Search Results

Search found 10170 results on 407 pages for 'regression testing'.

Page 343/407 | < Previous Page | 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350  | Next Page >

• Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

  - by Piskvor

  I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

  Read the article

• Accessing a struct collection property from within another collection

  - by paddyb

  I have a struct that I need to store in a collection. The struct has a property that returns a Dictionary. public struct Item { private IDictionary<string, string> values; public IDictionary<string, string> Values { get { return this.values ?? (this.values = new Dictionary<string, string>()); } } } public class ItemCollection : Collection<Item> {} When testing I've found that if I add the item to the collection and then try to access the dictionary the structs values property is never updated. var collection = new ItemCollection { new Item() }; // pre-loaded with an item collection[0].Values.Add("myKey", "myValue"); Trace.WriteLine(collection[0].Values["myKey"]); // KeyNotFoundException here However if I load up the item first and then add it to a collection the values field is maintained. var collection = new ItemCollection(); var item = new Item(); item.Values.Add("myKey", "myValue"); collection.Add(item); Trace.WriteLine(collection[0].Values["myKey"]); // ok I've already decided that a struct is the wrong option for this type, and when using a class the issue doesn't occur, but I'm curious what's different between the two methods. Can anybody explain what's happening?

  Read the article

• Attaching methods to prototype from within constructor function

  - by Matthew Taylor

  Here is the textbook standard way of describing a 'class' or constructor function in JavaScript, straight from the Definitive Guide to JavaScript: function Rectangle(w,h) { this.width = w; this.height = h; } Rectangle.prototype.area = function() { return this.width * this.height; }; I don't like the dangling prototype manipulation here, so I was trying to think of a way to encapsulate the function definition for area inside the constructor. I came up with this, which I did not expect to work: function Rectangle(w,h) { this.width = w; this.height = h; this.constructor.prototype.area = function() { return this.width * this.height; }; } I didn't expect this to work because the this reference inside the area function should be pointing to the area function itself, so I wouldn't have access to width and height from this. But it turns out I do! var rect = new Rectangle(2,3); var area = rect.area(); // great scott! it is 6 Some further testing confirmed that the this reference inside the area function actually was a reference to the object under construction, not the area function itself. function Rectangle(w,h) { this.width = w; this.height = h; var me = this; this.constructor.prototype.whatever = function() { if (this === me) { alert ('this is not what you think');} }; } Turns out the alert pops up, and this is exactly the object under construction. So what is going on here? Why is this not the this I expect it to be?

  Read the article

• Wordpress inserting comments via wp_insert_comment()

  - by Cyber Junkie

  Hello all happy holidays! :) I'm trying to insert comments in my wordpress blog via the wp_insert_comment() function. It's for a plugin I'm trying to make. I have this code in my header for testing. It works every time I refresh the page. $agent = $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT']; $data = array( 'comment_post_ID' => 256, 'comment_author' => 'Dave', 'comment_author_email' => '[email protected]', 'comment_author_url' => 'http://www.someiste.com', 'comment_content' => 'Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet...', 'comment_author_IP' => '127.3.1.1', 'comment_agent' => $agent, 'comment_date' => date('Y-m-d H:i:s'), 'comment_date_gmt' => date('Y-m-d H:i:s'), 'comment_approved' => 1, ); $comment_id = wp_insert_comment($data); It successfully inserts comments into the database. The problem: Comments don't show via the Disqus comment system. I compared table rows and I noticed that user_agent differs. Normal comments use for example, Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv... and Disqus comments use Disqus/1.1(2.61):119598902 numbers are different for each comment. Does anyone know how to insert comments with wp_insert_comment() when Disqus is enabled?

  Read the article

• jquery callback functions failing to finish execution

  - by calumbrodie

  I'm testing a jquery app i've written and have come across some unexpected behaviour $('button.clickme').live('click',function(){ //do x (takes 2 seconds) //do y (takes 4 seconds) //do z (takes 0.5 seconds) }) The event can be triggered by a number of buttons. What I'm finding is that when I click each button slowly (allowing 10 seconds between clicks) - my callback function executes correctly (actions x, y & z complete). However If I rapidly click buttons on my page it appears that the function sometimes only completes up to step x or y before terminating. My question: Is it the case that if this function is fired by a clicking second DOM element, while the first callback function is completing - will jQuery terminate the first callback and start over again? Do I have to write my callback function explicitly outside the event handler and then call it?? function doStuff() { //do x //do y //do z ( } $('button.clickme).live('click',doStuff()) If this is the case can someone explain why this is happening or give me a link to some advice on best practice on closures etc - I'd like to know the BEST way to write jQuery to improve performance etc. Thanks

  Read the article

• Are there good reasons not to use an ORM?

  - by hangy

  During my apprenticeship, I have used NHibernate for some smaller projects which I mostly coded and designed on my own. Now, before starting some bigger project, the discussion arose how to design data access and whether or not to use an ORM layer. As I am still in my apprenticeship and still consider myself a beginner in enterprise programming, I did not really try to push in my opinion, which is that using an object relational mapper to the database can ease development quite a lot. The other coders in the development team are much more experienced than me, so I think I will just do what they say. :-) However, I do not completely understand two of the main reasons for not using NHibernate or a similar project: One can just build one’s own data access objects with SQL queries and copy those queries out of Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio. Debugging an ORM can be hard. So, of course I could just build my data access layer with a lot of SELECTs etc, but here I miss the advantage of automatic joins, lazy-loading proxy classes and a lower maintenance effort if a table gets a new column or a column gets renamed. (Updating numerous SELECT, INSERT and UPDATE queries vs. updating the mapping config and possibly refactoring the business classes and DTOs.) Also, using NHibernate you can run into unforeseen problems if you do not know the framework very well. That could be, for example, trusting the Table.hbm.xml where you set a string’s length to be automatically validated. However, I can also imagine similar bugs in a “simple” SqlConnection query based data access layer. Finally, are those arguments mentioned above really a good reason not to utilise an ORM for a non-trivial database based enterprise application? Are there probably other arguments they/I might have missed? (I should probably add that I think this is like the first “big” .NET/C# based application which will require teamwork. Good practices, which are seen as pretty normal on Stack Overflow, such as unit testing or continuous integration, are non-existing here up to now.)

  Read the article

• Zend Framework Form Element Validators - validate a field even if not required

  - by Jeremy Hicks

  Is there a way to get a validator to fire even if the form element isn't required? I have a form where I want to validate the contents of a texbox (make sure not empty) if the value of another form element, which is a couple of radio buttons, has a specific value selected. Right now I'm doing this by overriding the isValid() function of my form class and it works great. However, I'd like to move this to either its on validator or use the Callback validator. Here's what I have so far, but it never seems to get called unless I change the field to setRequired(true) which I don't want to do at all times, only if the value of the other form element is set to a specific value. // In my form class's init function $budget = new Zend_Form_Element_Radio('budget'); $budget->setLabel('Budget') ->setRequired(true) ->setMultiOptions($options); $budgetAmount = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('budget_amount'); $budgetAmount->setLabel('Budget Amount') ->setRequired(false) ->addFilter('StringTrim') ->addValidator(new App_Validate_BudgetAmount()); //Here is my custom validator (incomplete) but just testing to see if it even gets called. class App_Validate_BudgetAmount extends Zend_Validate_Abstract { const STRING_EMPTY = 'stringEmpty'; protected $_messageTemplates = array( self::STRING_EMPTY => 'please provide a budget amount' ); public function isValid($value) { echo 'validating...'; var_dump($value); return true; } }

  Read the article

• Parsing XHTML with inline tags

  - by user290796

  Hi, I'm trying to parse an XHTML document using TBXML on the iPhone (although I would be happy to use either libxml2 or NSXMLParser if it would be easier). I need to extract the content of the body as a series of paragraphs and maintain the inline tags, for example: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en"> <head> <title>Title</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/style.css" type="text/css"/> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="application/xhtml+xml; charset=utf-8"/> </head> <body> <div class="body"> <div> <h3>Title</h3> <p>Paragraph with <em>inline</em> tags</p> <img src="image.png" /> </div> </div> </body> </html> I need to extract the paragraph but maintain the <em>inline</em> content with the paragraph, all my testing so far has extracted that as a subelement without me knowing exactly where it fitted in the paragraph. Can anyone suggest a way to do this? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Rails 3, Devise and custom controller action

  - by Johnny Klassy

  routes.rb match 'agencies/stub' => 'agencies#stub', :via => :get resources :agencies Here's the rake routes dump agencies_stub GET /agencies/stub(.:format) {:controller=>"agencies", :action=>"stub"} agencies GET /agencies(.:format) {:action=>"index", :controller=>"agencies"} POST /agencies(.:format) {:action=>"create", :controller=>"agencies"} new_agency GET /agencies/new(.:format) {:action=>"new", :controller=>"agencies"} edit_agency GET /agencies/:id/edit(.:format) {:action=>"edit", :controller=>"agencies"} agency GET /agencies/:id(.:format) {:action=>"show", :controller=>"agencies"} PUT /agencies/:id(.:format) {:action=>"update", :controller=>"agencies"} DELETE /agencies/:id(.:format) {:action=>"destroy", :controller=>"agencies"} Devise is setup to have all agenciesroutes only accessible as admin. The call I'm testing with is http://xyz:12345@localhost:3000/agencies/stub but it doesn't authenticate properly, ie, it doesn't recognize it as admin and throws me back to the Devise login page. The creds are a valid admin account. I'm baffled and have no idea why this is happening. Any insights will be much appreciated.

  Read the article

• Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

  - by Issy

  Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

  Read the article

• PHP.ini Settings Are Ignored By PHP5.3.5 Running With Windows 7 And Apache 2.2.15

  - by Andy

  I did an install of PHP5.3.5 on Windows 7 Home Premium using the MSI installer download. I got it to overwrite a previous version of PHP5 in C:\php5\ When first testing it, the server failed to start. I fixed this by adding the path to PHP in the Apache2.2 httpd file where the installer had inserted 2 lines of coded pointing to the ini file directory and the PHP DLL but had left out the directory path. After doing this, the server starts ok and I can run phpinfo to view the PHP settings in my web browser on local host. In the phpinfo it states that the loaded configuration file is C:\php5\php.ini as expected. But if I make any changes to the settings, and reboot the server, none of the changes are reflected in phpinfo. Yes, I do refresh the browser window. If I rename the php.ini to something else to make it invisible phpinfo then correctly identifies that there is no php.ini file loaded. So the settings in php.ini are being ignored and some default settings are being used (but I have no idea where these are derived from). As far as I can tell, there are no other php.ini files on my computer. In phpinfo it states that the Configuration File (php.ini) Path is C:\Windows but this is the same as on a Windows XP computer that I work on. And in the windows folder I don't see any php.ini file. In the windows registry, there is no mention of PHP5, and the PATH environment variable starts with C:\php5\; So hopefully someone can suggest how I can get PHP5 to take notice of the C:\php5\php.ini settings. :)

  Read the article

• Unusual heap size limitations in VS2003 C++

  - by Shane MacLaughlin

  I have a C++ app that uses large arrays of data, and have noticed while testing that it is running out of memory, while there is still plenty of memory available. I have reduced the code to a sample test case as follows; void MemTest() { size_t Size = 500*1024*1024; // 512mb if (Size > _HEAP_MAXREQ) TRACE("Invalid Size"); void * mem = malloc(Size); if (mem == NULL) TRACE("allocation failed"); } If I create a new MFC project, include this function, and run it from InitInstance, it works fine in debug mode (memory allocated as expected), yet fails in release mode (malloc returns NULL). Single stepping through release into the C run times, my function gets inlined I get the following // malloc.c void * __cdecl _malloc_base (size_t size) { void *res = _nh_malloc_base(size, _newmode); RTCCALLBACK(_RTC_Allocate_hook, (res, size, 0)); return res; } Calling _nh_malloc_base void * __cdecl _nh_malloc_base (size_t size, int nhFlag) { void * pvReturn; // validate size if (size > _HEAP_MAXREQ) return NULL; ' ' And (size _HEAP_MAXREQ) returns true and hence my memory doesn't get allocated. Putting a watch on size comes back with the exptected 512MB, which suggests the program is linking into a different run-time library with a much smaller _HEAP_MAXREQ. Grepping the VC++ folders for _HEAP_MAXREQ shows the expected 0xFFFFFFE0, so I can't figure out what is happening here. Anyone know of any CRT changes or versions that would cause this problem, or am I missing something way more obvious?

  Read the article

• Copy constructor called even when returning by reference?

  - by Johnyy

  Hi, I am testing the return of local objects by reference. My original test went well but something else happens unexpected. #include <iostream> using namespace std; class MyInt { public: MyInt(int i){ value = new int(i); } ~MyInt(){ delete value; } int getValue(){ return *value; } MyInt(const MyInt &b){ cout<<"Copy"<<endl; } private: int* value; }; MyInt& returnref(){ MyInt a(10); cout<<"Returning from returnref()"<<endl; return a; } int main(){ MyInt a = returnref(); cout<<a.getValue()<<endl; return 0; } My console prints "Returning from ..." then "Copy" then a random value. My understanding of pass by reference is that it does not need to make any copy. Why is it not doing what I expected?

  Read the article

• testng multiple suites

  - by Eli

  Hi people. my problem is as follows: i am testing a web-ui using selenium and testng. i have a test suite with many test classes in it. i have a method with the @BeforeSuite witch also has a @Parameters annotation, this method recieves as a parameter the browser in witch the selenium will test by run,executing the lines: selenium = new DefaultSelenium("localhost", 4444, **browser**, "http://localhost:8099"); selenium.start(); the xml im using to run the test suite is: <suite name="suite"> <parameter name = "browser" value = "*firefox"/> <test name="allTests"> <classes> <class name="test.webui.MemcachedDeploymentTest" /> </classes> </test> </suite> this works fine and the test runs in firefox. my problem is that i would like to somehow run this suite again, immediatly after the first run finishes, but this time with chrome as the browser. i now have 2 xml suites, one with chrome and one with firefox, is there any way to run these test suites one after the other automatically? maybe using a third xml? Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• How can I spec out an authlogic sessions controller using using a stub?

  - by Dave

  I want to test my User Session Controller testing that a user session is first built then saved. My UserSession class looks like this: class UserSession < Authlogic::Session::Base end The create method of my UserSessionsController looks like this: def create @user_session = UserSession.new(params[:user_session]) if @user_session.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully logged in." redirect_back_or_default administer_home_page_url else render :new end end and my controller spec looks like this: describe UserSessionsController do it "should build a new user session" do UserSession.stub!(:new).with(:email, :password) UserSession.should_receive(:new).with(:email => "[email protected]", :password => "foobar") post :create, :user_session => { :email => "[email protected]", :password => "foobar" } end end I stub out the new method but I still get the following error when I run the test: Spec::Mocks::MockExpectationError in 'UserSessionsController should build a new user session' <UserSession (class)> received :new with unexpected arguments expected: ({:password=>"foobar", :email=>"[email protected]"}) got: ({:priority_record=>nil}, nil) It's although the new method is being called on UserSession before my controller code is getting called. Calling activate_authlogic makes no difference.

  Read the article

• Negative number representation across multiple architechture

  - by Donotalo

  I'm working with OKI 431 micro controller. It can communicate with PC with appropriate software installed. An EEPROM is connected in the I2C bus of the micro which works as permanent memory. The PC software can read from and write to this EEPROM. Consider two numbers, B and C, each is two byte integer. B is known to both the PC software and the micro and is a constant. C will be a number so close to B such that B-C will fit in a signed 8 bit integer. After some testing, appropriate value for C will be determined by PC and will be stored into the EEPROM of the micro for later use. Now the micro can store C in two ways: The micro can store whole two byte representing C The micro can store B-C as one byte signed integer, and can later derive C from B and B-C I think that two's complement representation of negative number is now universally accepted by hardware manufacturers. Still I personally don't like negative numbers to be stored in a storage medium which will be accessed by two different architectures because negative number can be represented in different ways. For you information, 431 also uses two's complement. Should I get rid of the headache that negative number can be represented in different ways and accept the one byte solution as my other team member suggested? Or should I stick to the decision of the two byte solution because I don't need to deal with negative numbers? Which one would you prefer and why?

  Read the article

• final transient fields and serialization

  - by doublep

  Is it possible to have final transient fields that are set to any non-default value after serialization in Java? My usecase is a cache variable — that's why it is transient. I also have a habit of making Map fields that won't be changed (i.e. contents of the map is changed, but object itself remains the same) final. However, these attributes seem to be contradictory — while compiler allows such a combination, I cannot have the field set to anything but null after unserialization. I tried the following, without success: simple field initialization (shown in the example): this is what I normally do, but the initialization doesn't seem to happen after unserialization; initialization in constructor (I believe this is semantically the same as above though); assigning the field in readObject() — cannot be done since the field is final. In the example cache is public only for testing. import java.io.*; import java.util.*; public class test { public static void main (String[] args) throws Exception { X x = new X (); System.out.println (x + " " + x.cache); ByteArrayOutputStream buffer = new ByteArrayOutputStream (); new ObjectOutputStream (buffer).writeObject (x); x = (X) new ObjectInputStream (new ByteArrayInputStream (buffer.toByteArray ())).readObject (); System.out.println (x + " " + x.cache); } public static class X implements Serializable { public final transient Map <Object, Object> cache = new HashMap <Object, Object> (); } } Output: test$X@1a46e30 {} test$X@190d11 null

  Read the article

• my dialog box did not show up whene i compile it using sdk 7.1,

  - by zirek

  hello and welcom everyone .. i'd like to build a win32 application using sdk 7.1, i create the dialog box using visual c++ 2012 resource editor, i copy resource.rc and resource.h to my folder and i write this simple main.cpp file: #include <windowsx.h> #include <Windows.h> #include <tchar.h> #include "resource.h" #define my_PROCESS_MESSAGE(hWnd, message, fn) \ case(message): \ return( \ SetDlgMsgResult(hWnd, uMsg, \ HANDLE_##message((hWnd), (wParam), (lParam), (fn)) )) \ LRESULT CALLBACK DlgProc(HWND, UINT, WPARAM, LPARAM); BOOL Cls_OnInitDialog(HWND hwnd, HWND hwndFocus, LPARAM lParam); void Cls_OnCommand(HWND hwnd, int id, HWND hwndCtl, UINT codeNotify); int WINAPI _tWinMain( HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE, LPTSTR, int iCmdLine ) { DialogBoxParam( hInstance, MAKEINTRESOURCE(IDD_INJECTOR), NULL, (DLGPROC) DlgProc, NULL ); return FALSE; } LRESULT CALLBACK DlgProc( HWND hwnd, UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam ) { switch (uMsg) { my_PROCESS_MESSAGE(hwnd, WM_INITDIALOG, Cls_OnInitDialog); my_PROCESS_MESSAGE(hwnd, WM_COMMAND, Cls_OnCommand); default: break; } return DefWindowProc(hwnd, uMsg, wParam, lParam); } BOOL Cls_OnInitDialog(HWND hwnd, HWND hwndFocus, LPARAM lParam) { return TRUE; } void Cls_OnCommand(HWND hwnd, int id, HWND hwndCtl, UINT codeNotify) { switch(id) { case IDCANCEL: EndDialog(hwnd, id); break; default: break; } } then i use the following command line to compile my code, wich i found on this forum cl main.cpp /link /SUBSYSTEM:WINDOWS user32.lib my problem is that my dialog box did not show up, and when i use procexp, to see what happen, i found that that my application is created then closed in the same time, and what make me wondering is that its working fine on visual c++ 2012. my sdk 7.1, installed correctly, i testing it against a basic window without any resource file any ideas, ill be really thankful Best, Zirek

  Read the article

• Maven + SSDM Build and Runtime Environment Automation

  - by Randy

  Preface: My Company, like most, has several run-time environments and several release versions which themselves are composed of different versions of various jars. For example, let us consider release versions 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3 of Software X, which may be deployed to a developer computer, testing, or production. Software-x-1.1 is itself composed of jarA-0.9.1 and jarB-0.7.5, but software-x-1.3 is composed of jarA-1.7.31 and jarB-0.8.1. Currently we use Spring's PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer to configure run-time variables (such as database credentials), however, properties also change with release versions. We also use Maven 2 POM version 4 to specify which versions of our code need to be used. We place the version numbers of our jars as properties within profiles (dev,test,prod) inside of the parent pom and then reference those version numbers in all project poms. As of right now, we have no way to specify which project versions pertain to a given release other than the most current one. Moreover, we deploy our run-time configurations to the SSDM pickup which then configures and creates the services defined by the built versions of our software. -- Questions: Is there any procedure/tool we can use to build our product by merely providing the run-time environment and version number? IE "build 1.1 dev"? Is there anyway we can store the required jar versions for each release build? We are currently versioning all files, including the parent pom, but merely versioning the parent pom does not record which release version is pertinent to that parent pom. What else can we do to further automate the process of builds? For example, if we could manage run-time configurations within the parent pom that would be a step in the right direction, but that seems like a violation of scope. Any tool outside of our framework is inconceivable at this point, but not in the far future. Summary: How can we automate our build process to the fullest extent without being error prone?

  Read the article

• Possible to Dynamic Form Generation Using PHP global variables

  - by J M 4

  I am currently a fairly new programmer but am trying to build a registration page for a medical insurance idea we have which captures individual information and subsequent pieces of information about that individual's sub parts. In this case, it is a fight promoter enrolling his 15+ boxers for fight testing services. Right now, I have the site fully laid out to accept 7 fighters worth of information. This is collected during the manager's enrollment. However, each fighter's information is passed and stored in session super globals such as: $_SESSION['F1Firstname']; and $_SESSION['F3SSN3'];. The issue I am running into is this, I want to create a drop down menu selector for the manager to add information for up to 20-30 fighters. Right now I use PHP to state: if ($_SESSION['Num_Fighters'] 6) ... then display the table form fields to collect consumer data. If I have to build hidden elements for 30 fighters AND provide javascript/php validation (yes I am doing both) then I fear the file size for the document will be unnecessarily large for the maanger who only wants to enroll 2 fighters. Can anybody help?

  Read the article

• What algorithm can I use to determine points within a semi-circle?

  - by khayman218

  I have a list of two-dimensional points and I want to obtain which of them fall within a semi-circle. Originally, the target shape was a rectangle aligned with the x and y axis. So the current algorithm sorts the pairs by their X coord and binary searches to the first one that could fall within the rectangle. Then it iterates over each point sequentially. It stops when it hits one that is beyond both the X and Y upper-bound of the target rectangle. This does not work for a semi-circle as you cannot determine an effective upper/lower x and y bounds for it. The semi-circle can have any orientation. Worst case, I will find the least value of a dimension (say x) in the semi-circle, binary search to the first point which is beyond it and then sequentially test the points until I get beyond the upper bound of that dimension. Basically testing an entire band's worth of points on the grid. The problem being this will end up checking many points which are not within the bounds.

  Read the article

• "requiresuniqueemail=true" implementation in asp.net site

  - by domineer

  Hi people I got a social networking site that is running live right now.The first time I launched my site I let requiresuniqueemail=false set-up on my web.config inorder for me to create dummy accounts for testing purposes and to start up the site you know.However the site is kind of stable right now w/ almost 5k members.So I would like to set-up the requiresuniqueemail to true so that users cannot reuse their existing email address and for me to make it sure that there will be unique email ad for each site user.I know the site got like 100 users with the same email address.My question is what could be the problem I'm going to face if I do this right now(requiresuniqueemail="true") and how to do this efficiently(without errors and if possible sitewide say in the global assax)?I tested and I already got an error if I logout an account.Like say a user try to click log-out this code runs: Dim d As DateTime = DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(-1 * Membership.UserIsOnlineTimeWindow) Dim theuser As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser() theuser.LastActivityDate = d Membership.UpdateUser(theuser) If Not Cache(Page.User.Identity.Name.ToLower() + "currentstatus") Is Nothing Then Cache.Remove(Page.User.Identity.Name.ToLower() + "currentstatus") End If Then an exception occured on updateuser() function saying System.Configuration.Provider.ProviderException: The E-mail supplied is invalid. This is just one instance I know that I encountered a problem. Hoping to hear your ideas guys.....

  Read the article

• Windows Forms application C# | Sending Tweet

  - by Andrew Craswell

  I've been able to get my Twitter web app working just fine, but I've recently decided to add Tweeting functionality from a Windows Form, but I'm having no luck sending tweets. No errors are thrown or anything. Mind looking over my code? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using TweetSharp; namespace TwitterAdvirtiser { public partial class Form1 : Form { private string cKey = "xxx"; private string cSecret = "xxx"; private string oToken = "xxx"; private string aToken = "xxx"; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); OnStart(); } private void OnStart() { //Authenticate with Twitter TwitterService service = new TwitterService(cKey, cSecret); service.AuthenticateWith(oToken, aToken); service.SendTweet("testing"); } } } It seems like I'm authenticating just fine, I can walk through debug mode and see all my details in the TwitterUser structure, and yet my tweets never show up on my feed. Whats up? By the way, I'm using Visual Studios 2010, and .NET 4.0. I have verified that the oToken and aToken strings have my developer tokens.

  Read the article

• Database schema for Product Properties

  - by Chemosh

  As so many people I'm looking for a Products /Product Properties database schema. I'm using Ruby on Rails and (Thinking) Sphinx for faceted searches. Requirements: Adding new product types and their options should not require a change to the database schema Support faceted searches using Sphinx. Solutions I've come across: (See Bill Karwin's answer) Option 1: Single Table Inheritance Not an option really. The table would contain way to many columns. Option 2: Class Table Inheritance Ruby on Rails caches the database schema on start-up which means a restart whenever a new type of product is introduced. If you have a size able product catalog this could mean hundreds of tables. Option 3: Serialized LOB Kills being able to do faceted searches without heavy application logic. Option 4: Entity-Attribute-Value For testing purposes, EAV worked fine. However it could quickly become a mess and a maintenance hell as you add more and more options (e.g. when an option increase the prices or delivery time). What option should I go with? What other solutions are out there? Is there a silver bullet (ha) I overlooked?

  Read the article

• How to decide between using PLINQ and LINQ at runtime?

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  Or decide between a parallel and a sequential operation in general. It is hard to know without testing whether parallel or sequential implementation is best due to overhead. Obviously it will take some time to train "the decider" which method to use. I would say that this method cannot be perfect, so it is probabilistic in nature. The x,y,z do influence "the decider". I think a very naive implementation would be to give both 1/2 chance at the beginning and then start favoring them according to past performance. This disregards x,y,z, however. I suspect that this question would be better answered by academics than practitioners. Anyhow, please share your heuristic, your experience if any, your tips on this. Sample code: public interface IComputer { decimal Compute(decimal x, decimal y, decimal z); } public class SequentialComputer : IComputer { public decimal Compute( ... // sequential implementation } public class ParallelComputer : IComputer { public decimal Compute( ... // parallel implementation } public class HybridComputer : IComputer { private SequentialComputer sc; private ParallelComputer pc; private TheDecider td; // Helps to decide between the two. public HybridComputer() { sc = new SequentialComputer(); pc = new ParallelComputer(); td = TheDecider(); } public decimal Compute(decimal x, decimal y, decimal z) { decimal result; decimal time; if (td.PickOneOfTwo() == 0) { // Time this and save result into time. result = sc.Compute(...); } else { // Time this and save result into time. result = pc.Compute(); } td.Train(time); return result; } }

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350  | Next Page >