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• Why don't my scrollbars work properly when programmatically hiding rows in silverlight Datagrid?

  - by Luke Vilnis

  I have a Silverlight datagrid with custom code that allows for +/- buttons on the lefthand side and can display a table with a tree structure. The +/- buttons are bound to a IsExpanded property on my ViewModelRows, as I call them. The visibility of rows is bound to an IsVisible property on the ViewModelRows which is determined based on whether or not all of the parent rows are expanded. Straightforward enough. This code works fine in that if I scroll up and down the grid with PageUp/PageDown or the arrow keys, all the right rows are hidden and everything has the right structure and I can play with the +/- buttons to my hearts content. However, the vertical scroll bar on the right hand side, although it starts off the correct size and it scrolls through the rows smoothly, when I collapse rows and then re-expand them, doesn't go back to its correct size. The scrollbar can still usually be moved around to scroll through the whole collection, but because it is too big, once the bar moves to the bottom, there are still more rows to go through and it sort of jerkily shoots all the way down to the bottom or sometimes fails to scroll at all. This is pretty hard to describe so I included a screenshot with the black lines drawn on to show the difference in scrollbar length even though the two grids have the same number of rows expanded. I think this might be a bug related to the way the Datagrid does virtualization of rows. It seems to me like it isn't properly keeping track of how tall each row is supposed to be when expansion states change. Is there a way to programmatically "poke" (read hack) it to recalculate its scrollbar size on LoadingRow or something ugly like that? I'd include a code sample but there's 2 c# files and 1 xaml file so I wanted to see if anyone else has heard of this sort of issue before I try to make it reproducible in a self-contained way. Once again, scrolling with the arrow keys works fine so I'm pretty sure the underlying logic and binding is working, there's just some issue with the row height not being calculated properly. Since I'm a new user, it won't let me use image tags so here's the link to a picture of the problem: http://img210.imageshack.us/img210/8760/messedupscrollbars.png

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• Not able to delete list which dynamically created with jquery.

  - by shin

  I have two html here. The first one is dynamically generated by php and second one is just html to test. I also have the following jquery. When I click a cross with class delete in the second ones(plain html), it works nicely. However when I click a cross in the first ones, it does not work. It redirect me to the home page with # at the end. I am hoping someone point out what I am doing wrong. Thank in advance. HTML First part (dyanmicall generated) <ul style="display: block;" id="message"> <li class="41"> <span class="user"><strong>shin</strong></span> <span class="msg"> delete this as well</span> <span class="date">2010-01-15 07:47:31</span> <a href="#" id="41" class="delete">x</a> <div class="clear"></div></li> <li class="40"> <span class="user"><strong>shin</strong></span> <span class="msg"> delete me as well</span> <span class="date">2010-01-14 16:01:44</span> <a href="#" id="40" class="delete">x</a> <div class="clear"></div></li> ... ...</ul> Second part which is plain html <ul id="another"> <li><a href="#">you can't delete me</a></li> <li><a href="#" class="delete">delete this</a></li> <li><a href="#" class="delete">delete this</a></li> </ul> Here is jquery $(".delete").click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); loading.fadeIn(); var commentContainer = $(this).parent(); var id = $(this).attr("id"); // var string = 'id='+ id ; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "index.php/admin/messages/changestatus/"+id, // data: string, cache: false, success: function(){ commentContainer.slideUp('slow', function() {$(this).remove();}); loading.fadeOut(); } }); return false; }); I am using CodeIgniter by the way.

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• How can I make these images download on a seperate thread?

  - by Andy Barlow

  Hello!! I have the following code running on my Android device. It works great and displays my list items wonderfully. It's also clever in the fact it only downloads the data when it's needed by the ArrayAdapter. However, whilst the download of the thumbnail is occurring, the entire list stalls and you cannot scroll until it's finished downloading. Is there any way of threading this so it'll still scroll happily, maybe show a place holder for the downloading image, finish the download, and then show? Any help with this would be really apreciated. Thank-you kindly. Andy Barlow private class CatalogAdapter extends ArrayAdapter { private ArrayList<SingleQueueResult> items; //Must research what this actually does! public CatalogAdapter(Context context, int textViewResourceId, ArrayList<SingleQueueResult> items) { super(context, textViewResourceId, items); this.items = items; } /** This overrides the getview of the ArrayAdapter. It should send back our new custom rows for the list */ @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { View v = convertView; if (v == null) { LayoutInflater vi = (LayoutInflater)getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); v = vi.inflate(R.layout.mylists_rows, null); } final SingleQueueResult result = items.get(position); // Sets the text inside the rows as they are scrolled by! if (result != null) { TextView title = (TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_title); TextView format = (TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_format); title.setText(result.getTitle()); format.setText(result.getThumbnail()); // Download Images ImageView myImageView = (ImageView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_thumbnail); downloadImage(result.getThumbnail(), myImageView); } return v; } } // This should run in a seperate thread public void downloadImage(String imageUrl, ImageView myImageView) { try { url = new URL(imageUrl); URLConnection conn = url.openConnection(); conn.connect(); InputStream is = conn.getInputStream(); BufferedInputStream bis = new BufferedInputStream(is); Bitmap bm = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(bis); bis.close(); is.close(); myImageView.setImageBitmap(bm); } catch (IOException e) { /* Reset to Default image on any error. */ //this.myImageView.setImageDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.default)); } }

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• MS Access 2003 - Option Group frame: can I add text boxes that are part of the frame instead of rad

  - by Justin

  Ok so this maybe a simple/silly question but I don't know so here goes: In access let's say I want to have a frame control, so I click the option group button and add it to the desgin surface. However, I am not wanting to use this as a option group with radio button selection, instead I would like to add text boxes instead the frame, so that when I reference the frame, it references every control instead of it, hence the text boxes, cbo boxes, etc.....just as it would if they were radio option selections. So can you do this? I want whatever controls I add inside the frame to be easily referenced (i.e. make all controls visible just by using frameExample.visible = true) so that I can build my own tab control groupings..... can this be done? Thanks! EDIT: What I am trying to accomplish is having a form that includes a collection of controls (input controls - cbo boxes, text boxes, etc), that serve as the Main record information. These are saved to a table via an INSERT statement on button_click because this form is unbound. Next I have 8 categories that are relative per each main record (and data that goes along with it). Each of these categories could have a sub form area and a button click that bring it's relative form into the sub form area. These sub forms would be unbound as well as I would just save data via SQL statement. So i know I could accomplish this by running the insert statement from the parent form, on the main collection control's data that would create the KeyID number, then run a SQL statement that would turn around and load that KeyID number right back onto the page in a hidden text box. Then when I click one of the sub forms and load its relative collection of controls, I could then save that data along with KeyID for each of these sub-forms/tables. SO...... I was wondering if instead you could define these controls as a collection so that you could hide and make visible all the ones you need on button clicks and avoid the need for additional forms (subs). I know that if a user enters data into a text box, and then somewhere along the way that box becomes hidden, the data still exists in it and still ends up in the SQL statement.... So I want all these controls to exist on the same form, but I thought what is I could encapsulate them into a frame like an option group, then I could call the frame and all the relative controls would be called up (made visible) as needed. Sorry for the long explanation but I thought it would help.

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• Repeating fields in similar database tables

  - by user1738833

  I have been tasked with working on a database that I have never seen before and I'm looking at the DB structure. Some of the central and most heavily queried and joined tables look like virtual duplicates of each other. Here's a massively simplified representation of the situation, with business-sensitive information changed, listing hypothetical table names and fields: TopLevelGroup: PK_TLGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK SubGroup: PK_SubGroupId, FK_ParentTopLevelGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK SubSubGroup: PK_SubSUbGroupId, FK_ParentSubGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK I haven't listed the types of the fields as I don't think it's particularly important to the situation. In addition, it's worth saying that rather than four repeated fields as in the example above, I'm looking at 86 repeated fields. For the most part, those fields genuinely do represent "facts" about the primary table entity, so it's not automatically wrong for that reason. In addition, the "groups" represented here have a property inheritance relationship. If DisplaysXOnBill is NULL in the SubSubGroup, it takes the value of DisplaysXOnBillfrom it's parent, the SubGroup, and so-on up to the TopLevelGroup. Further, the requirements will never require that the model extends beyond three levels, so there is no need for flexibility in that area. Is there a design smell from several tables which describe very similar entities having almost identical fields? If so, what might be a better design of the example above? I'm using the phrase "design smell" to indicate a possible problem. Of course, in any given situation, a particular design might well be the best solution. I'm looking for a more general answer - wondering what might be wrong with this design and what might be the better design were that the case. Possibly related, but not primary questions: Is this database schema in a reasonably normal form (e.g. to 3NF), insofar as can be told from the information I've provided. I can't see a problem with the requirements of 2NF and 3NF, except in their inheriting the requirements of 1NF. Is 1NF satisfied though? Are repeating groups allowed in different tables? Is there a best-practice method for implementing the inheritance relationship in a database as I require? The method above feels clunky to me because any query on the SubSubGroup necessarily needs to join onto the SubGroup and the TopLevelGroup tables to collect inherited facts, which can make even trivial joins requiring facts from the SubSubGroup table rather long-winded. There are, of course, political considerations to making a relatively large change like this. For the purpose of this question, I'm happy to ignore that fact in the interests of keeping the answers ring-fenced to the technical problem.

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• Android listview array adapter selected

  - by João Melo

  i'm trying to add a contextual action mode to a listview, but i'm having some problems with the selection, if i make aList1.setSelection(position) it doesn't select anything, and if i make List1.setItemChecked(position, true) it works but it only changes the font color a little and i want it to change the background or something more notable, is there any way to detect the selection and manually and change the background, or i'm missing something? the list: <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" > <ListView android:id="@+id/list1" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:choiceMode="singleChoice" android:drawSelectorOnTop="false"> </ListView> </RelativeLayout> the adapter: public class ServicesRowAdapter extends ArrayAdapter<String[]> { private final Activity context; private final ArrayList<String[]> names; static class ViewHolder { public TextView Id; public TextView Date; public RelativeLayout statusbar,bglayout; } public ServicesRowAdapter(Activity context, ArrayList<String[]> names) { super(context, R.layout.servicesrowlayout, names); this.context = context; this.names = names; } @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { View rowView = convertView; if (rowView == null) { LayoutInflater inflater = context.getLayoutInflater(); rowView = inflater.inflate(R.layout.servicesrowlayout, null); ViewHolder viewHolder = new ViewHolder(); viewHolder.Id = (TextView) rowView.findViewById(R.id.idlabel); viewHolder.Date = (TextView) rowView.findViewById(R.id.datelabel); rowView.setTag(viewHolder); } ViewHolder holder = (ViewHolder) rowView.getTag(); holder.Date.setText(names.get(position)[2]); holder.Id.setText(names.get(position)[1]); return rowView; } } with the use of a layout: <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <TextView android:id="@+id/idlabel" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_centerVertical="true" android:gravity="right" android:text="@+id/idlabel" android:textSize="20dp" android:width="70dp" > </TextView> <TextView android:id="@+id/datelabel" android:layout_centerVertical="true" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@+id/datelabel" android:textSize="20dp" android:layout_marginLeft="90dp" > </TextView> </RelativeLayout

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• MS Access MSChart.Graph.8 not printing

  - by Tanj

  Software: Microsoft Access 2007 SP2 Database File Version: Access 2000 I have an access program that I inherited from a previous employee. It uses forms for reports and since I don't have much experience in access I have continued to do this. I have created a copy of the program for another project and modified it to suit. I am having trouble getting more then one chart to print. All the charts display in form view, they all have the same properties (excepting data, position, etc.) For some reason they are not printing. They don't even show up in the print preview. I am thinking it must be something with the graphs themselves as they sometimes lose all information. I have to open the graphs in edit mode and change the data source from column to row and back again so that it gets redrawn. (Refresh doesn't fix it) So right now I don't even have a clue as to where to look so ideas are welcome. Edit #1 It seems to be a problem with linking to an unbound form. Subform Field Linker: Can't build a link between unbound forms. The query for the main form is SELECT tTest.ixTest, tMotorTypes.ixMotorType, tMotorTypes.asMotorType, tMotorTypes.fDeprecated, tTestType.asTest, tTest.asSerialNum, tTest.asOrderNum, tTest.asFrameNum, tTest.asRotorNum, tTest.asOperator, tTest.iStation, tTest.dtTestDate, tTest.ixTestType FROM tMotorTypes INNER JOIN (tTestType INNER JOIN tTest ON tTestType.ixTestType=tTest.ixTestType) ON tMotorTypes.ixMotorType=tTest.ixMotorType; The query for the chart is: SELECT qGraphRSTTemperatures.Frequency, qGraphRSTTemperatures.[Drive End], qGraphRSTTemperatures.[Non Drive End], qGraphRSTTemperatures.[Air In], qGraphRSTTemperatures.Core FROM qGraphRSTTemperatures ORDER BY qGraphRSTTemperatures.ixTemperature; Query qGraphRSTTemperatures: SELECT tElectricalData.dblFrequency AS Frequency, tTemperatures.dblDrvEnd AS [Drive End], tTemperatures.dblNonDrvEnd AS [Non Drive End], tTemperatures.dblAirIn AS [Air In], tTemperatures.dblCore AS Core, tSubTest.ixTest, tTemperatures.ixTemperature FROM (tSubTest INNER JOIN tElectricalData ON tSubTest.ixSubTest = tElectricalData.ixSubTest) LEFT JOIN tTemperatures ON tElectricalData.ixElectrical = tTemperatures.ixElectrical WHERE (((tSubTest.ixSubTestType)=5)) ORDER BY tSubTest.ixTest, tTemperatures.ixTemperature; So how come, in the form view it shows the graph with the correct data when linked thus: Child field: ixTest Master field: ixTest but won't print the graph. The graph will print if I remove the links, but then I have all the data from chart query as it is not limited by ixTest. edit #2 It seems to be a data retrieval/rendering issue in printing. Is there anything in printing that changes the context of records with respect to parent/child relationships?

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• jQuery selectors - parental problems

  - by aressidi

  Hi there, I have an emote selector that opens up when a user clicks an entry in a diary. The way I've worked it is that the emote selector panel lives hidden at the top of the page. When a user clicks on the 'emote control' associated with an entry, I use JavaScript to grab the HTML of the emote selector panel from the top of the page and insert it next to the entry. Using Firebug, here's what the finished product would look like in the page (snippet from element inspect). I'm trying to get the ID for the class 'emote-control-container' which contains the entry id: <td> <div id="1467002" class="emote-select emote-default">&nbsp;</div> <div class="emote-control-container" id="emote-controls-1467002"> <div id="emote-control-selector"> <div id="emote-control-selector-body"> <ul> <li id="emote-1"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> <li id="emote-2"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> <li id="emote-3"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> <li id="emote-4"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> </ul> </div> <div id="emote-control-selector-footer"> &nbsp; </div> </div> </div> </td> I need the entry ID along with the emote ID to make a post via AJAX when a user selects an emote from the selector panel by clicking on it. I'm able to get the emote ID just fine with this, which I'm using to alert-out the selected emote ID: jQuery('li').live('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault; var emoteId = this.id; alert(emoteId); }); I'm having trouble traversing up DOM to get the element ID from '.emote-control-container. I've tried everything, but I'd expect this to work, but it doesn't: jQuery('li').live('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault; var entryId = jQuery(this.id).parent(".emote-control-container").attr("id"); alert(entryId); }); What am I doing wrong.? I can't target the ID of the .emote-control-container.

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• Log a user in to an ASP.net application using Windows Authentication without using Windows Authentic

  - by Rising Star

  I have an ASP.net application I'm developing authentication for. I am using an existing cookie-based log on system to log users in to the system. The application runs as an anonymous account and then checks the cookie when the user wants to do something restricted. This is working fine. However, there is one caveat: I've been told that for each page that connects to our SQL server, I need to make it so that the user connects using an Active Directory account. because the system I'm using is cookie based, the user isn't logged in to Active Directory. Therefore, I use impersonation to connect to the server as a specific account. However, the powers that be here don't like impersonation; they say that it clutters up the code. I agree, but I've found no way around this. It seems that the only way that a user can be logged in to an ASP.net application is by either connecting with Internet Explorer from a machine where the user is logged in with their Active Directory account or by typing an Active Directory username and password. Neither of these two are workable in my application. I think it would be nice if I could make it so that when a user logs in and receives the cookie (which actually comes from a separate log on application, by the way), there could be some code run which tells the application to perform all network operations as the user's Active Directory account, just as if they had typed an Active Directory username and password. It seems like this ought to be possible somehow, but the solution evades me. How can I make this work? Update To those who have responded so far, I apologize for the confusion I have caused. The responses I've received indicate that you've misunderstood the question, so please allow me to clarify. I have no control over the requirement that users must perform network operations (such as SQL queries) using Active Directory accounts. I've been told several times (online and in meat-space) that this is an unusual requirement and possibly bad practice. I also have no control over the requirement that users must log in using the existing cookie-based log on application. I understand that in an ideal MS ecosystem, I would simply dis-allow anonymous access in my IIS settings and users would log in using Windows Authentication. This is not the case. The current system is that as far as IIS is concerned, the user logs in anonymously (even though they supply credentials which result in the issuance of a cookie) and we must programmatically check the cookie to see if the user has access to any restricted resources. In times past, we have simply used a single SQL account to perform all queries. My direct supervisor (who has many years of experience with this sort of thing) wants to change this. He says that if each user has his own AD account to perform SQL queries, it gives us more of a trail to follow if someone tries to do something wrong. The closest thing I've managed to come up with is using WIF to give the user a claim to a specific Active Directory account, but I still have to use impersonation because even still, the ASP.net process presents anonymous credentials to the SQL server. It boils down to this: Can I log users in with Active Directory accounts in my ASP.net application without having the users manually enter their AD credentials? (Windows Authentication)

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• Report Builder Error (Input string was not in a correct format) when filtering data

  - by JVZ

  Issue: the user is getting an error “The requested list could not be retrieved because the query is not valid or a connection could not be made to the data source.” while trying to filter a reporting using Report Builder 2.0. When you expand the details the message is “Input string was not in a correct format” I verified that when the user clicks to see the filter values the query is being sent to the underlying database (by using profiler). When I build the same report [I'm a server admin] I have no issues and see all the filtered values, which leads me to believe this is a permissions issue. I believe I granted all the correct permissions, see below: Report Server Setup [Project Name] Data Sources Models […other folders] We are using SQL Server 2005. The user belongs to a poweruser domain group which has the following permissions: Home Report Builder View Folders Browser Home/[Project Name] Browser Report Builder View Folders [Data Sources] Browser Content Developer [Models] [Inherit roles from Parent folder] << should be same as [Project Name] folder Report server log is showing the following: w3wp!library!5!04/21/2010-08:47:27:: Call to GetPermissionsAction(/). w3wp!library!a!04/21/2010-08:47:27:: Call to GetPropertiesAction(/, PathBased). w3wp!library!5!04/21/2010-08:47:27:: Call to GetSystemPermissionsAction(). w3wp!library!a!04/21/2010-08:47:27:: Call to ListChildrenAction(/, False). w3wp!library!a!04/21/2010-08:47:27:: Call to GetSystemPropertiesAction(). w3wp!library!a!04/21/2010-08:47:27:: Call to GetSystemPropertiesAction(). w3wp!library!9!04/21/2010-08:47:40:: Call to ListModelPerspectivesAction(). w3wp!library!9!04/21/2010-08:48:22:: Call to GetUserModelAction(//Models/, ). w3wp!library!5!04/21/2010-08:48:45:: Call to GetItemTypeAction(/). w3wp!library!9!04/21/2010-08:48:46:: Call to GetItemTypeAction(/). w3wp!library!5!04/21/2010-08:48:53:: Call to GetItemTypeAction(/). w3wp!library!a!04/21/2010-08:49:21:: Call to ListModelPerspectivesAction(). w3wp!library!b!04/21/2010-08:53:40:: Call to GetUserModelAction(//Models/, ). w3wp!library!5!04/21/2010-08:54:48:: i INFO: Call to RenderFirst( '' ) w3wp!webserver!5!04/21/2010-08:54:48:: i INFO: Processed report. Report='/', Stream='' w3wp!library!9!04/21/2010-08:56:42:: Call to GetItemTypeAction(/). w3wp!library!9!04/21/2010-08:56:42:: Call to GetItemTypeAction(/). w3wp!library!a!04/21/2010-08:56:50:: Call to GetItemTypeAction(/). Any ideas on how to resolve/troubleshoot this issue?

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• Should we denormalize database to improve performance?

  - by Groo

  We have a requirement to store 500 measurements per second, coming from several devices. Each measurement consists of a timestamp, a quantity type, and several vector values. Right now there is 8 vector values per measurement, and we may consider this number to be constant for needs of our prototype project. We are using HNibernate. Tests are done in SQLite (disk file db, not in-memory), but production will probably be MsSQL. Our Measurement entity class is the one that holds a single measurement, and looks like this: public class Measurement { public virtual Guid Id { get; private set; } public virtual Device Device { get; private set; } public virtual Timestamp Timestamp { get; private set; } public virtual IList<VectorValue> Vectors { get; private set; } } Vector values are stored in a separate table, so that each of them references its parent measurement through a foreign key. We have done a couple of things to ensure that generated SQL is (reasonably) efficient: we are using Guid.Comb for generating IDs, we are flushing around 500 items in a single transaction, ADO.Net batch size is set to 100 (I think SQLIte does not support batch updates? But it might be useful later). The problem Right now we can insert 150-200 measurements per second (which is not fast enough, although this is SQLite we are talking about). Looking at the generated SQL, we can see that in a single transaction we insert (as expected): 1 timestamp 1 measurement 8 vector values which means that we are actually doing 10x more single table inserts: 1500-2000 per second. If we placed everything (all 8 vector values and the timestamp) into the measurement table (adding 9 dedicated columns), it seems that we could increase our insert speed up to 10 times. Switching to SQL server will improve performance, but we would like to know if there might be a way to avoid unnecessary performance costs related to the way database is organized right now. [Edit] With in-memory SQLite I get around 350 items/sec (3500 single table inserts), which I believe is about as good as it gets with NHibernate (taking this post for reference: http://ayende.com/Blog/archive/2009/08/22/nhibernate-perf-tricks.aspx). But I might as well switch to SQL server and stop assuming things, right? I will update my post as soon as I test it.

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• Injecting the mailer service, got "The service definition 'mailer' does not exist"?

  - by Gremo

  This is the class where the service mailer should be injected: namespace Gremo\SkebbyBundle\Transport; use Swift_Mailer; use Gremo\SkebbyBundle\Message\AbstractSkebbyMessage; class MailerTransport extends AbstractSkebbyTransport { /** * @var \Swift_Mailer */ private $mailer; public function __construct(Swift_Mailer $mailer) { $this->mailer = $mailer; } /** * @param \Gremo\SkebbyBundle\Message\AbstractSkebbyMessage $message * @return void */ public function executeTransport(AbstractSkebbyMessage $message) { /* ... */ } } Service id is gremo_skebby.transport.mailer, placed inside mailer.xml file: <parameters> <parameter key="gremo_skebby.converter.swift_message.class"> Gremo\SkebbyBundle\Converter\SwiftMessageConverter </parameter> <parameter key="gremo_skebby.transport.mailer.class"> Gremo\SkebbyBundle\Transport\MailerTransport </parameter> </parameters> <services> <service id="gremo_skebby.converter.swift_message" class="%gremo_skebby.converter.swift_message.class%" public="false" /> <service id="gremo_skebby.transport.mailer" class="%gremo_skebby.transport.mailer.class%" public="false" parent="gremo_skebby.tranport.abstract_transport"> <argument type="service" id="mailer" /> </service> </services> When i try to inject the gremo_skebby.transport.mailer into another service (an helper) i get: Symfony\Component\DependencyInjection\Exception\InvalidArgumentException : The service definition "mailer" does not exist. That is strange, because command php app/console container:debug shows that the mailer service actually exists: mailer container Swift_Mailer I'm loading mailer.xml file dynamically by the extension: if(in_array($configs['transport'], array('http', 'rest', 'mailer'))) { $loader->load('transport.xml'); $loader->load($configs['transport'] . '.xml'); $container->setAlias('gremo_skebby.transport', 'gremo_skebby.transport.' . $configs['transport']); } $loader->load('skebby.xml'); ... and gremo_skebby.transport service is injected into gremo_skebby.skebby service (skebby.xml): <parameters> <parameter key="gremo_skebby.skebby.class"> Gremo\SkebbyBundle\Skebby </parameter> </parameters> <services> <service id="gremo_skebby.skebby" class="%gremo_skebby.skebby.class%"> <argument type="service" id="gremo_skebby.transport" /> </service> </services> A quick test is giving me the same InvalidArgumentException: public function testSkebbyWithMailerTransport() { $loader = new GremoSkebbyExtension(); $container = new ContainerBuilder(); $config = $this->getEmptyConfiguration(); $loader->load(array($config), $container); $this->assertTrue($container->hasDefinition('gremo_skebby.transport.mailer')); $this->assertTrue($container->hasDefinition('gremo_skebby.skebby')); $this->assertInstanceOf('Gremo\SkebbyBundle\Skebby', $container->get('gremo_skebby.skebby')); }

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• Qt - problem appending to QList of QList

  - by bullettime

  I'm trying to append items to a QList at runtime, but I'm running on a error message. Basically what I'm trying to do is to make a QList of QLists and add a few customClass objects to each of the inner lists. Here's my code: widget.h: class Widget : public QWidget { Q_OBJECT public: Widget(QWidget *parent = 0); ~Widget(); public slots: static QList<QList<customClass> > testlist(){ QList<QList<customClass> > mylist; for(int w=0 ; w<5 ; w++){ mylist.append(QList<customClass>()); } for(int z=0 ; z<mylist.size() ; z++){ for(int x=0 ; x<10 ; x++){ customClass co = customClass(); mylist.at(z).append(co); } } return mylist; } }; customclass.h: class customClass { public: customClass(){ this->varInt = 1; this->varQString = "hello world"; } int varInt; QString varQString; }; main.cpp: int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { QApplication a(argc, argv); Widget w; QList<QList<customClass> > list; list = w.testlist(); w.show(); return a.exec(); } But when I try to run the application, it gives off this error: error: passing `const QList<customClass>' as `this' argument of `void List<T>::append(const T&) [with T = customClass]' discards qualifiers I also tried inserting the objects using foreach: foreach(QList<customClass> list, mylist){ for(int x=0 ; x<10 ; x++){ list.append(customClass()); } } The error was gone, but the customClass objects weren't appended, I could verify that by using a debugging loop in main that showed the inner QLists sizes as zero. What am I doing wrong?

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• PHP sessions and class members.

  - by JDW

  Ok, messing about with classes in PHP and can't get it to work the way I'm used to as a C++/Java-guy. In the "_init" funtion, if I run a query at the "// query works here" line", everythong works, but in the "getUserID" function, all that happens is said warning... "getUserID" gets called from login.php (they are in the same dir): login.php <?php include_once 'sitehandler.php'; include_once 'dbhandler.php'; session_start(); #TODO: Safer input handling $t_userName = $_POST["name"]; $t_userId = $_SESSION['handler']['db']->getUserID($t_userName); if ($t_userId != -1) { $_SESSION['user']['name'] = $t_userName; $_SESSION['user']['id'] = $t_userId; } //error_log("user: " . $_SESSION['user']['name'] . ", id: ". $_SESSION['user']['id']); header("Location: " . $_SERVER["HTTP_REFERER"]); ? dbhandler.php <?php include_once 'handler.php'; class DBHandler extends HandlerAbstract { private $m_handle; function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } public function test() { #TODO: isdir liquibase #TODO: isfile liquibase-195/liquibase + .bat + execrights $this->m_isTested = true; } public function _init() { if (!$this->isTested()) $this->test(); if (!file_exists('files/data.db')) { #TODO: How to to if host is Windows based? exec('./files/liquibase-1.9.5/liquibase --driver=org.sqlite.JDBC --changeLogFile=files/data_db.xml --url=jdbc:sqlite:files/data.db update'); #TODO: quit if not success } #TODO: Set with default data try { $this->m_handle = new SQLite3('files/data.db'); } catch (Exception $e) { die("<hr />" . $e->getMessage() . "<hr />"); } // query works here $this->m_isSetup = true; } public function teardown() { } public function getUserID($name) { // PHP Warning: SQLite3::prepare(): The SQLite3 object has not been correctly initialised in $t_statement = $this->m_handle->prepare("SELECT id FROM users WHERE name = :name"); $t_statement->bindValue(":name", $name, SQLITE3_TEXT); $t_result = $t_statement->execute(); //var_dump($this->m_handle); return ($t_result)? (int)$t_result['id']: -1; } }

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• string categorization strategies

  - by Andrew Heath

  I'm the one-man dev team on a fledgling military history website. One aspect of the site is a catalog of ~1,200 individual battles, including the nations & formations (regiments, divisions, etc) which took part. The formation information (as well as the other battle info) was manually imported from a series of books by a 10-man volunteer team. The formations were listed in groups with varying formatting and abbreviation patterns. At the time I set up the data collection forms I couldn't think of a good way to process that data... and elected to store it all as strings in the MySQL database and sort it out later. Well, "later" - as it tends to happen - has arrived. :-) Each battle has 2+ records in the database - one for each nation that participated. Each record has a formations text string listing the formations present as the volunteer chose to add them. Some real examples: 39th Grenadier Rgmt, 26th Volksgrenadier Division 2nd Luftwaffe Field Division, 246th Infantry Division 247th Rifle Division, 255th Tank Brigade 2nd Luftwaffe Field Division, SS Cavalry Division 28th Tank Brigade, 158th Rifle Division, 135th Rifle Division, 81st Tank Brigade, 242nd Tank Brigade 78th Infantry Division 3rd Kure Special Naval Landing Force, Tulagi Seaplane Base personnel 1st Battalion 505th Infantry Regiment The ultimate goal is for each individual force to have an ID, so that its participation can be traced throughout the battle database. Formation hierarchy, such as the final item above 1st Battalion (of the) 505th Infantry Regiment also needs to be preserved. In that case, 1st Battalion and 505th Infantry Regiment would be split, but 1st Battalion would be flagged as belonging to the 505th. In database terms, I think I want to pull the formation field out of the current battle info table and create three new tables: FORMATION [id] [name] FORMATION_HIERARCHY [id] [parent] [child] FORMATION_BATTLE [f_id] [battle_id] It's simple to explain, but complicated to enact. What I'm looking for from the SO community is just some tips on how best to tackle this problem. Ideally there's some sort of method to solving this that I'm not aware of. However, as a last resort, I could always code a classification framework and call my volunteers back to sort through 2,500+ records...

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• ProgressDialog does not disappear after executing dismiss, hide or cancel?

  - by Martin

  Hello, I have an Overlay extension which has 2 dialogs as private attributes - one Dialog and one ProgressDialog. After clicking on the Overlay in the MapView, the Dialog object appears. When the user clicks a button in the Dialog it disappears and the ProgressDialog is shown. Simultaneously a background task is started by notifying a running Service. When the task is done, a method (buildingLoaded) in the Overlay object is called to switch the View and to dismiss the ProgressDialog. The View is being switched, the code is being run (I checked with the debugger) but the ProgressDialog is not dismissed. I also tried hide() and cancel() methods, but nothing works. Can somebody help me? Android version is 2.2 Here is the code: public class LODOverlay extends Overlay implements OnClickListener { private Dialog overlayDialog; private ProgressDialog progressDialog; .............. @Override public void onClick(View view) { ....... final Context ctx = view.getContext(); this.progressDialog = new ProgressDialog(ctx); ListView lv = new ListView(ctx); ArrayAdapter<String> adapter = new ArrayAdapter<String>(ctx, R.layout.layerlist, names); lv.setAdapter(adapter); final LODOverlay obj = this; lv.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { String name = ((TextView) view).getText().toString(); Intent getFloorIntent = new Intent(Map.RENDERER); getFloorIntent.putExtra("type", "onGetBuildingLayer"); getFloorIntent.putExtra("id", name); view.getContext().sendBroadcast(getFloorIntent); overlayDialog.dismiss(); obj.waitingForLayer = name; progressDialog.show(ctx, "Loading...", "Wait!!!"); } }); ....... } public void buildingLoaded(String id) { if (null != this.progressDialog) { if (id.equals(this.waitingForLayer)) { this.progressDialog.hide(); this.progressDialog.dismiss(); ............ Map.flipper.showNext(); // changes the view } } } }

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• Retrieve names of running processes

  - by Dave DeLong

  Hi everyone, First off, I know that similar questions have been asked, but the answers provided haven't been very helpful so far (they all recommend one of the following options). I have a user application that needs to determine if a particular process is running. Here's what I know about the process: The name The user (root) It should already be running, since it's a LaunchDaemon, which means Its parent process should be launchd (pid 1) I've tried several ways to get this, but none have worked so far. Here's what I've tried: Running ps and parsing the output. This works, but it's slow (fork/exec is expensive), and I'd like this to be as fast as possible. Using the GetBSDProcessList function listed here. This also works, but the way in which they say to retrieve the process name (accessing kp_proc.p_comm from each kinfo_proc structure) is flawed. The resulting char* only contains the first 16 characters of the process name, which can be seen in the definition of the kp_proc structure: #define MAXCOMLEN 16 //defined in param.h struct extern_proc { //defined in proc.h ...snip... char p_comm[MAXCOMLEN+1]; ...snip... }; Using libProc.h to retrieve process information: pid_t pids[1024]; int numberOfProcesses = proc_listpids(PROC_ALL_PIDS, 0, NULL, 0); proc_listpids(PROC_ALL_PIDS, 0, pids, sizeof(pids)); for (int i = 0; i < numberOfProcesses; ++i) { if (pids[i] == 0) { continue; } char name[1024]; proc_name(pids[i], name, sizeof(name)); printf("Found process: %s\n", name); } This works, except it has the same flaw as GetBSDProcessList. Only the first portion of the process name is returned. Using the ProcessManager function in Carbon: ProcessSerialNumber psn; psn.lowLongOfPSN = kNoProcess; psn.highLongOfPSN = 0; while (GetNextProcess(&psn) == noErr) { CFStringRef procName = NULL; if (CopyProcessName(&psn, &procName) == noErr) { NSLog(@"Found process: %@", (NSString *)procName); } CFRelease(procName); } This does not work. It only returns process that are registered with the WindowServer (or something like that). In other words, it only returns apps with UIs, and only for the current user. I can't use -[NSWorkspace launchedApplications], since this must be 10.5-compatible. In addition, this only returns information about applications that appear in the Dock for the current user. I know that it's possible to retrieve the name of running processes (since ps can do it), but the question is "Can I do it without forking and exec'ing ps?". Any suggestions?

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• symfony/zend integration - blank screen

  - by user142176

  Hi, I need to use ZendAMF on a symfony project and I'm currently working on integrating the two. I have a frontend app with two modules, one of which is 'gateway' - the AMF gateway. In my frontend app config, I have the following in the configure function: // load symfony autoloading first parent::initialize(); // Integrate Zend Framework require_once('[MY PATH TO ZEND]\Loader.php'); spl_autoload_register(array('Zend_Loader', 'autoload')); The executeIndex function my the gateway actions.class.php looks like this // No Layout $this->setLayout(false); // Set MIME Type $this->getResponse()->setContentType('application/x-amf; charset='.sfConfig::get('sf_charset')); // Disable cause this is a non-html page sfConfig::set('sf_web_debug', false); // Create AMF Server $server = new Zend_Amf_Server(); $server->setClass('MYCLASS'); echo $server->handle(); return sfView::NONE; Now when I try to visit the url for the gateway module, or even the other module which was working perfectly fine until this attempt, I only see a blank screen, with not even the symfony dev bar loaded. Oddly enough, my symfony logs are not being updated as well, which suggests that Synfony is not even being 'reached'. So presumably the error has something to do with Zend, but I have no idea how to figure out what the error could be. One thing I do know for sure is that this is not a file path error, because if I change the path in the following line (a part of frontendConfiguration as shown above), I get a Zend_Amf_Server not found error. So the path must be correct. Also if I comment out this very same line, the second module resumes to normality, and my gateway broadcasts a blank x-amf stream. spl_autoload_register(array('Zend_Loader', 'autoload')); Does anyone have any tips on how I could attach this problem? Thanks P.S. I'm currently running an older version of Zend, which is why I am using Zend_Loader instead of Zend_autoLoader (I think). But I've tried switching to the new lib, but the error still remains. So it's not a version problem as well.

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• Retrieving/Updating Entity Framework POCO objects that already exist in the ObjectContext

  - by jslatts

  I have a project using Entity Framework 4.0 with POCOs (data is stored in SQL DB, lazyloading is enabled) as follows: public class ParentObject { public int ID {get; set;} public virtual List<ChildObject> children {get; set;} } public class ChildObject { public int ID {get; set;} public int ChildRoleID {get; set;} public int ParentID {get; set;} public virtual ParentObject Parent {get; set;} public virtual ChildRoleObject ChildRole {get; set;} } public class ChildRoleObject { public int ID {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} public virtual List<ChildObject> children {get; set;} } I want to create a new ChildObject, assign it a role, then add it to an existing ParentObject. Afterwards, I want to send the new ChildObject to the caller. The code below works fine until it tries to get the object back from the database. The newChildObjectInstance only has the ChildRoleID set and does not contain a reference to the actual ChildRole object. I try and pull the new instance back out of the database in order to populate the ChildRole property. Unfortunately, in this case, instead of creating a new instance of ChildObject and assigning it to retreivedChildObject, EF finds the existing ChildObject in the context and returns the in-memory instance, with a null ChildRole property. public ChildObject CreateNewChild(int id, int roleID) { SomeObjectContext myRepository = new SomeObjectContext(); ParentObject parentObjectInstance = myRepository.GetParentObject(id); ChildObject newChildObjectInstance = new ChildObject() { ParentObject = parentObjectInstance, ParentID = parentObjectInstance.ID, ChildRoleID = roleID }; parentObjectInstance.children.Add(newChildObjectInstance); myRepository.Save(); ChildObject retreivedChildObject = myRepository.GetChildObject(newChildObjectInstance.ID); string assignedRoleName = retreivedChildObject.ChildRole.Name; //Throws exception, ChildRole is null return retreivedChildObject; } I have tried setting MergeOptions to Overwrite, calling ObjectContext.Refresh() and ObjectContext.DetectChanges() to no avail... I suspect this is related to the proxy objects that EF injects when working with POCOs. Has anyone run into this issue before? If so, what was the solution?

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• Cross-thread operation not valid: Control accessed from a thread other than the thread it was create

  - by SilverHorse

  I have a scenario. (Windows Forms, C#, .NET) There is a main form which hosts some user control. The user control does some heavy data operation, such that if I directly call the Usercontrol_Load method the UI become nonresponsive for the duration for load method execution. To overcome this I load data on different thread (trying to change existing code as little as I can) I used a background worker thread which will be loading the data and when done will notify the application that it has done its work. Now came a real problem. All the UI (main form and its child usercontrols) was created on the primary main thread. In the LOAD method of the usercontrol I'm fetching data based on the values of some control (like textbox) on userControl. The pseudocode would look like this: //CODE 1 UserContrl1_LOadDataMethod() { if(textbox1.text=="MyName") <<======this gives exception { //Load data corresponding to "MyName". //Populate a globale variable List<string> which will be binded to grid at some later stage. } } The Exception it gave was Cross-thread operation not valid: Control accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on. To know more about this I did some googling and a suggestion came up like using the following code //CODE 2 UserContrl1_LOadDataMethod() { if(InvokeRequired) // Line #1 { this.Invoke(new MethodInvoker(UserContrl1_LOadDataMethod)); return; } if(textbox1.text=="MyName") //<<======Now it wont give exception** { //Load data correspondin to "MyName" //Populate a globale variable List<string> which will be binded to grid at some later stage } } BUT BUT BUT... it seems I'm back to square one. The Application again become nonresponsive. It seems to be due to the execution of line #1 if condition. The loading task is again done by the parent thread and not the third that I spawned. I don't know whether I perceived this right or wrong. I'm new to threading. How do I resolve this and also what is the effect of execution of Line#1 if block? The situation is this: I want to load data into a global variable based on the value of a control. I don't want to change the value of a control from the child thread. I'm not going to do it ever from a child thread. So only accessing the value so that the corresponding data can be fetched from the database.

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• How to have combobox take data from a child datasource

  - by SkollSunman

  I am trying to have a datagridview with two comboboxes, a company name and a supplier account number. When a company name is selected the relevant supplier account numbers (a company can have more than one supplier account) should be filtered for that company in that row. I have a datagridview with two bindingsources: supplierBindingSource and companyBindingSource and the Supplier account combobox uses the supplierBindingSource for its datasource and company name uses the companyBindingSource for its datasource. A company can have a supplier and/or customer account so the supplierBindingSource is a child or a companyBindingSource. The supplier accounts correctly filter based on the selected company name however when another company name is selected in another row all the supplier accounts are filtered for that company. Saving still works properly, regardless of what the combo box show but currently it is very confusing for a user to select a supplier account when the labels don't show what is being saved. Is it possible to have only the selected row to filter based on the company name rather than every row? EDIT: Thanks to the answer from http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/windows/en-US/b23d9e8f-a00a-49ba-adf5-52d87c1b2890/parent-child-comboboxes-in-datagridview I have been able to make some progress. The supplier account gets filtered when the drop down box is selected and restored to the full list when selection is finished. However now I am trying to have the company selected (and not filtered) when a supplier account is selected. The issue I've run into now is that I can get the companyID (which is the valuemember for the company combobox) but I cannot select the appropriate company without just setting the value of the combobox to the companyID which displays the companyID instead of the company name. Is there a way to select the company using the companyID while preserving the displaymember/valuemember dynamic? EDIT 2: The wall of text may be off putting. Some code to help elucidate my issue DataGridViewComboBoxCell dgcb2 = (DataGridViewComboBoxCell)sdgvSalesOrderLines[cmbSupplierName.Index, e.RowIndex]; var companyID = col.FirstOrDefault(c => c.AccountID == Convert.ToInt32(dgcb.Value)).CompanyID; dgcb2.Value = companyID.toString(); The second line gets the companyID and that works just fine, the final line sets the combobox to display the companyID whereas I would like it to set the valuemember value to companyID so that it would display the corresponding company name. I can set the second line to give me the company name instead but if the value of the combobox isn't the companyID then the supplier account cannot filter based on the company selected.

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• How can I make these images download on a separate thread?

  - by Andy Barlow

  I have the following code running on my Android device. It works great and displays my list items wonderfully. It's also clever in the fact it only downloads the data when it's needed by the ArrayAdapter. However, whilst the download of the thumbnail is occurring, the entire list stalls and you cannot scroll until it's finished downloading. Is there any way of threading this so it'll still scroll happily, maybe show a place holder for the downloading image, finish the download, and then show? Any help with this would be really appreciated. private class CatalogAdapter extends ArrayAdapter<SingleQueueResult> { private ArrayList<SingleQueueResult> items; //Must research what this actually does! public CatalogAdapter(Context context, int textViewResourceId, ArrayList<SingleQueueResult> items) { super(context, textViewResourceId, items); this.items = items; } /** This overrides the getview of the ArrayAdapter. It should send back our new custom rows for the list */ @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { View v = convertView; if (v == null) { LayoutInflater vi = (LayoutInflater)getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); v = vi.inflate(R.layout.mylists_rows, null); } final SingleQueueResult result = items.get(position); // Sets the text inside the rows as they are scrolled by! if (result != null) { TextView title = (TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_title); TextView format = (TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_format); title.setText(result.getTitle()); format.setText(result.getThumbnail()); // Download Images ImageView myImageView = (ImageView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_thumbnail); downloadImage(result.getThumbnail(), myImageView); } return v; } } // This should run in a seperate thread public void downloadImage(String imageUrl, ImageView myImageView) { try { url = new URL(imageUrl); URLConnection conn = url.openConnection(); conn.connect(); InputStream is = conn.getInputStream(); BufferedInputStream bis = new BufferedInputStream(is); Bitmap bm = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(bis); bis.close(); is.close(); myImageView.setImageBitmap(bm); } catch (IOException e) { /* Reset to Default image on any error. */ //this.myImageView.setImageDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.default)); } }

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• Boost::Spirit::Qi autorules -- avoiding repeated copying of AST data structures

  - by phooji

  I've been using Qi and Karma to do some processing on several small languages. Most of the grammars are pretty small (20-40 rules). I've been able to use autorules almost exclusively, so my parse trees consist entirely of variants, structs, and std::vectors. This setup works great for the common case: 1) parse something (Qi), 2) make minor manipulations to the parse tree (visitor), and 3) output something (Karma). However, I'm concerned about what will happen if I want to make complex structural changes to a syntax tree, like moving big subtrees around. Consider the following toy example: A grammar for s-expr-style logical expressions that uses autorules... // Inside grammar class; rule names match struct names... pexpr %= pand | por | var | bconst; pand %= lit("(and ") >> (pexpr % lit(" ")) >> ")"; por %= lit("(or ") >> (pexpr % lit(" ")) >> ")"; pnot %= lit("(not ") >> pexpr >> ")"; ... which leads to parse tree representation that looks like this... struct var { std::string name; }; struct bconst { bool val; }; struct pand; struct por; struct pnot; typedef boost::variant<bconst, var, boost::recursive_wrapper<pand>, boost::recursive_wrapper<por>, boost::recursive_wrapper<pnot> > pexpr; struct pand { std::vector<pexpr> operands; }; struct por { std::vector<pexpr> operands; }; struct pnot { pexpr victim; }; // Many Fusion Macros here Suppose I have a parse tree that looks something like this: pand / ... \ por por / \ / \ var var var var (The ellipsis means 'many more children of similar shape for pand.') Now, suppose that I want negate each of the por nodes, so that the end result is: pand / ... \ pnot pnot | | por por / \ / \ var var var var The direct approach would be, for each por subtree: - create pnot node (copies por in construction); - re-assign the appropriate vector slot in the pand node (copies pnot node and its por subtree). Alternatively, I could construct a separate vector, and then replace (swap) the pand vector wholesale, eliminating a second round of copying. All of this seems cumbersome compared to a pointer-based tree representation, which would allow for the pnot nodes to be inserted without any copying of existing nodes. My question: Is there a way to avoid copy-heavy tree manipulations with autorule-compliant data structures? Should I bite the bullet and just use non-autorules to build a pointer-based AST (e.g., http://boost-spirit.com/home/2010/03/11/s-expressions-and-variants/)?

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• With NHibernate, how can I create an INHibernateProxy?

  - by Eric

  After lots of reading about serialization, I've decided to try to create DTOs. After more reading, I decided to use AutoMapper. What I would like to do is transform the parent (easy enough) and transform the entity properties if they've been initialized, which I've done with ValueResolvers like below (I may try to make it generic once I get it fully working). This part works. public class OrderItemResolver : ValueResolver<Order, OrderItem> { protected override OrderItem ResolveCore(Order source) { // could also use NHibernateUtil.IsInitialized(source.OrderItem) if (source.OrderItem is NHibernate.Proxy.INHibernateProxy) return null; else return source.OrderItem; } } } When I transform the DTO back to an entity, for the entities that weren't initialized, I want to create a proxy so that if the entity wants to access it, it can. However, I can't figure out how to create a proxy. I'm using Castle if that's relevant. I've tried a bunch of things with no luck. The below code is a mess, mainly because I've been trying things at random without knowing what I should be doing. Anybody have any suggestions? public class OrderItemDTOResolver : ValueResolver<OrderDTO, OrderItem> { protected override OrderItem ResolveCore(OrderDTO source) { if (source.OrderItem == null) { //OrderItem OrderItem = new ProxyGenerator().CreateClassProxy<OrderItem>(); // Castle.Core.Interceptor. //OrderItem OrderItem = new ProxyGenerator().CreateClassProxy<OrderItem>(); //OrderItem.Id = source.OrderItemId; //OrderItem OrderItem = new OrderItem(); //var proxy = new OrderItem() as INHibernateProxy; //var proxy = OrderItem as INHibernateProxy; //return (OrderItem)proxy.HibernateLazyInitializer //ILazyInitializer proxy = new LazyInitializer("OrderItem", OrderItem, source.OrderItemId, null, null, null, null); //return (OrderItem)proxy; //return (OrderItem)proxy.HibernateLazyInitializer.GetImplementation(); //return OrderItem; IProxyTargetAccessor proxy = new Castle.Core.Interceptor. var initializer = new LazyInitializer("OrderItem", typeof(OrderItem), source.OrderItemId, null, null, null, null); //var proxyFactory = new SerializableProxyFactory{Interfaces = Interfaces, TargetSource = initializer, ProxyTargetType = IsClassProxy}; //proxyFactory.AddAdvice(initializer); //object proxyInstance = proxyFactory.GetProxy(); //return (INHibernateProxy) proxyInstance; return null; //OrderItem.Id = source.OrderItemId; //return OrderItem; } else return OrderItemDTO.Unmap(source.OrderItem); } } Thanks, Eric

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• iPhone: Problems releasing UIViewController in a multithreaded environment

  - by bart-simpson

  Hi! I have a UIViewController and in that controller, i am fetching an image from a URL source. The image is fetched in a separate thread after which the user-interface is updated on the main thread. This controller is displayed as a page in a UIScrollView parent which is implemented to release controllers that are not in view anymore. When the thread finishes fetching content before the UIViewController is released, everything works fine - but when the user scrolls to another page before the thread finishes, the controller is released and the only handle to the controller is owned by the thread making releaseCount of the controller equals to 1. Now, as soon as the thread drains NSAutoreleasePool, the controller gets releases because the releaseCount becomes 0. At this point, my application crashes and i get the following error message: bool _WebTryThreadLock(bool), 0x4d99c60: Tried to obtain the web lock from a thread other than the main thread or the web thread. This may be a result of calling to UIKit from a secondary thread. Crashing now... The backtrace reveals that the application crashed on the call to [super dealloc] and it makes total sense because the dealloc function must have been triggered by the thread when the pool was drained. My question is, how i can overcome this error and release the controller without leaking memory? One solution that i tried was to call [self retain] before the pool is drained so that retainCount doesn't fall to zero and then using the following code to release controller in the main thread: [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(autorelease) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; Unfortunately, this did not work out. Below is the function that is executed on a thread: - (void)thread_fetchContent { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSURL *imgURL = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://www.domain.com/image.png"]; // UIImage *imgHotspot is declared as private - The image is retained // here and released as soon as it is assigned to UIImageView imgHotspot = [[[UIImage alloc] initWithData: [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL: imgURL]] retain]; if ([self retainCount] == 1) { [self retain]; // increment retain count ~ workaround [pool drain]; // drain pool // this doesn't work - i get the same error [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(autorelease) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; } else { // show fetched image on the main thread - this works fine! [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(showImage) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; [pool drain]; } } Please help! Thank you in advance.

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