Search Results

Search found 10170 results on 407 pages for 'regression testing'.

Page 342/407 | < Previous Page | 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349  | Next Page >

  • Javamail doesn't send a mail

    - by Jose Hdez
    I am developing a Java application and I am using Javamail to send a mail. My code is the following: Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "diana.cartif.es"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port", "465"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.class","javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "465"); Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("alerts","pass"); } }); Message message = new MimeMessage(session); message.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); message.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO,InternetAddress.parse("[email protected]")); message.setSubject("Testing Subject"); message.setText("Dear Mail Crawler," +"\n\n No spam to my email, please!"); Transport.send(message); However when I execute this code it throws an Exception: javax.mail.MessagingException: Could not connect to SMTP host: diana.cartif.es, port: 465, response: -1 at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.openServer(SMTPTransport.java:1960) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.protocolConnect(SMTPTransport.java:642) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:317) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:176) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:125) at javax.mail.Transport.send0(Transport.java:194) at javax.mail.Transport.send(Transport.java:124) at com.cartif.data.MainConnection.getFTPConnection(MainConnection.java:106) at com.cartif.main.Main.connectToServer(Main.java:72) at com.cartif.main.Main.main(Main.java:60) Data to connect is right because I checked it in my Mail Server. Could someone help me please? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Timer appears to be pausing when screen becomes inactive

    - by elchuppa
    So I have a very simple android activity that starts a timer when you hit a button. Timer timer = new Timer(); timer.schedule(new TimerTask() { @Override public void run() { doStuff(); } }, 15 * 60 * 1000); So this worked reasonably well for me when I was testing but as it turns out when the screen becomes inactive so does the timer. I was a bit surprised by this. I understand you need to create a service to have anything running in the background but I hadn't realized this is required for an activity in the foreground when the phone has inactivated the screen due to lack of activity. What confuses me is I think this worked as I expected originally and just in the last few weeks or so has the timer been affected by the phone saving power. I could be wrong though.. So basically my questions are: am I seeing expected behavior? Do I need to create all timers as services or somehow disallow powersaving? thanks for any advice, Patrick

    Read the article

  • PDFBox: Problem with converting pdf page into image

    - by user552910
    My mission is pretty simple: converting every single page of a pdf file into images. I tried using icepdf open source version to generate the images but they don't generate the image with the correct font. So I start using PDFBox instead. The code is the following: PDDocument document = PDDocument.load(new File("testing.pdf")); List<PDPage> pages = document.getDocumentCatalog().getAllPages(); for (int i = 0; i < pages.size(); i++) { PDPage singlePage = pages.get(i); BufferedImage buffImage = convertToImage(singlePage, 8, 12); ImageIO.write(buffImage, "png", new File(PdfUtil.DATA_OUTPUT_DIR+(count++)+".png")); } The font looks good, but the pictures within the pdf file look fainted out (See the attachment). I look into the source code but I still have no clue how to fix it. Do you guys have any idea what's going on? Please help. Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • Access Controller Context/ TempData from business objects

    - by thanikkal
    I am trying to build a session/tempdata provider that can be swapped. The default provider will work on top of asp.net mvc and it needed to access the .net mvc TempData from the business object class. I know the tempdata is available through the controller context, but i cant seem to find if that is exposed through HttpContext or something. I dont really want to pass the Controller context as an argument as that would dilute my interface definition since only asp.net based session provider needs this, other (using NoSQL DB etc) doesn't care about Controller Context. To clarify further, adding little more code here. my ISession interface look like this. and when this code goes to production, the session/tempdata is expected to work using NoSql db. But i also like to have another implementation that works on top of asp.net mvc session/tempdata for my dev testing etc. public interface ISession { T GetTempData<T>(string key); void PutTempData<T>(string key, T value); T GetSessiondata<T>(string key); void PutSessiondata<T>(string key, T value); }

    Read the article

  • regex match css class name from single string containing multiple classes

    - by effectica
    I have a long string that contains multiple css classes. With regex I would like to match every class name as I then need to replace these class names like so: <span>CLASSNAME</span> I have tried for hours to come up with a solution and I think I am close however for certain class names I am not able to exclude closing curly brackets from the match. Here is a sample string I have been carrying out testing on: #main .items-Outer p{ font-family:Verdana; color: #000000; font-size: 50px; font-weight: bold; }#footer .footer-inner p.intro{ font-family:Arial; color: #444444; font-size: 30; font-weight: normal; }.genericTxt{ font-family:Courier; color: #444444; font-size: 30; font-weight: normal; } And here is the the regex I came up with so far: ((^(?:.+?)(?:[^{]*))|((?:\})(?:.+?)(?:[^{]*))) Please look at the screenshot I am attaching as it will show more clearly the matches I get. My problem is that I would obviously like to exclude curly brackets from any match.

    Read the article

  • PHP Sessions and Passing Session ID

    - by Jason McCreary
    I have an API where I am passing the session id back and forth between calls. I set up the session like so: // start API session session_name('apikey'); session_id($data['apikey']); // required to link session session_start(); Although I named my session and am passing the session id via GET and POST using the name, PHP does not automatically resume that session. It always creates a new one unless I set the explicitly set the session id. I found some old user comments on www.php.net that said unless the session id is the first parameter PHP won't set it automatically. This seems odd, but even when I call tried it still didn't work: rest_services.php?apikey=sdr6d3subaofcav53cpf71j4v3&q=testing I have used PHP for years, but am a little confused on why I needed to explicitly set the session with session_id() when I am naming the session and passing it's key accordingly. UPDATE It seems I wasn't clear. My question is why is setting the session ID with session_id() required when I am passing the id, using the session name apikey, via $_GET or $_POST. Theoretically this is no different than PHP's SID when cookies are disabled. But for me it doesn't work unless I explicitly set the session ID. Why?

    Read the article

  • Logging in "Java Library Code" libs for Android applications

    - by K. Claszen
    I follow the advice to implement Android device (not application!) independent library code for my Android Apps in a seperate "Java Library Code" project. This makes testing easier for me as I can use the standard maven project layout, Spring test support and Continuous Build systems the way I am used to. I do not want to mix this inside my Android App project although this might be possible. I now wonder how to implement logging in this library. As this library will be used on the Android device I would like to go with android.util.Log. I added the followind dependency to my project to get the missing Android packages/classes and dependencies: <dependency> <groupId>com.google.android</groupId> <artifactId>android</artifactId> <version>2.2.1</version> <scope>provided</scope> </dependency> But this library just contains stub method (similar to the android.jar inside the android-sdk), thus using android.util.Log results in java.lang.RuntimeException: Stub! when running my unit tests. How do I implement logging which works on the Android device but does not fail outside (I do not expect it to work, but it must not fail)? Thanks for any advice Klaus For now I am going with the workaround to catch the exception outside android but hope there is a better solution. try { Log.d("me", "hello"); } catch (RuntimeException re) { // ignore failure outside android }

    Read the article

  • How do the operators < and > work with pointers?

    - by Øystein
    Just for fun, I had a std::list of const char*, each element pointing to a null-terminated text string, and ran a std::list::sort() on it. As it happens, it sort of (no pun intended) did not sort the strings. Considering that it was working on pointers, that makes sense. According to the documentation of std::list::sort(), it (by default) uses the operator < between the elements to compare. Forgetting about the list for a moment, my actual question is: How do these (, <, =, <=) operators work on pointers in C++ and C? Do they simply compare the actual memory addresses? char* p1 = (char*) 0xDAB0BC47; char* p2 = (char*) 0xBABEC475; e.g. on a 32-bit, little-endian system, p1 p2 because 0xDAB0BC47 0xBABEC475? Testing seems to confirm this, but I thought it'd be good to put it on StackOverflow for future reference. C and C++ both do some weird things to pointers, so you never really know...

    Read the article

  • python crc32 woes

    - by lazyr
    I'm writing a python program to extract data from the middle of a 6 GB bz2 file. A bzip2 file is made up of independently decryptable blocks of data, so I only need to find a block (they are delimited by magic bits), then create a temporary one-block bzip2 file from it in memory, and finally pass that to the bz2.decompress function. Easy, no? The bzip2 format has a crc32 checksum for the file at the end. No problem, binascii.crc32 to the rescue. But wait. The data to be checksummed does not necessarily end on a byte boundary, and the crc32 function operates on a whole number of bytes. My plan: use the binascii.crc32 function on all but the last byte, and then a function of my own to update the computed crc with the last 1-7 bits. But hours of coding and testing has left me bewildered, and my puzzlement can be boiled down to this question: how come crc32("\x00") is not 0x00000000? Shouldn't it be, according to the wikipedia article? You start with 0b00000000 and pad with 32 0's, then do polynomial division with 0x04C11DB7 until there are no ones left in the first 8 bits, which is immediately. Your last 32 bits is the checksum, and how can that not be all zeroes? I've searched google for answers and looked at the code of several crc32 implementations without finding any clue to why this is so.

    Read the article

  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

    Read the article

  • PHP file upload issue

    - by Varun
    I am working on a PHP based, ticket management system. While creating a ticket, one can upload an attachment. I want to put a limit (say 10 MB) per file upload. To implement this I plan the following- 1. In php.ini set post_max_size = 10M 2.In PHP script which receives the POST- Since the file is larger than post_max_size, $_FILES[] will be empty. But I can still check the content-length header and discard the upload, if size more than 10M. While testing this I tried uploading a file of 1 GB and analysed the http traffic and this is what I found. - the entire 1 GB data is first uploaded to a to the server temporarily and discarded once the http request completes. Though I couldn't exactly find out where the file was getting saved(as it was not there in the temporary directory in the server.), but my http traffic analyzer showed that the browser did send 1 GB data to the server. - the PHP script execution started only after completion of the http request(i.e after uploading the entire 1 GB) Now I have 2 concerns: a) People may exploit my server bandwidth by trying to upload large file, which I will have to discard anyways. b) Even worse, if someone starts uploading a huge file (say 100 GB), entire 100 GB data is first uploaded to the server temporarily, that means for that period, it will consume that much of memory on my server. What's the common solution for this. Am I missing something here?

    Read the article

  • NoSQL for filesystem storage organization and replication?

    - by wheaties
    We've been discussing design of a data warehouse strategy within our group for meeting testing, reproducibility, and data syncing requirements. One of the suggested ideas is to adapt a NoSQL approach using an existing tool rather than try to re-implement a whole lot of the same on a file system. I don't know if a NoSQL approach is even the best approach to what we're trying to accomplish but perhaps if I describe what we need/want you all can help. Most of our files are large, 50+ Gig in size, held in a proprietary, third-party format. We need to be able to access each file by a name/date/source/time/artifact combination. Essentially a key-value pair style look-up. When we query for a file, we don't want to have to load all of it into memory. They're really too large and would swamp our server. We want to be able to somehow get a reference to the file and then use a proprietary, third-party API to ingest portions of it. We want to easily add, remove, and export files from storage. We'd like to set up automatic file replication between two servers (we can write a script for this.) That is, sync the contents of one server with another. We don't need a distributed system where it only appears as if we have one server. We'd like complete replication. We also have other smaller files that have a tree type relationship with the Big files. One file's content will point to the next and so on, and so on. It's not a "spoked wheel," it's a full blown tree. We'd prefer a Python, C or C++ API to work with a system like this but most of us are experienced with a variety of languages. We don't mind as long as it works, gets the job done, and saves us time. What you think? Is there something out there like this?

    Read the article

  • jQuery display text nested in paragraphs inside a div

    - by user961627
    I have HTML that looks something like this: <div class='textbox' data-title='Sometitle'> <div class='textareaedit'> <p><strong>Test sample text</strong></p> </div> </div> I'm sometimes going to have a few different <p> tags inside the textareaedit divs, and sometimes strong tags around the text inside the <p> (as in this example), and sometimes a span tag, and sometimes it's going to be without further tags inside the <p>. I want to iterate through each textbox on my page, grab its title and also the text nested inside <p> tags in textareaedit. I'm giving the output via console for testing. This is my jQuery code, but I get no output for the second console.log() line: $('.textbox').each(function() { $this = $(this); console.log($this.attr('data-title')+ ":\n"); $this.children('textareadit').children('p').each(function(){ console.log($(this).html()); // not giving any output, it's blank }); }); I tried $(this).text() as well, but no difference. You may think this example has the sample text inside <strong> tags within the <p>, but I've also tried the same example without the strong, where the text was the direct child of <p>, but it didn't make a difference. How can I capture the text?

    Read the article

  • How can I share an entity framework model across website users

    - by richardmoss
    Hello, Currently my website is based around MVC and the Entity Framework running against a SQL Server 2005 database. So far, it has all been running very smoothly, and I really enjoy MVC and its slimmer more concise code (and no huge viewstates or soul destroying postbacks ;)) Recently I was working on upgrading the site to use a simple forum system, and this is where I started running into problems. When I was testing the site using two different browsers, if I created or replied to a post in one browser, the other browser couldn't see the post. At the moment, each visitor to the site gets their own copy of the entity model, which I store in their session data. Obviously this is the problem as updates to one model aren't getting carried to the other. As a test, I tried storing a single copy of the model which all visitors would access by assigning the model to a static variable. This worked, and both browsers could see each others modifications. However, it had its side effects. For example, if I fired up both browsers at the same time and the model was initialized, one browser would crash, and the other would work fine, despite me using a locking object so in theory one of them should have been delayed until the model was ready (of course I could have implemented this wrong ;)). Also, originally this site did use one model for all visitors and when it was live, it frequently shut down - killing the IIS application pool while it did. Now I'm not sure if this was related, but I don't really want to reintroduce whatever bug I had that caused this shut down. So, my question is a simple one really - what is the best way of either using the same model for all website users so they all see updates, or if they do have separate copies (which I imagine will have a performance impact in time) how can the models detect changes in the database and update themselves according. Thanks in advance for any advice! Regards; Richard Moss

    Read the article

  • MSSQL 2005 FOR XML

    - by Lima
    Hi, I am wanting to export data from a table to a specifically formated XML file. I am fairly new to XML files, so what I am after may be quite obvious but I just cant find what I am looking for on the net. The format of the XML results I need are: <data> <event start="May 28 2006 09:00:00 GMT" end="Jun 15 2006 09:00:00 GMT" isDuration="true" title="Writing Timeline documentation" image="http://simile.mit.edu/images/csail-logo.gif"> A few days to write some documentation </event> </data> My table structure is: name VARCHAR(50), description VARCHAR(255), startDate DATETIME, endDate DATETIME (I am not too interested in the XML fields image or isDuration at this point in time). I have tried: SELECT [name] ,[description] ,[startDate] ,[endTime] FROM [testing].[dbo].[time_timeline] FOR XML RAW('event'), ROOT('data'), type Which gives me: <data> <event name="Test1" description="Test 1 Description...." startDate="1900-01-01T00:00:00" endTime="1900-01-01T00:00:00" /> <event name="Test2" description="Test 2 Description...." startDate="1900-01-01T00:00:00" endTime="1900-01-01T00:00:00" /> </data> What I am missing, is the description needs to be outside of the event attributes, and there needs to be a tag. Is anyone able to point me in the correct direction, or point me to a tutorial or similar on how to accomplish this? Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Is Google Mock a good mocking framework ?

    - by des4maisons
    I am pioneering unit testing efforts at my company, and need need to choose a mocking framework to use. I have never used a mocking framework before. We have already chosen Google Test, so using Google Mock would be nice. However, my initial impressions after looking at Google Mock's tutorial are: The need for re-declaring each method in the mocking class with a MOCK_METHODn macro seems unnecessary and seems to go against the DRY principle. Their matchers (eg, the '_' in EXPECT_CALL(turtle, Forward(_));) and the order of matching seem almost too powerful. Like, it would be easy to say something you don't mean, and miss bugs that way. I have high confidence in google's developers, and low confidence in my own ability to judge mocking frameworks, never having used them before. So my question is: Are these valid concerns? Or is there no better way to define a mock object, and are the matchers intuitive to use in practice? I would appreciate answers from anyone who has used Google Mock before, and comparisons to other C++ frameworks would be helpful.

    Read the article

  • AS3 ExternalInterface works in IE but not Firefox

    - by user567602
    Hi all, I am trying to execute an AS3 function from my javascript using the ExternalInterface. Seems to work fine in IE, but firefox is always returning javascript error method undefined. I have been Googling this for ages and eliminated the following possibilities: 1) Some people say you need to have an embed tag inside your object tag, so added one - no luck. 2) Many people say that you need to make sure that your flash is loaded before calling the javascript. Well my call is after pressing a link on the page. I am always using the flash application first and only pressing the link at the end. 3) Then I thought that maybe it is a security problem so added the following: try { ExternalInterface.addCallback("test", testing); trace("added callback"); } catch (error:SecurityError) { trace("Security Error:"+error.message); } catch (error:Error) { trace("Error:"+error.message); } But it prints out "added callback" :( Anyone else have any ideas what else could I possible try? I am running the latest Firefox and FlashPlayer 10. Regards, Olli

    Read the article

  • How can I invoke a .Net DLL from a LabView 6.1 VI?

    - by tw1k
    I work in a manufacturing company that uses LabView for testing the devices we make. Most of the test engineers are using 7.1 which can natively reference a .Net assembly. However, there is a group that is stuck on LabView 6.1. I would like for them to be able to use my .Net assembly which is basically a proxy to some web services. I have created a test assembly that is nothing more than Hello World, and I'm trying to consume it in a VI. I made it COM visible, and registered it with regasm.exe and created a type library, which I'm not sure I need. I can see it in Visual Studio in the list of COM objects when I open the Add Reference window, so I know it's registered properly. I'm very unfamiliar with VI's. I'm only looking at it because no one I have spoken to in manufacturing knows anything about invoking a COM object in a VI. I'm basically looking for some names of controls or menu options to get the test engineers pointed in the right direction. I did a bunch of web searching on Google and the NI forums, but didn't find much. Alternatively, would it be easier to write a C or C++ DLL that acts as a proxy to my .Net DLL? Or is there a simple way to invoke a web service from a VI? That might obviate the need for a DLL altogether. I'm currently reading through this document from NI for help, but it obviously knows nothing about .Net and might not be able to help me choose the best path forward.

    Read the article

  • How to lazy process an xml documentwith hexpat?

    - by Florian
    In my search for a haskell library that can process large (300-1000mb) xml files i came across hexpat. There is an example in the Haskell Wiki that claims to -- Process document before handling error, so we get lazy processing. For testing purposes i have redirected the output to /dev/null and throw a 300mb file at it. Memory consumption kept rising until i had to kill the process. Now i removed the error handling from the process function: process :: String -> IO () process filename = do inputText <- L.readFile filename let (xml, mErr) = parse defaultParseOptions inputText :: (UNode String, Maybe XMLParseError) hFile <- openFile "/dev/null" WriteMode L.hPutStr hFile $ format xml hClose hFile return () As a result the function now uses constant memory. Why does the error handling result in massive memory consumption? As far as i understand xml and mErr are two seperate unevaluated thunks after the call to parse. Does format xml evaluate xml and build the evaluation tree of 'mErr'? If yes is there a way to handle the error while using constant memory? http://www.haskell.org/haskellwiki/Hexpat/

    Read the article

  • Supress output from Visual Studio output pane (C++)

    - by Ryan Ginstrom
    When I run my Win32 project in the Visual Studio debugger, I get this huge screed of output about which DLLs were loaded, first-chance exceptions, and so on. Is there a way that I can suppress this output? Some day, I might want to know when 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\ntdll.dll' was loaded, but normally I don't care. This is especially true when I'm running unit tests, and just want to be told whether any of the tests failed. This stuff isn't output with console applications, but it is with windows applications. To give an example of what I mean, here are the first lines from the output of a recent unit-test run. 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\dev\MyProject\Testing\MyProject.exe', Symbols loaded. 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\ntdll.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\kernel32.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\KernelBase.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\dbghelp.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\msvcrt.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\user32.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\gdi32.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\lpk.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\usp10.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\advapi32.dll' ... and on and on ...

    Read the article

  • Issues with simulating cell selection in Excel using PostMessage

    - by DD
    Hi all, So far I've tried drag/drop motion in many applications including Visualization software (moving time slider left/right), Photoshop-Paint (drawing) etc. I need some more testing before I make sure that my system works and it failed in Excel. I'm using the code below to send the input: m.x = 215; m.y = 200 + 36 + 9 * ( currentTime - 1 ); childH = findChild( w->getHandle(), m ); PostMessage( childH, WM_MOUSEMOVE, 0, MAKELPARAM( m.x, m.y ) ); PostMessage( childH, WM_LBUTTONDOWN, MK_LBUTTON, MAKELPARAM( m.x, m.y ) ); m.x = 215; m.y = 200 + 36 + 9 * ( currentTime ); childH = findChild( w->getHandle(), m ); PostMessage( childH, WM_MOUSEMOVE, MK_LBUTTON, MAKELPARAM( m.x, m.y ) ); PostMessage( childH, WM_LBUTTONUP, 0, MAKELPARAM( m.x, m.y ) ); I can click anywhere in Excel and select the cell, or activate buttons/menus anything. I can even drag a plot around (with the code above) but it doesn't work for clicking and dragging the mouse to select multiple cells. It just doesn't do anything. I can't use SendInput because the window doesn't have the focus and is in background. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

    - by KevinDeus
    I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

    Read the article

  • Static Variables somehow maintaining state?

    - by gfoley
    I am working on an existing project, setup by another coder. I'm having some trouble understanding how state is being maintained between pages. There is a Class library which has some helper objects. Mostly these objects are just used for there static methods and rarely instantiated or inherited. This is an example class I'm testing with. public sealed class Application { public static string Test; } Now when i run something like the following in the base class of my page, I would expect the result to be "1: 2:Test" all the time (note that "1" is empty), but strangly its only this way the first time it is run. Then every time afterwards its "1:Test 2:Test". Somehow its maintaining the state of the static variable between pages and being refreshed?? Response.Write("1:" + SharedLibrary.Application.Test); SharedLibrary.Application.Test = "Test"; Response.Write(" 2:" + SharedLibrary.Application.Test); I need to create more classes like this, but want to understand why this is occurring in the first place. Many Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to separate sets of numbers onto separate lines

    - by Fred
    About the script: The script below will create 300 sets of random characters. What is presently happening, is that it creates them but shows them all on one line, in one big chunk. With all the searching and testing I've done to try and achieve this, I have had no success. I would like to know which code and where to put it, so that each SET (300) of 15 characters long, will show and be saved to file. Here is my script: <?php function GetID($x){ $characters = array_merge(range('A','Z'),range('a','z'),range(2,9)); shuffle($characters); for($x=0;$x<=299;$x++){ } for (; strlen($ReqID)<$x;){ $ReqID .= $characters[mt_rand(0, count($characters))]; } return $ReqID; } $ReqID .= GetID(5); $ReqID .= "-"; $ReqID .= GetID(5); $ReqID .= "-"; $ReqID .= GetID(5); echo $ReqID; $fh = fopen("file.txt","a+"); fwrite($fh, ("$ReqID")."\n"); fclose($fh); ?>

    Read the article

  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349  | Next Page >