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  • Is it okay for multiple objects to retain the same object in Objective-C/Cocoa?

    - by Andrew Arrow
    Say I have a tableview class that lists 100 Foo objects. It has: @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray* fooList; and I fill it up with Foos like: self.fooList = [NSMutableArray array]; while (something) { Foo* foo = [[Foo alloc] init]; [fooList addObject:foo]; [foo release]; } First question: because the NSMutableArray is marked as retain, that means all the objects inside it are retained too? Am I correctly adding the foo and releasing the local copy after it's been added to the array? Or am I missing a retain call? Then if the user selects one specific row in the table and I want to display a detail Foo view I call: FooView* localView = [[FooView alloc] initWithFoo:[self.fooList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:localView animated:YES]; [localView release]; Now the FooView class has: @property (nonatomic, retain) Foo* theFoo; so now BOTH the array is holding on to that Foo as well as the FooView. But that seems okay right? When the user hits the back button dealloc will be called on FooView and [theFoo release] will be called. Then another back button is hit and dealloc is called on the tableview class and [fooList release] is called. You might argue that the FooView class should have: @property (nonatomic, assign) Foo* theFoo; vs. retain. But sometimes the FooView class is called with a Foo that's not also in an array. So I wanted to make sure it was okay to have two objects holding on to the same other object.

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  • C++: inheritance problem

    - by Helltone
    It's quite hard to explain what I'm trying to do, I'll try: Imagine a base class A which contains some variables, and a set of classes deriving from A which all implement some method bool test() that operates on the variables inherited from A. class A { protected: int somevar; // ... }; class B : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar == 42); } }; class C : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar > 23); } }; // ... more classes deriving from A Now I have an instance of class A and I have set the value of somevar. int main(int, char* []) { A a; a.somevar = 42; Now, I need some kind of container that allows me to iterate over the elements i of this container, calling i::test() in the context of a... that is: std::vector<...> vec; // push B and C into vec, this is pseudo-code vec.push_back(&B); vec.push_back(&C); bool ret = true; for(i = vec.begin(); i != vec.end(); ++i) { // call B::test(), C::test(), setting *this to a ret &= ( a .* (&(*i)::test) )(); } return ret; } How can I do this? I've tried two methods: forcing a cast from B::* to A::*, adapting a pointer to call a method of a type on an object of a different type (works, but seems to be bad); using std::bind + the solution above, ugly hack; changing the signature of bool test() so that it takes an argument of type const A& instead of inheriting from A, I don't really like this solution because somevar must be public.

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  • Very simple python functions takes spends long time in function and not subfunctions

    - by John Salvatier
    I have spent many hours trying to figure what is going on here. The function 'grad_logp' in the code below is called many times in my program, and cProfile and runsnakerun the visualize the results reveals that the function grad_logp spends about .00004s 'locally' every call not in any functions it calls and the function 'n' spends about .00006s locally every call. Together these two times make up about 30% of program time that I care about. It doesn't seem like this is function overhead as other python functions spend far less time 'locally' and merging 'grad_logp' and 'n' does not make my program faster, but the operations that these two functions do seem rather trivial. Does anyone have any suggestions on what might be happening? Have I done something obviously inefficient? Am I misunderstanding how cProfile works? def grad_logp(self, variable, calculation_set ): p = params(self.p,self.parents) return self.n(variable, self.p) def n (self, variable, p ): gradient = self.gg(variable, p) return np.reshape(gradient, np.shape(variable.value)) def gg(self, variable, p): if variable is self: gradient = self._grad_logps['x']( x = self.value, **p) else: gradient = __builtin__.sum([self._pgradient(variable, parameter, value, p) for parameter, value in self.parents.iteritems()]) return gradient

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  • jQuery ajax only works first time

    - by Michael Itzoe
    I have a table of data that on a button click certain values are saved to the database, while other values are retrieved. I need the process to be continuous, but I can only get it to work the first time. At first I was using .ajax() and .replaceWith() to rewrite the entire table, but because this overwrites the DOM it was losing events associated with the table. I cannot use .live() because I'm using stopPropagation() and .live() doesn't support it due to event bubbling. I was able to essentially re-bind the click event onto the table within the .ajax() callback, but a second call to the button click event did nothing. I changed the code to use .get() for the ajax and .html() to put the results in the table (the server-side code now returns the complete table sans the <table> tags). I no longer have to rebind the click event to the table, but subsequent clicks to the button still do nothing. Finally, I changed it to .load(), but with the same (non-) results. By "do nothing" I mean while the ajax call is returning the new HTML as expected, it's not being applied to the table. I'm sure it has something to do with altering the DOM, but I thought since I'm only overwriting the table contents and not the table object itself, it should work. Obviously I'm missing something; what is it? Edit: HTML: <table id="table1" class="mytable"> <tr> <td><span id="item1" class="myitem"></span> <td><span id="item2" class="myitem"></span> </tr> </table> <input id="Button1" type="button" value="Submit" /> jQuery: $( "Button1" ).click( function() { $( "table1" ).load( "data.aspx", function( data ) { //... } ); } );

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  • Stuck on scrolling GtkViewPort to end.

    - by PP
    I am adding one GtkVBox to GtkViewPort. And I am doing scrolling for GtkViewPort based on two Up/Down Buttons. I need to display last item in VBox as we do in Message Chat Screens (Message Chat list displays/adds newest chat message at bottom of the list) i doing exact thing. so for scrolling at the bottom of the GtkViewPort i am doing in the map event call back. GtkAdjustment* adjustment; adjustment = gtk_viewport_get_vadjustment(GTK_VIEWPORT(viewport_list)); gtk_adjustment_set_value(adjustment, gtk_adjustment_get_upper(adjustment)); So this works perfectly fine. it displays newest added widget in Vbox at the end. on some external events I add new Widgets to my VBox and call above code again to display these newly added widgets. on first add it does not scroll at all but on 2nd add to VBOX it scroll upto 2nd last Widget in the list. Why this might be happening. It there another way of scrolling GtkViewPort to the end? Thanks for reading :)

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  • How to handle single Ajax Error for Entire page using jquery

    - by Thiyagarajan
    In My page i am sending data to server side using 8 ajax call... I don't want to handle ajax error for each and every ajax call...... Single ajax error handle all the ajax error in entire page.... is their any inheritance is possible for the entire page.. function SendConfirmationEmail(ShipmentID, ChannelOrderReference) { var Url = '<%=Url.Action("SendShipmentEmail","Shipments") %>'; $.ajax({ cache: false, type: "POST", data: 'strOrderShipmentId=' + ShipmentID + '&channelOrderReference=' + ChannelOrderReference, url: Url, datatype: "HTML", success: function (data) { if (data == "1") { SucessErrorMessageDisplay('DivStatus', 'lblStatus', 'imgStatus', 0, 'Email is successfully sent for Order#' + ChannelOrderReference + ''); } if (data == "-2") { SucessErrorMessageDisplay('DivStatus', 'lblStatus', 'imgStatus', 0, 'Email Template is not Choosen for this Store'); } if (data == "-1") { SucessErrorMessageDisplay('DivStatus', 'lblStatus', 'imgStatus', 0, 'Problem in Sending Email for Order#' + ChannelOrderReference + ''); } if (data == "0") { SucessErrorMessageDisplay('DivStatus', 'lblStatus', 'imgStatus', 0, 'Connection Failed to Send Email for Order# ' + ChannelOrderReference + ''); } if (data == "-3") { SucessErrorMessageDisplay('DivStatus', 'lblStatus', 'imgStatus', 0, 'ShipTo Email Address is Not Given for Order# ' + ChannelOrderReference + ''); } // SucessErrorMessageDisplay('DivStatus', 'lblStatus', 'imgStatus', 0, 'Order# :' + ChannelOrderReference + ' is voided successfully'); }, error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { if (xhr.status == 403) { window.location.href = '<%: Url.Action( "SessionExpire", "Home" ) %>'; } } }); }

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  • Java queue and multi-dimension array

    - by javaLearner.java
    First of all, this is my code (just started learning java): Queue<String> qe = new LinkedList<String>(); qe.add("b"); qe.add("a"); qe.add("c"); qe.add("d"); qe.add("e"); My question: Is it possible to add element to the queue with two values, like: qe.add("a","1"); // where 1 is integer So, that I know element "a" have value 1. If I want to add a number let say "2" to element a, I will have like a = 3. If this cant be done, what else in java classes that can handle this? I tried to use multi-dimention array, but its kinda hard to do the queue, like pop, push etc. (Maybe I am wrong) How to call specific element in the queue? Like, call element a, to check its value. [Note] Please don't give me links that ask me to read java docs. I was reading, and I still dont get it. The reason why I ask here is because, I know I can find the answer faster and easier.

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  • Error while closing SQL Connection

    - by Wickedman84
    I have a problem with closing the SQLconnection in my application. My application is in VB.net. I have a reference in my application to a class with code to open and close the database connection and to execute all sql scripts. The error occurs when i close my application. In the formClosing event of my main form I call a function that closes all the connections. But just before I close the connections I perform an SQLquery to delete a row from a table with the function below. Public Function DeleteFunction(ByVal mySQLQuery As String, ByVal cmd As SqlCommand) As Boolean Try cmd.Connection = myConnection cmd.CommandText = mySQLQuery cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() Return True Catch ex As Exception WriteErrorMessage("DeleteFunction", ex, Logpath, "SQL Error: " & mySQLQuery) Return False End Try End Function In my application I check the result of the boolean. If it returns True, then i call the function to close the database connection. The returned boolean is True and the requested row is deleted in my database. This means i can close my connection which I do with the function below. Public Sub DatabaseConnClose() myCommand.CommandText = "" myConnection.Close() myCommand = Nothing myConnection = Nothing End Sub After executing this code I receive an error in my logfile from the DeleteFunction. It says: "Connection property has not been initialized." It seems very strange to receive an error from a function that was completely executed, or am i wrong to think that? Can anyone tell me why I receive this error and how I can solve the problem?

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  • Returning objects in php

    - by user220201
    I see similar questions asked but I seem to have problem with more basic stuff than were asked. How to declare a variable in php? My specific problem is I have a function that reads a DB table and returns the record (only one) as an object. class User{ public $uid; public $name; public $status; } function GetUserInfo($uid) { // Query DB $userObj = new User(); // convert the result into the User object. var_dump($userObj); return $userObj; } // In another file I call the above function. .... $newuser = GetUserInfo($uid); var_dump($newuser); What is the problem here, I cannot understand. Essentially the var_dump() in the function GetUserInfo() works fine. The var_dump() outside after the call to GetUserInfo() does not work. Thanks for any help. S

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  • RIA Service - without database?

    - by Heko
    Helo! I need to write a RIA service to call Java webservices from Silverlight 3.0 app. I'm testing how stuff works and in my Web app I have a MyData class which has 2 properties (int ID, string Text): namespace SilverlightApplication1.Web { public class MyData { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string Text { get; set; } } } Then I wrote simple DomainService: [EnableClientAccess()] public class MyService : DomainService { public IQueryable<MyData> GetMyData(string Url) { // here I will call my WebService List<MyData> result = new List<MyData>(); result.Add(new MyData { ID = 1, Text = Url }); return result.AsQueryable(); } } } How can I get data into my SL app? Now I have this: namespace SilverlightApplication1 { public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); MyContext context = new MyContext(); } } } I called and load but nothink worsk (exceptions, or nulls)... I had Invoke annotation but MyData is not TEntity and I can't use Strings or other simple types as well... :/ I'm reading and reading posts and nothing works like it should.. Any help would be really appreciated. Thank you!

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  • gaema twitter handle error..

    - by zjm1126
    i use gaema for twitter user loggin http://code.google.com/p/gaema/ and my code is : class TwitterAuth(WebappAuth, auth.TwitterMixin): pass class TwitterHandler(BaseHandler): def get(self): twitter_auth = TwitterAuth(self) try: if self.request.GET.get("oauth_token", None): twitter_auth.get_authenticated_user(self._on_auth) self.response.out.write('sss') return twitter_auth.authorize_redirect() except RequestRedirect, e: return self.redirect(e.url, permanent=True) self.render_template('index.html', user=None) def _on_auth(self, user): """This function is called immediatelly after an authentication attempt. Use it to save the login information in a session or secure cookie. :param user: A dictionary with user data if the authentication was successful, or ``None`` if the authentication failed. """ if user: # Authentication was successful. Create a session or secure cookie # to keep the user logged in. #self.response.out.write('logged in as '+user['first_name']+' '+user['last_name']) self.response.out.write(user) return else: # Login failed. Show an error message or do nothing. pass # After cookie is persisted, redirect user to the original URL, using # the home page as fallback. self.redirect(self.request.GET.get('redirect', '/')) and the error is : Traceback (most recent call last): File "D:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\ext\webapp\__init__.py", line 511, in __call__ handler.get(*groups) File "D:\zjm_code\gaema\demos\webapp\main.py", line 76, in get twitter_auth.authorize_redirect() File "D:\zjm_code\gaema\demos\webapp\gaema\auth.py", line 209, in authorize_redirect http.fetch(self._oauth_request_token_url(), self.async_callback( File "D:\zjm_code\gaema\demos\webapp\gaema\auth.py", line 239, in _oauth_request_token_url consumer_token = self._oauth_consumer_token() File "D:\zjm_code\gaema\demos\webapp\gaema\auth.py", line 441, in _oauth_consumer_token self.require_setting("twitter_consumer_key", "Twitter OAuth") TypeError: require_setting() takes at most 2 arguments (3 given) thanks

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  • Programming powering off and powering on in one single OnClick function on android

    - by user1060919
    I would like to write an activity that after clicking on a button turns off the screen and then turns it back on after 2 secs. I tried using the following code in order to power off the screen: WindowManager.LayoutParams lp = getWindow().getAttributes(); lp.screenBrightness = 0/(float)255; getWindow().setAttributes(lp); But it would only take effect when then onClick function returns. I tried running it into a handler but with no success. I need to find a way to force the setting to get applied before the function returns so that I can call the power on function 2 secs later on the same onClick call. I also found it very hard to wakeup the device afterwards. While this code works if I power off the screen using the physical button it doesn't seem to work when the phone is powered off using the technique described previously. PowerManager pm = (PowerManager)this.getSystemService(Context.POWER_SERVICE); PowerManager.WakeLock wl = pm.newWakeLock(PowerManager.FULL_WAKE_LOCK|PowerManager.ACQUIRE_CAUSES_WAKEUP | PowerManager.ON_AFTER_RELEASE ,"Dev Tag"); try { wl.acquire(); wl.release(); } catch (Exception e) { Toast.makeText(this, e.getMessage(),20).show(); } Thanks you in advance for your help!

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  • DLL Export C/C++ 6.00 function invoked by VB6

    - by nashth
    Hi all, I have been attemptng to create a DLL with C/C++ that can be accessed by VB6, and that's right I get error "453 Can't find DLL entry point myFunctionName in myDllName.dll" upon calling the function from a VB6 app. After searching the Web, including this site, I see that I am not alone, and I have tried the various solutions posted but error "453" is unexcapable. This is Not a COMM dll, and I believe that is possible when created via C/C++. In any case, please help, if you can. Please refer to the following simple test case below: The DLL created as a C/C++ 6.00 Win32 Dynamic-Link Library: #include // Note that I did try the line below rather than the def file, but to no avail... // #pragma comment(linker, "/EXPORT:ibask32=_ibask32@0") // Function definition extern "C" int __declspec(dllexport) __stdcall ibask32() { MessageBox(NULL,"String","Sample Code", NULL); return 0L; } The def file: LIBRARY "Gpib-32" EXPORTS ibask32 Now for the VB App: The following is the entire content of the startup Form1, Form_Load Option Explicit Private Sub Form_Load() Call ibask End Sub The following is a BAS module file that is added to the project: Option Explicit Declare Function ibask32 Lib "Gpib-32.dll" Alias "ibask" () As Long Sub ibask() Call ibask32 ' Note: This is the point of failure End Sub Thanks in advance if a workable solution can be provided, Tom

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  • CodeIgniter -- unable to use an object

    - by Smandoli
    THE SUMMARY: When I call .../index.php/product, I receive: Fatal error: Call to a member function get_prod_single() on a non-object in /var/www/sparts/main/controllers/product.php on line 16 The offending Line 16 is: $data['pn_oem'] = $this->product_model->get_prod_single($product_id); Looks like I don't know how to make this a working object. Can you help me? THE CODE: In my /Models folder I have product_model.php: <?php class Product_model extends Model { function Product_model() { parent::Model(); } function get_prod_single($product_id) { //This will be a DB lookup ... return 'foo'; //stub to get going } } ?> In my /controllers folder I have product.php: <?php class Product extends Controller { function Product() { parent::Controller(); } function index() { $this->load->model('Product_model'); $product_id = 113; // will get this dynamically $data['product_id'] = $product_id; $data['pn_oem'] = $this->product_model->get_prod_single($product_id); $this->load->view('prod_single', $data); } } ?>

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  • Acessing a wordpress database from an iPhone App.

    - by Code
    Hi guys, I've been asked to create an app that will get data back from a database where the CMS will be Wordpress. I've never used a CMS so I'm trying to get a (overview)picture in my head of how it could all work and what each of the components would be. And what a CMS actually brings to the party. Creating the app itself is pretty clear. I've done a few already. I've made a database before and shouldnt cause a problem. But what is going to be in the middle between the app and the database? Part A: I'm guessing iphone apps typically would call some php file that's hosted on the server? The php then would make a call to the database and return the data somehow, maybe as xml. But this is really basic and wouldnt require a CMS. Just a database and a phpfile, or am I wrong? Part B: If i wanted to run a check on the database every minute to see if any of the data in database was no longer valid and remove it if needed, that would require somekind of program running on the server. So that program would be Wordpress, since it is managing the content, so a content management system is actually needed and is for these kind of taskes. Am i understanding the role of CMS? Many Thanks, -Code

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  • FBML wallpost by clicking on image or button

    - by psaha
    Hello, I'm creating one facebook application with FBML. What I want is: I have several images like, <fb:tag name="img"> <fb:tag-attribute name="src">http://My_Img_Url_1.jpg</fb:tag-attribute> </fb:tag> <fb:tag name="img"> <fb:tag-attribute name="src">http://My_Img_Url_2.jpg</fb:tag-attribute> </fb:tag> While I click on the image it should open one popup "post to wall" or "Post to your Friend's wall" with the corresponding image My_Img_Url_n.jpg. I can use FBML share button like: METHOD-1 <fb:share-button class="meta"> <meta name="title" content="Image_TITLE"/> <meta name="description" content="Image_Descrip"/> <link rel="image_src" href="http://My_Img_Url_1.jpg"/> <link rel="target_url" href="Some_Target_URL"/> </fb:share-button> OR, METHOD-2: I can call fb:ui <script> FB.init({ appId:'111111111111111', cookie:true, status:true, xfbml:true }); FB.ui({ method: 'feed', name: '', link: '', picture: 'http://My_Img_Url_1.jpg' }); </script> Now the questions are: If I click on any image it will call either METHOD-1 or METHOD-2 and it will popup with that image. How can I do that? If I use <fb:multi-friend-input /> for posting to friend's wall, How can I do?

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  • Does IE completely ignore cache control headers for AJAX requests?

    - by Joshua Hayworth
    Hello there, I've got, what I would consider, a simple test web site. A single page with a single button. Here is a copy of the source I'm working with if you would like to download it and play with it. When that button is clicked, it creates a JavaScript timer that executes once a second. When the timer function is executed, An AJAX call is made to retrieve a text value. That text value is then placed into the DOM. What's my problem? IE Caching. Crack open Task Manager and watch what happens to the iexplorer.exe process (IE 8.0.7600.16385 for me) while the timer in that page is executing. See the memory and handle count getting larger? Why is that happening when, by all accounts, I have caching turned off. I've got the jQuery cache option set to false in $.ajaxSetup. I've got the CacheControl header set to no-cache and no-store. The Expires header is set to DateTime.Now.AddDays(-1). The headers are set in both the page code-behind as well as the HTTP Handler's response. Anybody got any ideas as to how I could prevent IE from caching the results of the AJAX call? Here is what the iexplorer.exe process looks like in ProcessMonitor. I believe that the activity shown in this picture is exactly what I'm attempting to prevent.

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  • PHP extend a class method that is called from another class which extends it and calls the method wi

    - by dan.codes
    I am trying to extend a class and override one of its methods. lets call that class A. My class, class B, is overiding a protected method. Class C extends class A and Class D extends class C. Inside of Class D, the method I am trying to overwrite is also extended here and that calls parent::mymethodimoverriding. That method does not exist in class C so it goes to it in class A. That is the method I am overiding in class B and obviously you can't extend A with B and have those changes show up in D since it does not fall in line with the class hierarchy. I might be wrong, so correct me please. so if my class b is called and ran then class D gets called it runs the method in A and overwrites what I had set. I am thinking there must be a way to get this to work, I am just missing something. here is an example, as you can see in class A there is a call to setTitle and it is set to "Example" In my class I set it to "NewExample". My class is getting called before class D so when class D is called it goes back to the parent and sets the title back to "Example" class A{ protected function _thefunction(){ setTitle("Example"); } } class B extends A{ protected function _thefunction(){ My new code here setTitle("NewExample"); } } class C extends A{ nothing that matters in here for what I am doing } class D extends C{ protected function _thefunction(){ parent::_thefunction(); additional code here } }

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  • Execute JavaScript from within a C# assembly

    - by ScottKoon
    I'd like to execute JavaScript code from within a C# assembly and have the results of the JavaScript code returned to the calling C# code. It's easier to define things that I'm not trying to do: I'm not trying to call a JavaScript function on a web page from my code behind. I'm not trying to load a WebBrowser control. I don't want to have the JavaScript perform an AJAX call to a server. What I want to do is write unit tests in JavaScript and have then unit tests output JSON, even plain text would be fine. Then I want to have a generic C# class/executible that can load the file containing the JS, run the JS unit tests, scrap/load the results, and return a pass/fail with details during a post-build task. I think it's possible using the old ActiveX ScriptControl, but it seems like there ought to be a .NET way to do this without using SilverLight, the DLR, or anything else that hasn't shipped yet. Anyone have any ideas? update: From Brad Abrams blog namespace Microsoft.JScript.Vsa { [Obsolete("There is no replacement for this feature. Please see the ICodeCompiler documentation for additional help. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202")] Clarification: We have unit tests for our JavaScript functions that are written in JavaScript using the JSUnit framework. Right now during our build process, we have to manually load a web page and click a button to ensure that all of the JavaScript unit tests pass. I'd like to be able to execute the tests during the post-build process when our automated C# unit tests are run and report the success/failure alongside of out C# unit tests and use them as an indicator as to whether or not the build is broken.

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  • WCF: get generic type object (e.g. MyObject<T>) from remote machine

    - by Aaron
    I have two applications that are communicating through WCF. On the server the following object exists: public class MyObject<T> { ... public Entry<T> GetValue() } Where Entry<T> is another object with T Data as a public property. T could be any number of types (string, double, etc) On the client I have ClientObject<T> that needs to get the value of Data from the server (same type). Since I'm using WCF, I have to define my ServiceContract as an interface, and I can't have ClientObject<T> call Entry<T> GetMyObjectValue (string Name) which calls GetValue on the correct MyObject<T> because my interface isn't aware of the type information. I've tried implementing separate GetValue functions (GetMyObjectValueDouble, GetMyObjectValueString) in the interface and then have ClientObject determine the correct one to call. However, Entry<T> val = (Entry<T>)GetMyObjectValueDouble(...); doesn't work because it's not sure about the type information. How can I go about getting a generic object over WCF with the correct type information? Let me know if there are other details I can provide. Thanks!

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  • How do I delete duplicates between two excel sheets quickly vba

    - by MainTank
    I am using vba and I have two sheets one is named "Do Not Call" and has about 800,000 rows of data in column A. I want to use this data to check column I in the second sheet, named "Sheet1". If it finds a match I want it to delete the whole row in "Sheet1". I have tailored the code I have found from a similar question here: Excel formula to Cross reference 2 sheets, remove duplicates from one sheet and ran it but nothing happens. I am not getting any errors but it is not functioning. Here is the code I am currently trying and have no idea why it is not working Option Explicit Sub CleanDupes() Dim wsA As Worksheet Dim wsB As Worksheet Dim keyColA As String Dim keyColB As String Dim rngA As Range Dim rngB As Range Dim intRowCounterA As Integer Dim intRowCounterB As Integer Dim strValueA As String keyColA = "A" keyColB = "I" intRowCounterA = 1 intRowCounterB = 1 Set wsA = Worksheets("Do Not Call") Set wsB = Worksheets("Sheet1") Dim dict As Object Set dict = CreateObject("Scripting.Dictionary") Do While Not IsEmpty(wsA.Range(keyColA & intRowCounterA).Value) Set rngA = wsA.Range(keyColA & intRowCounterA) strValueA = rngA.Value If Not dict.Exists(strValueA) Then dict.Add strValueA, 1 End If intRowCounterA = intRowCounterA + 1 Loop intRowCounterB = 1 Do While Not IsEmpty(wsB.Range(keyColB & intRowCounterB).Value) Set rngB = wsB.Range(keyColB & intRowCounterB) If dict.Exists(rngB.Value) Then wsB.Rows(intRowCounterB).delete intRowCounterB = intRowCounterB - 1 End If intRowCounterB = intRowCounterB + 1 Loop End Sub I apologize if the above code is not in a code tag. This is my first time posting code online and I have no idea if I did it correctly.

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  • [jQuery] Sort contents alphabetically

    - by James
    So I am appending the following after an AJAX call, and this AJAX call may happen several time, returning several data items. And I am trying to use Tinysort [http://plugins.jquery.com/project/TinySort] to sort the list everytime, so the new items added are integrated nicely and sorted alphabetically. It unfortunately doesn't seem to be working. Any ideas? I mean, the data itself is being correctly appended, but unfortunately the sorting isn't occurring. var artists = []; $.each(data.artists, function(k, v) { artists.push('<section id="artist:' + v.name + '" class="artist"><div class="span-9"><img alt="' + v.name + '" width="34" height="34" class="photo" src="' + v.photo + '" /><strong>' + v.name + '</strong><br/><span>' + v.events + ' upcoming gig'); if (v.events != 1) { artists.push('s'); } artists.push('</span></div><div class="span-2 align-right last">Last</div><div class="clear"></div></section>'); }); $('div.artists p').remove(); $('div.artists div.next').remove(); $('div.artists').append(artists.join('')).append('<div class="next"><a href="#">Next</a></div>'); $('div.artists section').tsort('section[id]', {orderby: 'id'}); Thanks!

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  • Generating python wrapper for 3ed party c++ dll using swig with

    - by MuraliK
    I am new bee to swig. I have a third party c++ dll with the following functions export. I want to call these dll functions in python. So thought of using swig to generate the wrapper using swig. I am not sure what sort of wrapper i need to generate (do i need to generate .lib or .dll to use it in python?). In case i need to generate .dll how do i do that using visual studio 2010. There are some call back function like SetNotifyHandler(void (__stdcall * nf)(int wp, void *lp)) in the bellow list. How do define such function in interface file. can someone help me plese? enter code here #ifndef DLL_H #define DLL_H #ifdef DLL_BUILD #define DLLFUNC __declspec(dllexport) #else #define DLLFUNC __declspec(dllimport) #endif #pragma pack(push) #pragma pack(1) #pragma pack(pop) extern "C" { DLLFUNC int __stdcall StartServer(void); DLLFUNC int __stdcall GetConnectionInfo(int connIndex, Info *buf); DLLFUNC void __stdcall SetNotifyWindow(HWND nw); DLLFUNC void __stdcall SetNotifyHandler(void (__stdcall * nf)(int wp, void *lp)); DLLFUNC int __stdcall SendCommand(int connIndex, Command *cmd); };

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  • wxPython: MainLoop() seems to hang

    - by BandGap
    Hi all, my problem stems from the use of wxApp as far as I can tell. Inside a litte subroutine I call a wx.MessageDialog to ask for a yes or no. I retrieve the answer an process some stuff acordingly. My example code below actually works (though it might be ugly) except that the Dialog box stays open after hitting one of the buttons... import wx from os import path def HasFile(filename): if path.isfile(filename ): app = wx.App() dial = wx.MessageDialog(None, 'Die Datei "'+filename+'" wurde gefunden.\nSoll sie eingelesen werden?', 'Bitte antworten', wx.YES_NO | wx.YES_DEFAULT | wx.ICON_QUESTION) result = dial.ShowModal() dial.EndModal(retCode=0) dial.Destroy() app.MainLoop() return result == wx.ID_YES else: return False So while the rest of the program does whatever is expected, the box just sits there. It also seems like my calls to matplotlib later on are producing errors (a Tkinter error to be precise), maybe because of the wx stuff? Edit: I tried to end the app with a call to app.Destroy(). This doesn't change the fact that the box is still there. When I issue a app.IsActive() afterwards the whole program exits (almost like a sys.exit())! How come? Edit 2: Adding a wxApp like this isn't a good idea since the other scripts get affected as well. Subsequent plotting commands don't get displayed and I don't know how to fix this. Thus I decided to remove the DialogBox alltogether.

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  • Wordpress Admin Panel Code Input

    - by Wes
    I've got a wordpress admin panel for one of my themes and one of the boxes has an input for some code to drive google adsense. when I put the code into the box and call it with my php tags the code comes out like this: <script type="\&quot;text/javascript\&quot;"><!-- google_ad_client = \"pub-9295546347478163\"; /* Leaderboard 5/17/2010 */ google_ad_slot = \"7593465074\"; google_ad_width = 728; google_ad_height = 90; //--> </script> <script type="\&quot;text/javascript\&quot;" src="%5C%22http://pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/show_ads.js%5C%22"> </script> Which I assume is a feature to stop SQL injections. How can I call pure code form a box? This is how I currently have that textbox setup. array( "name" => "Code for Top ad", "desc" => "Enter the HTML that will drive the banner ad for the page header", "id" => $shortname."_headerAd", "type" => "textarea"), and then echo it out with this: <?php echo get_option('lifestyle_headerAd'); ?>

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