SOAP-ENC:arrayType="ns1:SelectItem[3]" xsi:type="ns1:SelectItems"> <item xsi:type="ns1:SelectItem"/> <item xsi:type="ns1:SelectItem"/> <item xsi:type="ns1:SelectItem"/> </SelectItems> </CmSelectionCriteria> </ns1:SelectCmDevice> </SOAP-ENV:Body> </SOAP-ENV:Envelope> The correct number of <Item elements were counted and inserted into the <SelectItems object, however, the actual item names themselves are gone. I would guess it needs to be <ItemSEP0004F2E57F8C</Item, etc., but I can't seem to figure out how to make it do that. Thank you in advance for any help!!!

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  • How can I structure and recode messy categorical data in R?

    - by briandk
    I'm struggling with how to best structure categorical data that's messy, and comes from a dataset I'll need to clean. The Coding Scheme I'm analyzing data from a university science course exam. We're looking at patterns in student responses, and we developed a coding scheme to represent the kinds of things students are doing in their answers. A subset of the coding scheme is shown below. Note that within each major code (1, 2, 3) are nested non-unique sub-codes (a, b, ...). What the Raw Data Looks Like I've created an anonymized, raw subset of my actual data which you can view here. Part of my problem is that those who coded the data noticed that some students displayed multiple patterns. The coders' solution was to create enough columns (reason1, reason2, ...) to hold students with multiple patterns. That becomes important because the order (reason1, reason2) is arbitrary--two students (like student 41 and student 42 in my dataset) who correctly applied "dependency" should both register in an analysis, regardless of whether 3a appears in the reason column or the reason2 column. How Can I Best Structure Student Data? Part of my problem is that in the raw data, not all students display the same patterns, or the same number of them, in the same order. Some students may do just one thing, others may do several. So, an abstracted representation of example students might look like this: Note in the example above that student002 and student003 both are coded as "1b", although I've deliberately shown the order as different to reflect the reality of my data. My (Practical) Questions Should I concatenate reason1, reason2, ... into one column? How can I (re)code the reasons in R to reflect the multiplicity for some students? Thanks I realize this question is as much about good data conceptualization as it is about specific features of R, but I thought it would be appropriate to ask it here. If you feel it's inappropriate for me to ask the question, please let me know in the comments, and stackoverflow will automatically flood my inbox with sadface emoticons. If I haven't been specific enough, please let me know and I'll do my best to be clearer.

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