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  • Extending AdapterView

    - by Ander Webbs
    Hi, i'm trying to make (for learning purposes) my own implementation of a simple AdapterView where items comes from an basic Adapter (ImageAdapter from sdk samples). Actual code is like this: public class MyAdapterView extends AdapterView<ImageAdapter> implements AdapterView.OnItemClickListener{ private ImageAdapter mAdapter; public MyAdapterView(Context context, AttributeSet attrs, int defStyle) { super(context, attrs, defStyle); initThings(); } private void initThings(){ setOnItemClickListener(this); } @Override public ImageAdapter getAdapter() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return mAdapter; } @Override public void setAdapter(ImageAdapter adapter) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub mAdapter=adapter; requestLayout(); } View obtainView(int position) { View child = mAdapter.getView(position, null, this); return child; } @Override protected void onLayout(boolean changed, int l, int t, int r, int b) { super.onLayout(changed, l, t, r, b); for(int i=0;i<mAdapter.getCount();i++){ View child = obtainView(i); child.layout(10, 70*i, 70, 70); addViewInLayout(child, i, null, true); } this.invalidate(); } @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View v, int position, long id) { Log.d("MYEXAMPLES","Clicked an item!"); } } This isn't a coding masterpiece, it just displays a pseudo-listview with pictures. I know i could've used ListView, GridView, Spinner, etc. but i'm relative new to android and i'm trying to figure out some things on it. Well, the question here is: Why is my onItemClick not firing? Using the same ImageAdapter with a GridView, everything works ok, but when i use with above class, i get nothing. Inside AdapterView.java there is code for those click, longclick, etc events... so why can't i just fire them? Maybe i'm misunderstanding basic things on how AdapterView works? Should I extend other base classes instead? And why? Hoping to find more experienced guidance on here, thanks in advance.

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  • Track only iframe history

    - by evanwong
    I have a page which contains an iframe and I want to track the history of the iframe only. I tried to use the history object like this: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title></title> <script type="text/javascript"> function checkFrameHistory() { alert(window.frames["test2"].history.length); } function checkThisHistory() { alert(history.length); } </script> </head> <body> <iframe name="test2" src="test2.html"></iframe> <div> <input type="button" onclick="checkFrameHistory()" value="Frame history"/> <input type="button" onclick="checkThisHistory()" value="This history"/> </div> </body> </html> test2.html <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title></title> <script type="text/javascript"> function checkMyHistory() { alert(history.length); } </script> </head> <body> <div> Test2 </div> <div> <input type="button" onclick="checkMyHistory()" value="My history"/> </div> </body> </html> but it actually gave me the history including the parent window. For instance, I went to another site in the main window and came back to my iframe test site. Both window.frames["test2"].history.length and history.length still gave me the same count by increasing the length by 2. Did I do it wrong? Is there a way to track only the iframe history?

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  • Passing an address inside a WordPress post to a Google Map elsewhere on the Page

    - by ael_ecurai
    Background: My client is building their own WordPress site (using a purchased feature-rich theme), and I'm modifying a child theme as necessary to achieve customizations she wants. The theme comes with a Page template that includes a full-width Google Map across the top, which pulls its marker from a single address set within the Theme Options. It's meant to be used for one main "Contact Us" page. The client's business has several locations, and she wants each location's page to include such a map. (Example linked below.) It seems that the ideal solution would be the ability to specify an address within a shortcode in the Post, and have that set the map marker. Here's how the theme makes the map (where $mapAddress is the address from the Theme Options): <?php $mapAddress = ot_get_option( 'map_address' ); $mapHeight = ot_get_option( 'map_height' ); $mapContent = ot_get_option( 'map_content' ); ?> <section id="block-map-wrapper"> <div id="block-map" class="clearfix"> <script type="text/javascript" src="https://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/js?sensor=true"></script> <script> jQuery(document).ready(function(){ // Map Options var mapOptions = { zoom: 15, scrollwheel: false, zoomControl: true, zoomControlOptions: { style: google.maps.ZoomControlStyle.SMALL, position: google.maps.ControlPosition.TOP_LEFT }, mapTypeControl: true, scaleControl: false, panControl: false, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; // The Map Object var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map"), mapOptions); var address = ""; var geocoder = new google.maps.Geocoder(); geocoder.geocode({ "address" : "<?php echo $mapAddress; ?>" }, function (results, status) { if (status == google.maps.GeocoderStatus.OK) { address = results[0].geometry.location; map.setCenter(results[0].geometry.location); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: address, map: map, clickable: true, animation: google.maps.Animation.DROP }); var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: "<?php echo $mapContent; ?>" }); google.maps.event.addListener(marker, "click", function() { infowindow.open(map, marker); }); } }); }); </script> <div id="map" class = "map" style = "width: 100%; height: <?php echo $mapHeight; ?>px"></div> </div><!-- #block-map --> <div class="shadow-bottom"></div> </section><!-- #block-map-wrapper --> Here's a test page using a custom Page template I've created. Right now it's using the same map code as above. I've tried creating a shortcode that takes an address attribute and sets it as $mapAddress, but that didn't work. I believe it's because the map is already loaded by the time the Loop gets parsed. How can I tell Maps to "come back" to the post to get the proper address? My specialty lies in HTML & CSS, but Javascript befuddles me fairly easily, so please be explicit when explaining implementation. Bonus: A further goal is to have the locations' parent Page also include such a map, but have multiple markers representing the multiple locations. When taking more than one location, Google Maps only accepts latitude/longitude. I don't want my client to be concerned with coordinates, so I know there's got to be something I can do with the geocoding service so she can just input a list of addresses instead (into the same, or similar, shortcode solution developed for my main question). But I am extra-clueless about how to do that.

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  • [Android] Show default selection color for custom listview

    - by Diego
    Hello, I have a listview with a custom BaseAdapter. Each row of the listview has a TextView and a CheckBox. The problem is when I click (or touch) any row, the textview foreground becomes gray, instead of the default behavior (background - green, textview foreground - white). Here is the code: row.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" style="@style/layout"> <TextView android:id="@+id/main_lv_item_textView" style="@style/textViewBig" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true"/> <CheckBox android:id="@+id/main_lv_item_checkBox" style="@style/checkBox" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_alignParentRight="true"/> </RelativeLayout> Custom Adapter: public class CustomAdapter extends BaseAdapter { private List<Profile> profiles; private LayoutInflater inflater; private TextView tvName; private CheckBox cbEnabled; public CustomAdapter(List<Profile> profiles) { this.profiles = profiles; inflater = (LayoutInflater) context.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); } public int getCount() { return profiles.size(); } public Object getItem(int position) { return profiles.get(position); } public long getItemId(int position) { return position; } public View getView(final int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { View row = inflater.inflate(R.layout.main_lv_item, null); final Profile profile = profiles.get(position); tvName = (TextView) row.findViewById(R.id.main_lv_item_textView); registerForContextMenu(tvName); cbEnabled = (CheckBox) row.findViewById(R.id.main_lv_item_checkBox); tvName.setText(profile.getName()); if (profile.isEnabled()) { cbEnabled.setChecked(true); } tvName.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { Bundle bundle = new Bundle(); bundle.putString(PROFILE_NAME_KEY, profile.getName()); Intent intent = new Intent(context, GuiProfile.class); intent.putExtras(bundle); startActivity(intent); } }); tvName.setOnLongClickListener(new OnLongClickListener() { public boolean onLongClick(View v) { selectedProfileName = ((TextView) v).getText().toString(); return false; } }); cbEnabled.setOnCheckedChangeListener(new CompoundButton.OnCheckedChangeListener() { public void onCheckedChanged(CompoundButton buttonView, boolean isChecked) { if (!profile.isEnabled()) { for (Profile profile : profiles) { if (profile.isEnabled()) { profile.setEnabled(false); Database.getInstance().storeProfile(profile); } } } profile.setEnabled(isChecked); Database.getInstance().storeProfile(profile); updateListView(); } }); return row; } } Any help would be appreciated.

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  • jquery in ajax loaded content

    - by Kim Gysen
    My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

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  • jQuery: Giving each matched element an unique ID

    - by AnGafraidh
    I am writing an 'inline translator' application to be used with a cloud computing platform to extend non-supported languages. The majority of this uses jQuery to find the text value, replace it with the translation, then append the element with a span tag that has an unique ID, to be used elsewhere within the application. The problem arises however, when there are more than one element, say , that have the exact same value to be translated (matched elements). What happens in the function in question is that it puts all matched elements in the same span, taking the second, third, fourth, etc. out of their parent tags. My code is pretty much like this example: <script src='jquery-1.4.2.js'></script> <script> jQuery.noConflict(); var uniqueID='asdfjkl'; jQuery(window).ready(function() { var myQ1 = jQuery("input[id~=test1]"); myClone=myQ1.clone(); myClone.val('Replaced this button'); myQ1.replaceWith('<span id='+uniqueID+'></span>'); jQuery('#'+uniqueID).append(myClone); }); </script> <table> <tr><td> <input id='test1' type='button' value="I'm a button!"></input> &nbsp; <input id='test2' type='button' value="And so am I"></input> </tr></td> <tr><td> <input id='test1' type='button' value="I'm a button!"></input> </tr></td> </table> As a workaround, I've experimented with using a loop to create a class for each span, rising in increment until jQuery("input[id~=test1]").length, but I can't seem to get anything I do to work. Is there any way to give each matched element an unique ID? My fluency in jQuery is being put to the test! Thanks for any help in advance. Aaron

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  • jquery validation plugin doesn't seem to work ....

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    asp.net mvc's Html.BeginForm() seems to work with jquery validation plugin but the validation plugin doesn't seem to work with a form which i ve added to a page.... This works, <% using (Html.BeginForm("Login", "Registration", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "Loginform" })) {%> <fieldset> <legend>Login</legend> <p> <label for="EmailId">EmailId:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("EmailId", null, new { @class = "text_box_height_14_width_150" })%> </p> <div class="status"></div> <p> <label for="Password">Password:</label> <%= Html.Password("Password",null, new { @class = "text_box_height_14_width_150" }) %> </p> <div class="status"></div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Login" id="login" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> But this doesn't work, <form id="Loginform" method="post" action="Registration/Login"> <table cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="100%" style="border:none;"> <tr> <td width="12%">Email Id&nbsp;:&nbsp;</td><td width="15%"> <input id="EmailId" type="text" class="text_box_height_14_width_150 name="EmailId" /></td><td width="20%" class="status"></td> <td width="12%">Password&nbsp;:&nbsp;<td width="15%"><input id="Password" type="password" class="text_box_height_14_width_150 name="Password" /></td> <td width="20%" class="status"></td> <td width="5%"><input type="submit" value="Login" id="BtnLogin" /></td> </tr> </table> </form> and my jquery function has this, $(document).ready(function() { var validator = $("#Loginform").validate({ rules: { EmailId: "required", Password: { required: true, minlength: 6 } }, messages: { EmailId: "Enter your EMail ID", Password: { required: "Please Provide a password", rangelength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters") } }, // the errorPlacement has to take the table layout into account errorPlacement: function(error, element) { error.appendTo(element.parent().next()); }, // set this class to error-labels to indicate valid fields success: function(label) { // set &nbsp; as text for IE label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); }); Any suggestion... Am i missing something?

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  • JDBC Lock a row using SELECT FOR UPDATE, doesn't work

    - by Rachid
    I am having issues with MySQL's SELECT .. FOR UPDATE, here is the query I am trying to run: SELECT * FROM tableName WHERE HostName='UnknownHost' ORDER BY UpdateTimestamp asc limit 1 FOR UPDATE After this, the concerned thread will do an UPDATE and change the HostName, which is then it should unlock the row. I am running a multi-threaded java application, so 3 threads are running this SQL statement, but when thread 1 runs this, it doesn't lock its results from thread 2 & 3. Therefore threads 2 & 3 are getting the same results and they could update the same row. Also each thread is on its own mysql connection. I'm using Innodb, with transaction-isolation = READ-COMMITTED, and the Autocommit is off before executing the select for update may I miss something? OR perhaps there is a better solution? Thanks a lot. Code : public BasicJDBCDemo() { Le_Thread newThread1=new Le_Thread(); Le_Thread newThread2=new Le_Thread(); newThread1.start(); newThread2.start(); } Thread : class Le_Thread extends Thread { public void run() { tring name = Thread.currentThread().getName(); System.out.println( name+": Debut."); long oid=Util.doSelectLockTest(name); Util.doUpdateTest(oid,name); } } Select : public static long doSelectLockTest(String threadName) { System.out.println("[OUTPUT FROM SELECT Lock ]...threadName="+threadName); PreparedStatement pst = null; ResultSet rs=null; Connection conn=null; long oid=0; try { String query = "SELECT * FROM table WHERE Host=? ORDER BY Timestamp asc limit 1 FOR UPDATE"; conn=getNewConnection(); pst = conn.prepareStatement(query); pst.setString(1, DbProperties.UnknownHost); System.out.println("pst="+threadName+"__"+pst); rs = pst.executeQuery(); if (rs.first()) { String s = rs.getString("HostName"); oid = rs.getLong("OID"); System.out.println("oid_oldest/host/threadName=="+oid+"/"+s+"/"+threadName); } } catch (SQLException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } finally { DBUtil.close(pst); DBUtil.close(rs); DBUtil.close(conn); } return oid; } Please help.... : Result : Thread-1: Debut. Thread-2: Debut. [OUTPUT FROM SELECT Lock ]...threadName=Thread-1 New connection.. [OUTPUT FROM SELECT Lock ]...threadName=Thread-2 New connection.. pst=Thread-2: SELECT * FROM b2biCheckPoint WHERE HostName='UnknownHost' ORDER BY UpdateTimestamp asc limit 1 FOR UPDATE pst=Thread-1: SELECT * FROM b2biCheckPoint WHERE HostName='UnknownHost' ORDER BY UpdateTimestamp asc limit 1 FOR UPDATE oid_oldest/host/threadName==1/UnknownHost/Thread-2 oid_oldest/host/threadName==1/UnknownHost/Thread-1 [Performing UPDATE] ... oid = 1, thread=Thread-2 New connection.. [Performing UPDATE] ... oid = 1, thread=Thread-1 pst_threadname=Thread-2: UPDATE b2bicheckpoint SET HostName='1_host_Thread-2',UpdateTimestamp=1294940161838 where OID = 1 New connection.. pst_threadname=Thread-1: UPDATE b2bicheckpoint SET HostName='1_host_Thread-1',UpdateTimestamp=1294940161853 where OID = 1

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  • RoR custom routing/Method/View problem all methods come back as undefined

    - by Jeff
    I am playing with custom view and routes. I think that I have everything right but obviously not. Essentially I tried to copy the show method and show.html.erb but for some reason it will not work. My controller class fatherController < ApplicationController def show @father = Father.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @father } end end def ofmine @father = Father.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @father } end end end My routes.rb Parent::Application.routes.draw do resources :fathers do resources :kids end match 'hospitals/:id/ofmine' => 'father#show2' end when I go to 127.0.0.1:/father/1 it works fine but when I try to go to 127.0.0.1:/father/1/ofmine it gives the following error. It doesn't matter what the variable/method that is called; it occurs at the first one to be displayed. Both show.html.erb and show2.html.erb are the exact same files My Error from webserver commandline > Processing by fathersController#show2 > as HTML Parameters: {"id"=>"1"} > Rendered fathers/show2.html.erb within > layouts/application (31.6ms) Completed > in 37ms > > ActionView::Template::Error (undefined > method `name' for nil:NilClass): > 4: <td>Name</td><td></td> > 5: </tr> > 6: <tr> > 7: <td><%= @father.name %></td><td></td> > 8: </tr> > 9: <tr> > 10: <td>City</td><td>State</td> app/views/fathers/show2.html.erb:7:in > `_app_views_fatherss_show__html_erb___709193087__616989688_0' Error as displayed on actual page NoMethodError in Fathers#show2 Showing /var/ruby/chs/app/views/fathers/show2.html.erb where line #7 raised: undefined method `name' for nil:NilClass Extracted source (around line #7): 4: Name 5: 6: 7: <%= @father.name % 8: 9: 10: CityState If anyone could tell me what in the world I am doing wrong I would appreciate it greatly.

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  • Is MySQL Replication Appropriate in this case?

    - by MJB
    I have a series of databases, each of which is basically standalone. It initially seemed like I needed a replication solution, but the more I researched it, the more it felt like replication was overkill and not useful anyway. I have not done MySQL replication before, so I have been reading up on the online docs, googling, and searching SO for relevant questions, but I can't find a scenario quite like mine. Here is a brief description of my issue: The various databases almost never have a live connection to each other. They need to be able to "sync" by copying files to a thumb drive and then moving them to the proper destination. It is OK for the data to not match exactly, but they should have the same parent-child relationships. That is, if a generated key differs between databases, no big deal. But the visible data must match. Timing is not critical. Updates can be done a week later, or even a month later, as long as they are done eventually. Updates cannot be guaranteed to be in the proper order, or in any order for that matter. They will be in order from each database; just not between databases. Rather than a set of master-slave relationships, it is more like a central database (R/W) and multiple remote databases (also R/W). I won't know how many remote databases I have until they are created. And the central DB won't know that a database exists until data arrives from it. (To me, this implies I cannot use the method of giving each its own unique identity range to guarantee uniqueness in the central database.) It appears to me that the bottom line is that I don't want "replication" so much as I want "awareness". I want the central database to know what happened in the remote databases, but there is no time requirement. I want the remote databases to be aware of the central database, but they don't need to know about each other. WTH is my question? It is this: Does this scenario sound like any of the typical replication scenarios, or does it sound like I have to roll my own? Perhaps #7 above is the only one that matters, and given that requirement, out-of-the-box replication is impossible. EDIT: I realize that this question might be more suited to ServerFault. I also searched there and found no answers to my questions. And based on the replication questions I did find both on SO and SF, it seemed that the decision was 50-50 over where to put my question. Sorry if I guessed wrong.

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  • Make text in a <div> wrap around a child element.

    - by John
    In Word you can place an image on a page and have the text flow nicely around it. I was wondering how far one can get towards this using CSS, noting that is has to work in IE6. I already have something sort of close using float, but the floated child-element still 'blocks' text above it. So it partially wraps. Is it possible to put a child div at some arbitrary position in the parent, and have text flow around it freely? The actual use-case here is to put illustrations inside the main content , where each illustration is implemented inside a child . I repeat, it has to work on IE6. And I don't want to get too involved in browser-specific hacks... floating the child at least works on IE6 with no tweaking. Currently I have like this: <div> <div class="illustration"> <img src="image1.png" /> <p>Illustration caption</p> </div> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consetetur sadipscing elitr, sed diam nonumy eirmod tempor invidunt ut labore et dolore magna aliquyam erat, sed diam voluptua. Atvero eos et accusam et justo duo dolores et ea rebum. Stet clita kasd gubergren, no sea takimata sanctus est Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet. </p> </div> div.illustration { float:right; border-top: 1px solid #505050; border-left: 1px solid #505050; border-right: 1px solid #505050; border-bottom: 1px solid #505050; margin-right:30px; margin-top:100px; text-align:center; padding:2px; background: #96C3FF; } div.illustration p { margin:0; font-size:small; font-style:italic; padding:0; }

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  • How do I write object classes effectively when dealing with table joins?

    - by Chris
    I should start by saying I'm not now, nor do I have any delusions I'll ever be a professional programmer so most of my skills have been learned from experience very much as a hobby. I learned PHP as it seemed a good simple introduction in certain areas and it allowed me to design simple web applications. When I learned about objects, classes etc the tutor's basic examnples covered the idea that as a rule of thumb each database table should have its own class. While that worked well for the photo gallery project we wrote, as it had very simple mysql queries, it's not working so well now my projects are getting more complex. If I require data from two separate tables which require a table join I've instead been ignoring the class altogether and handling it on a case by case basis, OR, even worse been combining some of the data into the class and the rest as a separate entity and doing two queries, which to me seems inefficient. As an example, when viewing content on a forum I wrote, if you view a thread, I retrieve data from the threads table, the posts table and the user table. The queries from the user and posts table are retrieved via a join and not instantiated as an object, whereas the thread data is called using my Threads class. So how do I get from my current state of affairs to something a little less 'stupid', for want of a better word. Right now I have a DB class that deals with connection and escaping values etc, a parent db query class that deals with the common queries and methods, and all of the other classes (Thread, Upload, Session, Photo and ones thats aren't used Post, User etc ) are children of that. Do I make a big posts class that has the relevant extra attributes that I retrieve from the users (and potentially threads) table? Do I have separate classes that populate each of their relevant attributes with a single query? If so how do I do that? Because of the way my classes are written, based on what I was taught, my db update row method, or insert method both just take the attributes as an array and update all of that, if I have extra attributes from other db tables in each class then how do I rewrite those methods as obbiously updating automatically like that would result in errors? In short I think my understanding is limited right now and I'd like some pointers when it comes to the fundamentals of how to write more complex classes.

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  • How can I fix this touch event / draw loop "deadlock"?

    - by Josh
    Just want to start out by saying this seems like a great site, hope you guys can help! I'm trying to use the structure laid out in LunarLander to create a simple game in which the user can drag some bitmaps around on the screen (the actual game is more complex, but that's not important). I ripped out the irrelevant parts of LanderLander, and set up my own bitmap drawing, something like BoardThread (an inner class of BoardView): run() { while(mRun) { canvas = lockSurfaceHolder... syncronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* drawStuff using member position fields in BoardView */ } unlockSurfaceHolder } } My drawStuff simply walks through some arrays and throws bitmaps onto the canvas. All that works fine. Then I wanted to start handling touch events so that when the user presses a bitmap, it is selected, when the user unpresses a bitmap, it is deselected, and if a bitmap is selected during a touch move event, the bitmap is dragged. I did this stuff by listening for touch events in the BoardView's parent, BoardActivity, and passing them down into the BoardView. Something like In BoardView handleTouchEvent(MotionEvent e) { synchronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* Modify shared member fields in BoardView so BoardThread can render the bitmaps */ } } This ALSO works fine. I can drag my tiles around the screen no problem. However, every once in a while, when the app first starts up and I trigger my first touch event, the handleTouchEvent stops executing at the synchronized line (as viewed in DDMS). The drawing loop is active during this time (I can tell because a timer changes onscreen), and it usually takes several seconds or more before a bunch of touch events come through the pipeline and everything is fine again. This doesn't seem like deadlock to me, since the draw loop is constantly going in and out of its syncronized block. Shouldn't this allow the event handling thread to grab a lock on mSurfaceHolder? What's going on here? Anyone have suggestions for improving how I've structured this? Some other info. This "hang" only ever occurs on first touch event after activity start. This includes on orientation change after restoreState has been called. Also, I can remove EVERYTHING within the syncronized block in the event handler, and it will still get hung up at the syncronized call. Thanks!

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  • JQuery Cascade dropdown problem?

    - by omoto
    Hi All! I'm using JQuery based Cascade plugin probably it's working, but I found a lot of problems with it Maybe somebody already faced with this plugin and maybe could help. So, I using this plugin for location filtration Here comes my CS code: public JsonResult getChildren(string val) { if (val.IsNotNull()) { int lId = val.ToInt(); Cookie.Location = val.ToInt(); var forJSON = from h in Location.SubLocationsLoaded(val.ToInt()) select new { When = val, Id = h.Id, Name = h.Name, LocationName = h.LocationType.Name }; return this.Json(forJSON.ToArray()); } else return null; } Here comes my JS code: <script type="text/javascript"> function commonMatch(selectedValue) { $("#selectedLocation").val(selectedValue); return this.When == selectedValue; }; function commonTemplate(item) { return "<option value='" + item.Id + "'>" + item.Name + "</option>"; }; $(document).ready(function() { $("#chained_child").cascade("#Countries", { ajax: { url: '/locations/getChildren' }, template: commonTemplate, match: commonMatch }).bind("loaded.cascade", function(e, target) { $(this).prepend("<option value='empty' selected='true'>------[%Select] Län------</option>"); $(this).find("option:first")[0].selected = true; }); $("#chained_sub_child").cascade("#chained_child", { ajax: { url: '/locations/getChildren' }, template: commonTemplate, match: commonMatch }).bind("loaded.cascade", function(e, target) { $(this).prepend("<option value='empty' selected='true'>------[%Select] Kommun------</option>"); $(this).find("option:first")[0].selected = true; }); $("#chained_sub_sub_child").cascade("#chained_sub_child", { ajax: { url: '/locations/getChildren' }, template: commonTemplate, match: commonMatch }).bind("loaded.cascade", function(e, target) { $(this).prepend("<option value='empty' selected='true'>------[%Select] Stad------</option>"); $(this).find("option:first")[0].selected = true; }); }); I added one condition to jquery.cascade.ext.js if (opt.getParentValue(parent) != "empty") $.ajax(_ajax); To prevent Ajax request without selected value, but I faced with problem, when I reset selection in first box 3d box and bellow does not refresh: And second issue: I would like to know where is best place to inject my own function that will do something, with one requirement - I need to know that all boxes finished work. If somebody worked within let me know maybe we could together find solution. Thanks in advice...

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  • Insert Registration Data in MySQL using PHP

    - by J M 4
    I may not be asking this in the best way possible but i will try my hardest. Thank you ahead of time for your help: I am creating an enrollment website which allows an individual OR manager to enroll for medical testing services for professional athletes. I will NOT be using the site as a query DB which anybody can view information stored within the database. The information is instead simply stored, and passed along in a CSV format to our network provider so they can use as needed after the fact. There are two possible scenarios: Scenario 1 - Individual Enrollment If an individual athlete chooses to enroll him/herself, they enter their personal information, submit their payment information (credit/bank account) for processing, and their information is stored in an online database as Athlete1. Scenario 2 - Manager Enrollment If a manager chooses to enroll several athletes he manages/ promotes for, he enters his personal information, then enters the personal information for each athlete he wishes to pay for (name, address, ssn, dob, etc), then submits payment information for ALL athletes he is enrolling. This number can range from 1 single athlete, up to 20 athletes per single enrollment (he can return and complete a follow up enrollment for additional athletes). Initially, I was building the database to house ALL information regardless of enrollment type in a single table which housed over 400 columns (think 20 athletes with over 10 fields per athlete such as name, dob, ssn, etc). Now that I think about it more, I believe create multiple tables (manager(s), athlete(s)) may be a better idea here but still not quite sure how to go about it for the following very important reasons: Issue 1 If I list the manager as the parent table, I am afraid the individual enrolling athlete will not show up in the primary table and will not be included in the overall registration file which needs to be sent on to the network providers. Issue 2 All athletes being enrolled by a manager are being stored in SESSION as F1FirstName, F2FirstName where F1 and F2 relate to the id of the fighter. I am not sure technically speaking how to store multiple pieces of information within the same table under separate rows using PHP. For example, all athleteswill have a first name. The very basic theory of what i am trying to do is: If number_of_athletes 1, store F1FirstName in row 1, column 1 of Table "Athletes"; store F1LastName in row 1, column 2 of Table "Athletes"; store F2FirstName in row 2, column 1 of Table "Athletes"; store F2LastName in row 2, column 2 of table "Athletes"; Does this make sense? I know this question is very long and probably difficult so i appreciate the guidance.

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  • get attributes from xml tree using linq

    - by nelsonwebs
    I'm working with an xml file that looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <element1 xmlns="http://namespace1/"> <element2> <element3> <element4 attr1="2009-11-09"> <element5 attr2="NAME1"> <element6 attr3="1"> <element7 attr4="1" attr5="5.5" attr6="3.4"/> </element6> </element5> <element5 attr2="NAME2"> <element6 attr3="1"> <element7 attr4="3" attr5="4" attr6="4.5"/> </element6> </element5> </element4> </element3> </element2> </element1> Where I need to loop through element5 and retrieve the attributes in an Ienumberable like this: attr1, attr2, attr3, attr4, attr5, attr6 using linq to xml and c#. I can loop through the element5 and get all the attribute2 info using but I can't figure out how to get the parent or child attributes I need. UPDATE: Thanks for the feeback thus far. For clarity, I need to do a loop through attribute5. So basically, what I have right now (which isn't much) is . . . XElement xel = XElement.Load(xml); IEnumberable<XElement> cList = from el in xel.Elements(env + "element2").Element (n2 + "element3").Elements(n2 + "element4").Elements(ns + "element5") select el; foreach (XElement e in cList) Console.WriteLine(e.Attribute("attr2").Value.ToString()); This will give me the value all the attr 2 in the loop but I could be going about this all wrong for what I'm trying to acheive. I also need to collect the other attributes mentioned above in a collection (the Console reference is just me playing with this right now but the end result I need is a collection). So the end results would be a collection like attr1, attr2, attr3, attr4, attr5, attr6 2009-11-09, name1, 1, 1, 5.5, 3.4 2009-11-09, name2, 1, 3, 4, 4.5 Make Sense?

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  • Qt, can't display child widget

    - by Blin
    I have two widgets defined as follows class mainWindow : public QWidget { Q_OBJECT public: mainWindow(); void readConfig(); private: SWindow *config; QVector <QString> filePath; QVector <QLabel*> alias,procStatus; QVector <int> delay; QGridLayout *mainLayout; QVector<QPushButton*> stopButton,restartButton; QVector<QProcess*> proc; QSignalMapper *stateSignalMapper, *stopSignalMapper, *restartSignalMapper; public slots: void openSettings(); void startRunning(); void statusChange(int); void stopProc(int); void restartProc(int); void renew(); }; class SWindow : public QWidget { Q_OBJECT public: SWindow(QWidget *parent=0); void readConfig(); void addLine(int); private: QVector<QPushButton*> selectButton; QVector<QLabel*> filePath; QVector<QLineEdit*> alias; QSignalMapper *selectSignalMapper; QVector<QSpinBox*> delay; QGridLayout *mainLayout; public slots: void selectFile(int); void saveFile(); void addLineSlot(); }; when i create and display SWindow object from mainWindow like this void mainWindow::openSettings() { config = new SWindow(); config->show(); } everything is ok, but now i need to access the mainWindow from SWindow, and void mainWindow::openSettings() { config = new SWindow(this); config->show(); } doesn't display SWindow. How can i display SWindow? How do i call a function on widget close?

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  • Yii file upload issue

    - by user1289853
    Couple of months ago,I developed a simple app using YII,one of the feature was to upload file. The feature was working well in my dev machine,couple of days ago client found the file upload feature is not working in his server since deployment. And after that I test my dev machine that was not working too. My controller looks: public function actionEntry() { if (!Yii::app()->user->isGuest) { $model = new TrackForm; if (isset($_POST['TrackForm'])) { $entry = new Track; try { $entry->product_image = $_POST['TrackForm']['product_image']; $entry->product_image = CUploadedFile::getInstance($model, 'product_image'); if ($entry->save()) { if ($entry->product_image) { $entry->product_image->saveAs($entry->product_image->name, '/trackshirt/uploads'); } } $this->render('success', array('model' => $model)); // redirect to success page } } catch (Exception $e) { echo 'Caught exception: ', $e->getMessage(), "\n"; } } else { $this->render('entry', array('model' => $model)); } } } Model is like below: <?php class Track extends CActiveRecord { public static function model($className=__CLASS__) { return parent::model($className); } public function tableName() { return 'product_details'; } } My view looks: <?php $form = $this->beginWidget('CActiveForm', array( 'id' => 'hide-form', 'enableClientValidation' => true, 'clientOptions' => array( 'validateOnSubmit' => true, ), 'htmlOptions' => array('enctype' => 'multipart/form-data'), )); ?> <p class="auto-style2"><strong>Administration - Add New Product</strong></p> <table align="center" style="width: 650px"><td class="auto-style3" style="width: 250px">Product Image</td> <td> <?php echo $form->activeFileField($model, 'product_image'); ?> </td> </tr> </table> <p class="auto-style1"> <div style="margin-leftL:-100px;"> <?php echo CHtml::submitButton('Submit New Product Form'); ?> </div> <?php $this->endWidget(); ?> Any idea where is the problem?I tried to debug it but every time it returns Null. Thanks.

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  • How to capture child links clicked using jquery?

    - by user244394
    I am trying to capture the event when a child element link is clicked and add class called "highlightchild" to it. Also I want to check if there are any child element link exist or not, if no child element exits ie "third level" highlight with "highlightparent" the parent. How can I do that using jquery? $(document).ready(function() { $('.menu ul').hide(); $('.menu .arrowUp').click(function() { $('.menu ul').hide(); $(this).find(".third-level").toggle(); }); }); html <ul class="menu"> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="#">link1</a> <ul class="third-level" > <!-- third level non-active --> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="/somelink/">Some Link</a></li> </ul> </li> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="#">link2</a> <ul class="third-level" > <!-- third level non-active --> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="/links2/">some Links 2</a></li> </ul> </li> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="#">link3</a> <ul class="third-level" > <!-- third level non-active --> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="/Agri/">Agricultural</a></li> <!-- third level non-active --> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="/sugar/">Sugar</a></li> <!-- third level non-active --> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="/bbc/">Coffee</a></li> <!-- third level non-active --> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="/cnn/">Energy</a></li> <!-- third level non-active --> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="funstuff">Fun stuff</a></li> </ul> </li> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="#">link4</a></li> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="#">link5</a></li> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="#">link6</a></li> </ul>

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  • How do I send a javascript variable to a subsequent jquery function or set of braces?

    - by desbest
    How do I send a javascript variable to a subsequent jquery function? Here is my code. <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var name = $("#name"), email = $("#email"), password = $("#password"), itemid = $("#itemid"), tips = $(".validateTips"); function updateTips(t) { tips .text(t) .addClass('ui-state-highlight'); setTimeout(function() { tips.removeClass('ui-state-highlight', 1500); }, 500); } $("#dialog-form").dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 320, width: 350, modal: true, /* buttons: { 'Change category': function() { alert("The itemid2 is "+itemid2); var bValid = true; $('#users tbody').append('<tr>' + '<td>' + name.val() + '</td>' + '<td>' + email.val() + '</td>' + '<td>' + password.val() + '</td>' + '<td>' + itemid.val() + '</td>' + '</tr>'); $(this).dialog('close'); }, Cancel: function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } }, */ close: function() { allFields.val('').removeClass('ui-state-error'); } }); $('.changecategory') .button() .click(function() { var categoryid = $(this).attr("categoryid"); var itemid = $(this).attr("itemid"); var itemid2 = $(this).attr("itemid"); var itemtitle = $(this).attr("itemtitle"); var parenttag = $(this).parent().get(0).tagName; var removediv = "itemid_" +itemid; alert("The itemid is "+itemid); $('#dialog-form').dialog('open'); }); }); </script> I'll break it down. The .changecategory section happens FIRST when an image on my page is clicked. $("#dialog-form").dialog({ is then called, and the variable item id is not passed to this function. How can I pass a variable from one function to another? Is that possible. Is there a way I can pass a variable to another jquery function without having to resort of setting a cookie with javascript and then using jquery to read it?

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  • java.lang.NumberFormatException: unable to parse '' as integer one more time

    - by Quzziy
    I will take two numbers from user, but this number from EditText must be converted to int. I think it should be working, but I still have problem with compilation code in Android Studio. CatLog show error in line with: int wiek = Integer.parseInt(wiekEditText.getText().toString()); Below is my full Android code: public class MyActivity extends ActionBarActivity { int Wynik; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.activity_my); int Tmax, RT; EditText wiekEditText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.inWiek); EditText tspoczEditText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.inTspocz); int wiek = Integer.parseInt(wiekEditText.getText().toString()); int tspocz = Integer.parseInt(tspoczEditText.getText().toString()); Tmax = 220 - wiek; RT = Tmax - tspocz; Wynik = 70*RT/100 + tspocz; final EditText tempWiekEdit = wiekEditText; TabHost tabHost = (TabHost) findViewById(R.id.tabHost); //Do TabHost'a z layoutu tabHost.setup(); TabHost.TabSpec tabSpec = tabHost.newTabSpec("Calc"); tabSpec.setContent(R.id.Calc); tabSpec.setIndicator("Calc"); tabHost.addTab(tabSpec); tabSpec = tabHost.newTabSpec("Hints"); tabSpec.setContent(R.id.Hints); tabSpec.setIndicator("Hints"); tabHost.addTab(tabSpec); final Button Btn = (Button) findViewById(R.id.Btn); Btn.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(),"blablabla"+ "Wynik",Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } }); wiekEditText.addTextChangedListener(new TextWatcher() { @Override public void beforeTextChanged(CharSequence s, int start, int count, int after) { } @Override public void onTextChanged(CharSequence s, int start, int before, int count) { Btn.setEnabled(!(tempWiekEdit.getText().toString().trim().isEmpty())); } @Override public void afterTextChanged(Editable s) { } }); } @Override public boolean onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu) { // Inflate the menu; this adds items to the action bar if it is present. getMenuInflater().inflate(R.menu.my, menu); return true; } @Override public boolean onOptionsItemSelected(MenuItem item) { // Handle action bar item clicks here. The action bar will // automatically handle clicks on the Home/Up button, so long // as you specify a parent activity in AndroidManifest.xml. int id = item.getItemId(); if (id == R.id.action_settings) { return true; } return super.onOptionsItemSelected(item); } }

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  • Multi domain rails app. How to intelligently use MVC?

    - by denial
    Background: We have app a, b, and plan to add more apps into this same application. The apps are similar enough they could share many views, assets, and actions. Currently a,b live in a single rails app(2.3.10). c will be similar enough that it could also be in this rails app. The problem: As we continue to add more apps to this one app, there's going to be too much case logic that the app will soon become a nightmare to maintain. There will also be potential namespace issues. However, the apps are very similar in function and layout, it also makes sense to keep them in one app so that it's one app to maintain(since roughly 50% of site look/functionality will be shared). What we are trying to do is keep this as clean as possible so it's easy for multiple teams to work on and easy to maintain. Some things we've thought about/are trying: Engines. Make each app an engine. This would let us base routes on the domain. It also allows us to pull out controllers, models and views for the specific app. This solution does not seem ideal as we won't be reusing the apps any time soon. And explicitly stating the host in the routes doesn't seem right. Skinning/themes. The auth logic would be different between the apps. Each user model would be different. So it's not just a skinning problem. In app/view add folder sitea for sitea views, siteb for siteb views and so on. Do the same for controllers and models. This is still pretty messy and since it didn't follow naming conventions, it did not work with rails so nicely and made much of the code messier. Making another rails app. We just didn't want to maintain the same controller or view in 2 apps if they are identical. What we want to do is make the app intelligently use a controller based on the host. So there would be a sessions controller for each app, and perhaps some parent session controller for shared logic(not needed now). In each of these session controllers, it handles authentication for that specific app. So if the domain is a.mysite.com, it would use session controller for app a and know to use app a's views,models,controllers. And if the domain is b.mysite, it would use the session controller for b. And there would be a user model for a and user model for b, which also would be determined by the domain. Does anyone have any suggestions or experience with this situation? And ideally using rails 2.3.x as updating to rails 3 isn't an option right now.

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  • DBConcurrencyException happening on second delete

    - by Malfist
    My code keeps throwing a DBConcurrencyException ("Concurrency violation: the DeleteCommand affected 0 of the expected 1 records.) when I make a second update to the data table. The problem actually happens on a table that is linked to a parent table. The two tables, CashReceipts and CashReceiptsApplyTo are displayed on the same winform, and when I delete two cash receipts the update on cash receipt apply to's table fails with the dbconcurrencyexception (the table is updated everytime the binding source [linked to a binding navigator] changes position). Here is my code: protected override void saveToDatabase() { tblCashReceiptsBindingSource.EndEdit(); tblCashReceiptsTableAdapter.Update(rentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceipts); //update the datatable foreach (DataGridViewRow viewRow in viewApplications.Rows) { if (viewRow.Cells[colAppID.Index].Value == null || viewRow.Cells[colApplyTo.Index].Value == null) { continue; } else if ((int)viewRow.Cells[colAppID.Index].Value == -1) { insertNewRow(viewRow); } else { updateRow(viewRow); } } try { tblCashReceiptsApplyToTableAdapter.Update(rentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyTo); //tblCashReceiptsApplyToTableAdapter.Fill(rentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyTo); ); } catch (Exception e) { Bitmap bitmap = new Bitmap(this.Width, this.Height); this.DrawToBitmap(bitmap, new Rectangle(0, 0, this.Width, this.Height)); saveScreenshot(this.GetType().FullName, e.Message, bitmap); MessageBox.Show("There was an error saving your changes. This means that you should close the form, and re-enter the last Receipt you entered.\n\nPlease report this."); } } The insertNewRow, and updateRow are simple: private void updateRow(DataGridViewRow viewRow) { //be forgiving if ((int)viewRow.Cells[colAppID.Index].Value == -1) { insertNewRow(viewRow); return; } //find row in table, if it's not there, crash and burn RentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyToRow updateRow = rentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyTo.Select("ID = " + viewRow.Cells[colAppID.Index].Value.ToString())[0] as RentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyToRow; updateRow.BeginEdit(); updateRow.CashReceiptsID = (int)viewRow.Cells[colCashReceipt.Index].Value; updateRow.ApplyTo = (int)viewRow.Cells[colApplyTo.Index].Value; updateRow.Paid = CurrencyToDecimal(viewRow.Cells[colPaid.Index].Value); if (viewRow.Cells[colMemo.Index].Value != null) { updateRow.Memo = viewRow.Cells[colMemo.Index].Value.ToString(); } else { updateRow.SetMemoNull(); } updateRow.EndEdit(); } private void insertNewRow(DataGridViewRow viewRow) { //be forgiving if ((int)viewRow.Cells[colAppID.Index].Value != -1) { updateRow(viewRow); return; } RentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyToRow newRow = rentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyTo.NewRow() as RentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyToRow; newRow.CashReceiptsID = (int) viewRow.Cells[colCashReceipt.Index].Value; newRow.ApplyTo = (int) viewRow.Cells[colApplyTo.Index].Value; newRow.Paid = CurrencyToDecimal(viewRow.Cells[colPaid.Index].Value); if (viewRow.Cells[colMemo.Index].Value != null) { newRow.Memo = viewRow.Cells[colMemo.Index].Value.ToString(); } rentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyTo.Rows.Add(newRow); //update the ID viewRow.Cells[colAppID.Index].Value = newRow.ID; } Any idea why it would throw that error on the second delete?

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  • join 03 table in the database codeIgniter

    - by python
    with my table. person_id serial NOT NULL, firstname character varying(30) NOT NULL, lastname character varying(30), email character varying(50), username character varying(20) NOT NULL, "password" character varying(100) NOT NULL, gender character varying(10), dob date, accesslevel smallint NOT NULL, company_id integer NOT NULL,//Reference to table company position_id integer NOT NULL,//Reference to table position company_id serial NOT NULL, company_name character varying(80) NOT NULL, description character varying(255), address character varying(100) NOT NULL, In my controller ........................ // load data $persons = $this->person_model->get_paged_list(10,0); // generate table data $this->load->library('table'); $this->table->set_empty("&nbsp;"); $this->table->set_heading('No', 'FirstName', 'LastName','E-mail','Company''Gender', 'Date of Birth', 'Actions'); foreach ($persons as $person){ $this->table->add_row(++$i, $person->firstname, $person->lastname, $person->email, $person->company_name, //HOW CAN I GOT THE POSITION TITLE ?, strtoupper($person->gender)=='M'? 'Male':'Female', date('d-m-Y',strtotime($person->dob)), } My model <?php class Person_Model extends Model { private $person= 'person'; function Person(){ parent::Model(); } function list_all(){ $this->db->order_by('person_id','asc'); return $this->db->get($person); } function count_all(){ return $this->db->count_all($this->person); } function get_paged_list($limit = 0, $offset = 0) { $this->db->limit($limit, $offset); $this->db->select("person.*, company.company_name as company"); $this->db->from('person'); $this->db->join('company','person.company_id = company.company_id','left'); //MY QUESTION:? CAN I JOIN MORE WITH TABLE POSITION? $query = $this->db->get(); return $query->result(); } function get_by_id($id){ $this->db->where('person_id', $id); return $this->db->get($this->person); } function save($person){ $this->db->insert($this->person, $person); return $this->db->insert_id(); } function update($id, $person){ $this->db->where('person_id', $id); $this->db->update($this->person, $person); } function delete($id){ $this->db->where('person_id', $id); $this->db->delete($this->person); } } ?>

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  • Is it possible to shuffle a 2D matrix while preserving row AND column frequencies?

    - by j_random_hacker
    Suppose I have a 2D array like the following: GACTG AGATA TCCGA Each array element is taken from a small finite set (in my case, DNA nucleotides -- {A, C, G, T}). I would like to randomly shuffle this array somehow while preserving both row and column nucleotide frequencies. Is this possible? Can it be done efficiently? [EDIT]: By this I mean I want to produce a new matrix where each row has the same number of As, Cs, Gs and Ts as the corresponding row of the original matrix, and where each column has the same number of As, Cs, Gs and Ts as the corresponding column of the original matrix. Permuting the rows or columns of the original matrix will not achieve this in general. (E.g. for the example above, the top row has 2 Gs, and 1 each of A, C and T; if this row was swapped with row 2, the top row in the resulting matrix would have 3 As, 1 G and 1 T.) It's simple enough to preserve just column frequencies by shuffling a column at a time, and likewise for rows. But doing this will in general alter the frequencies of the other kind. My thoughts so far: If it's possible to pick 2 rows and 2 columns so that the 4 elements at the corners of this rectangle have the pattern XY YX for some pair of distinct elements X and Y, then replacing these 4 elements with YX XY will maintain both row and column frequencies. In the example at the top, this can be done for (at least) rows 1 and 2 and columns 2 and 5 (whose corners give the 2x2 matrix AG;GA), and for rows 1 and 3 and columns 1 and 4 (whose corners give GT;TG). Clearly this could be repeated a number of times to produce some level of randomisation. Generalising a bit, any "subrectangle" induced by a subset of rows and a subset of columns, in which the frequencies of all rows are the same and the frequencies of all columns are the same, can have both its rows and columns permuted to produce a valid complete rectangle. (Of these, only those subrectangles in which at least 1 element is changed are actually interesting.) Big questions: Are all valid complete matrices reachable by a series of such "subrectangle rearrangements"? I suspect the answer is yes. Are all valid subrectangle rearrangements decomposable into a series of 2x2 swaps? I suspect the answer is no, but I hope it's yes, since that would seem to make it easier to come up with an efficient algorithm. Can some or all of the valid rearrangements be computed efficiently? This question addresses a special case in which the set of possible elements is {0, 1}. The solutions people have come up with there are similar to what I have come up with myself, and are probably usable, but not ideal as they require an arbitrary amount of backtracking to work correctly. Also I'm concerned that only 2x2 swaps are considered. Finally, I would ideally like a solution that can be proven to select a matrix uniformly at random from the set of all matrices having identical row frequencies and column frequencies to the original. I know, I'm asking for a lot :)

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