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• How can I make an even more random number in ActionScript 2.0

  - by Theo

  I write a piece of software that runs inside banner ads which generates millions of session IDs every day. For a long time I've known that the random number generator in Flash is't random enough to generate sufficiently unique IDs, so I've employed a number of tricks to get even more random numbers. However, in ActionScript 2.0 it's not easy, and I'm seeing more and more collisions, so I wonder if there is something I've overlooked. As far as I can tell the problem with Math.random() is that it's seeded by the system time, and when you have sufficient numbers of simultaneous attempts you're bound to see collisions. In ActionScript 3.0 I use the System.totalMemory, but there's no equivalent in ActionScript 2.0. AS3 also has Font.enumerateFonts, and a few other things that are different from system to system. On the server side I also add the IP address to the session ID, but even that isn't enough (for example, many large companies use a single proxy server and that means that thousands of people all have the same IP -- and since they tend to look at the same sites, with the same ads, roughly at the same time, there are many session ID collisions). What I need isn't something perfectly random, just something that is random enough to dilute the randomness I get from Math.random(). Think of it this way: there is a certain chance that two people will generate the same random number sequence using only Math.random(), but the chance of two people generating the same sequence and having, say, the exact same list of fonts is significantly lower. I cannot rely on having sufficient script access to use ExternalInterface to get hold of things like the user agent, or the URL of the page. I don't need suggestions of how to do it in AS3, or any other system, only AS2 -- using only what's available in the standard APIs. The best I've come up with so far is to use the list of microphones (Microphone.names), but I've also tried to make some fingerprinting using some of the properties in System.capabilities, I'm not sure how much randomness I can get out of that though so I'm not using that at the moment. I hope I've overlooked something.

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• Can't block capslock with CGEventTap

  - by Thor Frølich

  I'm using Quartz CGEventTap in an attempt to globally intercept capslock presses and block them (to have them do something useful instead). I succesfully detect capslock presses but have so far been unable to block them. My code (originating from this stackoverflow answer) is something like this: eventTap = CGEventTapCreate(kCGHIDEventTap, kCGTailAppendEventTap, kCGEventTapOptionDefault, eventMask, myCGEventCallback, &oldFlags); runLoopSource = CFMachPortCreateRunLoopSource(kCFAllocatorDefault, eventTap, 0); CFRunLoopAddSource(CFRunLoopGetCurrent(), runLoopSource, kCFRunLoopCommonModes); CGEventTapEnable(eventTap, true); CGEventRef myCGEventCallback(CGEventTapProxy proxy, CGEventType type, CGEventRef theEvent, void *refcon) { CGEventFlags *oldFlags = (CGEventFlags *)refcon; switch (type) { case kCGEventFlagsChanged: { CGEventFlags newFlags = CGEventGetFlags(theEvent); CGEventFlags changedFlags = *oldFlags ^ newFlags; *oldFlags = newFlags; if (changedFlags == 65536) { NSLog(@"Capslock pressed. Let's not return the event"); return NULL; } break; } default: break; } NSLog(@"Different modifier than capslock. Returning the event"); return theEvent; } If I understand correctly returning NULL should effectively block the keypress from propagating. Indeed it also does for "normal" keyup and -down events. However capslock toggles regardless. Any ideas why that is? Am I making incorrect assumptions? And/or how can I do things differently to achieve my goal? Thanks, Thor

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• How to suppress/control logging of Wagon-FTP Maven extension?

  - by Vincenzo

  I'm deploying Maven site by FTP, using Wagon-FTP. Works fine, but output is full of FTP connection/authentication details, which effectively expose logins and passwords to everybody (especially if the project is open source and its CI protocols are publicly accessible): [...] [INFO] [INFO] --- maven-site-plugin:3.0-beta-3:deploy (default-deploy) @ rempl --- Reply received: 220---------- Welcome to Pure-FTPd [privsep] [TLS] ---------- 220-You are user number 1 of 50 allowed. 220-Local time is now 09:08. Server port: 21. 220 You will be disconnected after 15 minutes of inactivity. Command sent: USER **** Reply received: 331 User **** OK. Password required Command sent: PASS ******** Reply received: 230-User **** has group access to: *** 230 OK. Current restricted directory is / [...] Is it possible to suppress this logging? Or configure it... This is a section of my pom.xml, where Wagon-FTP is used: [...] <build> <extensions> <extension> <groupId>org.apache.maven.wagon</groupId> <artifactId>wagon-ftp</artifactId> <version>1.0-beta-7</version> </extension> </extensions> [...] </build> [...]

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• A way to specify a different host in an SSH tunnel from the host in use

  - by Tom

  I am trying to setup an SSH tunnel to access Beanstalk (to bypass an annoying proxy server). I can get this to work, but with one caveat: I have to map my Beanstalk host URL (username.svn.beanstalkapp.com) in my hosts file to 127.0.0.1 (and use the ip in place of the domain when setting up the tunnel). The reason (I think) is that I am creating the tunnel using the local SSH instance (on Snow Leopard) and if I use localhost or 127.0.0.1 when talking to Beanstalk, it rejects the authorisation credentials. I believe this is because Beanstalk use the hostname specified in a request to determine which account the username / password combination should be checked against. If localhost is used, I think this information is missing (in some manner which Beanstalk requires) from the requests. At the moment I dig the IP for username.svn.beanstalkapp.com, map username.svn.beanstalkapp.com to 127.0.0.1 in my hosts file, then for the tunnel I use the command: ssh -L 8080:ip:443 -p 22 -l tom -N 127.0.0.1 I can tell Subversion that the repo. is located at: https://username.svn.beanstalkapp.com:8080/repo-name This uses my tunnel and the username and password are accepted. So, my question is if there is an option when setting up the SSH tunnel which would mean I wouldn't have to use my hosts file workaround?

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• Creating an API for an ASP.NET MVC site with rate-limiting and caching

  - by Maxim Z.

  Recently, I've been very interested in APIs, specifically in how to create them. For the purpose of this question, let's say that I have created an ASP.NET MVC site that has some data on it; I want to create an API for this site. I have multiple questions about this: What type of API should I create? I know that REST and oData APIs are very popular. What are the pros and cons of each, and how do I implement them? From what I understand so far, REST APIs with ASP.NET MVC would just be actions that return JSON instead of Views, and oData APIs are documented here. How do I handle writing? Reading from both API types is quite simple. However, writing is more complex. With the REST approach, I understand that I can use HTTP POST, but how do I implement authentication? Also, with oData, how does writing work in the first place? How do I implement basic rate-limiting and caching? From my past experience with APIs, these are very important things, so that the API server isn't overloaded. What's the best way to set these two things up? Can I get some sample code? Any code that relates to C# and ASP.NET MVC would be appreciated. Thanks in advance! While this is a broad question, I think it's not too broad... :) There are some similar questions to this one that are about APIs, but I haven't found any that directly address the questions I outlined here.

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• Strange Problem with Webservice and IIS

  - by Rene

  Hello there, I have a Problem which confuses me a little bit, resp. where I don't have any Idea about what it could be. The System I'm using is Windows Vista, IIS 7.0, VS2008, Windows Software Factory, Entity Framework, WCF. The Binding for all Webservices is wshttpbinding. I'm using a Webservice hosted in IIS. This Webservice uses/calls another Webservice (also installed in the IIS). If I use a client calling the first Webservice (which calls the second Webservice) it works fine for about 4-10 Times. And then (it is repeatable to get this Problem, but sometimes it happens after 4, sometimes after 10 Time, but it always will happen), the Service and the IIS gets stuck. Stuck means, that this Webservice isn't callable anymore and generates an timeout after 1 minute. Even increasing Timeout doesn't change anything. If i try to restart the IIS I get an timeout error. So the IIS is also "stuck" (it is not really stuck, but I can't restart it). Only if I kill the w3wp.exe IIS is restartable and the Webservice will work again (until i again call this service several times). The logfiles (i'm no expert in things like logging or where to find/enable such logs, so to say : i'm a newbie) like http-logging, Event Viewer or WCF-Message Logging don't show any hints upon the source of the problem. I don't have this problem when I'm using a Webservice which doesn't call another Service. Calling a Webservice is done by Service Reference (I'm using no Proxy-Classes), but I think this should be no Problem. I have no idea of what is happening, nor how to solve this Problem. Regards Rene

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• PHP: Post ASPX form that uses 'WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions' with cUrl

  - by Oliver Cooper

  I am trying to post an ASPX form which uses SharePoint with PHP. Posting data works with standard forms, I just can't seem to get this form working. I did notice an onclick attribute on the submit button: onclick="javascript:WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions("ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$btnSaveTask", "", true, "", "", false, false))" I have never used ASPX and have no idea what this is. It is not an authentication problem or something wrong with the url as it returns the webpage (which contains the form) fine. Here is my PHP code: function add($username, $password){ $data = array( 'ctl00$PlaceHolderSearchArea$ctl01$ctl00' => 'https://keystone.stpeters.sa.edu.au', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderSearchArea$ctl01$ctl04' => '0', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$DateStart$DateStartDate' => '9/05/2012', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$DateDue$DateDueDate' => '10/05/2012', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$Title' => 'test again', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$btnSaveTask' => 'OK', '__spText1' => '', '__spText2' => '' ); $curl_handle = curl_init(); $fullurl = "https://keystone.stpeters.sa.edu.au/_layouts/StPeters.Keystone/MyTasks/MyTaskDetail.aspx?id=0&IsDlg=1"; // $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $data); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FAILONERROR, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPAUTH, CURLAUTH_ANY); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERPWD, "$username:$password"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $fullurl); $returned = curl_exec($ch); curl_close ($ch); return $returned; }

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• backbone.js Model.get() returns undefined, scope using coffeescript + coffee toaster?

  - by benipsen

  I'm writing an app using coffeescript with coffee toaster (an awesome NPM module for stitching) that builds my app.js file. Lots of my application classes and templates require info about the current user so I have an instance of class User (extends Backbone.Model) stored as a property of my main Application class (extends Backbone.Router). As part of the initialization routine I grab the user from the server (which takes care of authentication, roles, account switching etc.). Here's that coffeescript: @user = new models.User @user.fetch() console.log(@user) console.log(@user.get('email')) The first logging statement outputs the correct Backbone.Model attributes object in the console just as it should: User _changing: false _escapedAttributes: Object _pending: Object _previousAttributes: Object _silent: Object attributes: Object account: Object created_on: "1983-12-13 00:00:00" email: "[email protected]" icon: "0" id: "1" last_login: "2012-06-07 02:31:38" name: "Ben Ipsen" roles: Object __proto__: Object changed: Object cid: "c0" id: "1" __proto__: ctor app.js:228 However, the second returns undefined despite the model attributes clearly being there in the console when logged. And just to make things even more interesting, typing "window.app.user.get('email')" into the console manually returns the expected value of "[email protected]"... ? Just for reference, here's how the initialize method compiles into my app.js file: Application.prototype.initialize = function() { var isMobile; isMobile = navigator.userAgent.match(/(iPhone|iPod|iPad|Android|BlackBerry)/); this.helpers = new views.DOMHelpers().initialize().setup_viewport(isMobile); this.user = new models.User(); this.user.fetch(); console.log(this.user); console.log(this.user.get('email')); return this; }; I initialize the Application controller in my static HTML like so: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ window.app = new controllers.Application(); }); Suggestions please and thank you!

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• Routing trouble for RESTful API - Rails

  - by aressidi

  I'm building out an API for web app that I've been working on for some time. I've started with the User model. The user portion of the API will allow remote clients to a) retrieve user data, b) update user information and c) create new users. I've gotten all of this to work, but it doesn't seem like its setup correctly. Here are my questions: Should the API endpoint be users or user? What's the best practice? I have to add the action to the end, which I would expect to be picked up instead by the request type so I don't have to specify it explicitly. How do I get my routes setup properly as not to have to include the method for protected actions? Let me give some examples: Get request for show - want it to work without the "show" curl -u rmbruno:blah http://app.local/api/users/show Put request for update - want it to work without the "update" curl -X put -F 'user[forum_notifications]=true' -u rmbruno:blah http://app.local/api/users/update Create - works with or without 'create' which is what I want for all these actions curl -X post -F 'user[login]=mamafatta' -F 'user[email][email protected]' -F 'user[password]=12345678' http://twye.local/api/users/ How do I structure routes to not require the action name? Isn't that the common way to to RESTful APIs? Here is my route for the API now: map.namespace :api do |route| route.resources :users route.resources :weight end I'm using restful authentication which is handling the http auth in curl. Any guidance on the routes issues and best practice on singular versus plural would be really helpful. Thanks! -A

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• firefox reading web page from local JS file -- access to restricted URI denied, code: 1012, nsresult

  - by macias

  My problem is -- I have a html file which is really JS program, which reads web pages and show them in customized manner (i.e. it displays the same content in a different way). Basically, I create XMLHttpRequest object and then req.open("GET", web_page_address, false); req.send(""); This gives me (in firefox) an error: Error: uncaught exception: [Exception... "Access to restricted URI denied" code: "1012" nsresult: "0x805303f4 (NS_ERROR_DOM_BAD_URI)" I already googled, and looked at SO but all other issues are very similar with those two exceptions: the file I open in firefox is a local file, opened directly in browser -- I don't have www server running at localhost I don't have any control over the web pages I am reading stuff from So, several solutions I've seen so far (like adding PHP proxy, changing the way external server sends data) cannot be applied here. What else can be done in such case? Another story is I am wondering if such strict security for directly local file has any sense. Thank you in advance for tips/links/etc. Have a nice day!

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• cookie name is truncated in Servlet 3.0 HttpServletRequest (Glassfish V3)

  - by idplmal

  I'm porting our Web authentication/authorization middleware for use in containers implementing the new servlet 3.0 API (Glassfish V3 in this case). The middleware pulls cookies from the HttpServletRequest filtering on cookies with names of the form "DACS:FEDERATION::JURISDICTION:username". This works fine in the version 2.5 servlet API but is broken in 3.0. The cookie names in 3.0 are being truncated at the first ":" in the name. I understand that the servlet 3.0 implementation defaults to RFC 2109 cookies which are more restrictive about cookie names than the old Netscape spec (":" is among the characters not allowed in RFC 2109 cookie names). Digging into the servlet 3.0 source code, it appears that the use of RFC2109 names can be disabled by setting a System property "org.glassfish.web.rfc2109.cookie_names_enforced" to false. I've tried this to no avail. But besides that, the code that uses checks cookie names is in the constructor for Cookie, and it would appear that the truncation is occurring elsewhere. So - finally - the question. Have others bumped into such issues in the servlet 3.0 API and have you found a work around?

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• Registry remotley hacked win 7 need help tracking the perp

  - by user577229

  I was writing some .VBS code at thhe office that would allow certain file extensions to be downloaded without a warning dialog on a w7x32 system. The system I was writing this on is in a lab on a segmented subnet. All web access is via a proxy server. The only means of accessing my machine is via the internet or from within the labs MSFT AD domain. While writing and testing my code I found a message of sorts. Upon refresing the registry to verify my code changed a dword, instead the message HELLO was written and visible in regedit where the dword value wass called for. I took a screen shot and proceeded to edit my code. This same weird behavior occurred last time I was writing registry code except on another internal server. I understand that remote registry access exists for windows systems. I will block this immediately once I return to the office. What I want to know is, can I trace who made this connection? How would I do this? I suspect the cause of this is the cause of other "odd" behaviors I'm experiencing at work such as losing control of my input director master control for over an hour and unchanged code that all of a sudden fails for no logical region. These failures occur at funny times, whenver I'm about to give a demonstration of my test code. I know this sounds crazy however knowledge of the registry component makes this believable. Once the registry can be accessed, the entire system is compromised. Any help or sanity checking is appreciated.

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• How to intercept, parse and compile?

  - by epitka

  This is a problem I've been struggling to solve for a while. I need a way to either replace code in the method with a parsed code from the template at compile time (PostSharp comes to mind) or to create a dynamic proxy (Linfu or Castle). So given a source code like this [Template] private string GetSomething() { var template = [%=Customer.Name%] } I need it to be compiled into this private string GetSomething() { MemoryStream mStream = new MemoryStream(); StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(mStream,System.Text.Encoding.UTF8); writer.Write(@"" ); writer.Write(Customer.Name); StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(mStream); writer.Flush(); mStream.Position = 0; return sr.ReadToEnd(); } It is not important what technology is used. I tried with PostSharp's ImplementMethodAspect but got nowhere (due to lack of experience with it). I also looked into Linfu framework. Can somebody suggest some other approach or way to do this, I would really appreciate. My whole project depends on this.

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• Cookie add in the Global.asax warning in application log

  - by Ioxp

  In my Global.ASAX file i have the following: System.Web.HttpCookie isAccess = new System.Web.HttpCookie("IsAccess"); isAccess.Expires = DateTime.Now.AddDays(-1); isAccess.Value = ""; System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(isAccess); So every time this method this is logged in the application events as a warning: Event code: 3005 Event message: An unhandled exception has occurred. Event time: 5/25/2010 12:23:20 PM Event time (UTC): 5/25/2010 4:23:20 PM Event ID: c515e27a28474eab8d99720c3f5a8e90 Event sequence: 4148 Event occurrence: 332 Event detail code: 0 Application information: Application domain: /LM/W3SVC/2100509645/Root-1-129192259222289896 Trust level: Full Application Virtual Path: / Application Path: <PathRemoved>\www\ Machine name: TIPPER Process information: Process ID: 6936 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Exception information: Exception type: NullReferenceException Exception message: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Request information: Request URL: Request path: User host address: User: Is authenticated: False Authentication Type: Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Thread information: Thread ID: 7 Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Is impersonating: False Stack trace: at ASP.global_asax.Session_End(Object sender, EventArgs e) in <PathRemoved>\Global.asax:line 113 Any idea why this code would cause this error?

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• restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

  - by Justin Grant

  I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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• Nhibernate join on a table twice

  - by Zuber

  Consider the following Class structure... public class ListViewControl { public int SystemId {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> Actions {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> ListViewActions {get; set;} } public class ControlAction { public string blahBlah {get; set;} } I want to load class ListViewControl eagerly using NHibernate. The mapping using Fluent is as shown below public UIControlMap() { Id(x => x.SystemId); HasMany(x => x.Actions) .KeyColumn("ActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.ListViewActions) .KeyColumn("ListViewActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); } This is how I am trying to load it eagerly var baseActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("Actions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViewActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("ListViewActions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViews = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .SetFetchMode("Actions", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("ListViewActions",FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var result = _session.CreateMultiCriteria() .Add("listViewActions", listViewActions) .Add("baseActions", baseActions) .Add("listViews", listViews) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()) .GetResult("listViews"); Now, my problem is that the class ListViewControl get the correct records in both Actions and ListViewActions, but there are multiple entries of the same record. The number of records is equal to the number of joins made to the ControlAction table, in this case two. How can I avoid this? If I remove the SetFetchMode from the listViews query, the actions are loaded lazily through a proxy which I don't want.

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• Service Bus / Request Forwarding

  - by codputer

  I'm doing some development with a thrid party that issues either a Get or POST to a public URL that I specify. What I would like to do is set up a Relay service on the Azure Service Bus that my dev machine can listen to. When the request comes in, I want to forward that request as if my web service was taking the request directly from the thrid party service. When I'm ready, I'll deploy the application to a public service, change the URL that the thrid party service is sending too, and viola I should be up and running. What I'm looking for looks exactly like this: Clemens the Master of Service Bus but it's from the 2009 CTP. I'm working at it, but haven't yet got it working using all the new bits in 2012 (a.ka. its over my head at the moment). Somebody want to help? Clemens also help somebody else create a Reverse Proxy using the Service Bus, but I can't seem to find it. Yes I've also tweeted Clemens, but I'm sure he is a busy man! p.s. I know about Application Request Routing, but my dev machine is not on a public URL, I need to rewrite the URL after my client listener on the service bus recieves the message that was relayed from the Server side endpoint.

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• Are these settings correct for sending mail through Rails/Gmail?

  - by aressidi

  Hi there, I spend a good deal of time building an email system for my Rails app that uses Gmail to send bulk mail to a list of opt-in users. I realize a shortcomming of using Google Apps for my mail, namely a rate limit on the number of emails it will send out (i believe 500). Anyway, I have reached out to my users to see how many have received the email, and a lot of them have not, though some have. The list I tried sending to was about 540 users, so I would have expected more "yes, got it," then "nope, still waiting" responses. I have two questions: Do these settings look correct for outgoing bulk mailing through Gmail? Again, using google apps to manage my domain and i know some people (including myself) have received the mailer. This is in a mail.rb initializer in my app. ActionMailer::Base.delivery_method = :sendmail ActionMailer::Base.smtp_settings = { :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 25, :domain => "mydomain.com", :authentication => :login, :user_name => "[email protected]", :password => "mypass" } Is there any way I can test if the mail was delivered, or at least attempted to be delivered? I can't tell where in the list the mailer stops mailing! The way I generate the list is through a query which then passes the user info to a mailer worker which sends the emails out via Starling/Workling. Any advice here would be useful. Happy to post code, but want to make sure the method I'm using is sound. Thanks for the help!

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• Cannot implicity convert type void to System.Threading.Tasks.Task<bool>

  - by sagesky36

  I have a WCF Service that contains the following method. All the methods in the service are asynchrounous and compile just fine. public async Task<Boolean> ValidateRegistrationAsync(String strUserName) { try { using (YeagerTechEntities DbContext = new YeagerTechEntities()) { DbContext.Configuration.ProxyCreationEnabled = false; DbContext.Database.Connection.Open(); var reg = await DbContext.aspnet_Users.FirstOrDefaultAsync(f => f.UserName == strUserName); if (reg != null) return true; else return false; } } catch (Exception) { throw; } } My client application was set to access the WCF service with the check box for the "Allow generation of asynchronous operations" and it generated the proxy just fine. I am receiving the above subject error when trying to call this WCF service method from my client with the following code. Mind you, I know what the error message means, but this is my first time trying to call an asynchronous task in a WCF service from a client. Task<Boolean> blnMbrShip = db.ValidateRegistrationAsync(FormsAuthentication.Decrypt(cn.Value).Name); What do I need to do to properly call the method so the design time compile error disappears? Thanks so much in advance...

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• What do I name this class whose sole purpose is to report failure?

  - by Blair Holloway

  In our system, we have a number of classes whose construction must happen asynchronously. We wrap the construction process in another class that derives from an IConstructor class: class IConstructor { public: virtual void Update() = 0; virtual Status GetStatus() = 0; virtual int GetLastError() = 0; }; There's an issue with the design of the current system - the functions that create the IConstructor-derived classes are often doing additional work which can also fail. At that point, instead of getting a constructor which can be queried for an error, a NULL pointer is returned. Restructuring the code to avoid this is possible, but time-consuming. In the meantime, I decided to create a constructor class which we create and return in case of error, instead of a NULL pointer: class FailedConstructor : public IConstructor public: virtual void Update() {} virtual Status GetStatus() { return STATUS_ERROR; } virtual int GetLastError() { return m_errorCode; } private: int m_errorCode; }; All of the above this the setup for a mundane question: what do I name the FailedConstructor class? In our current system, FailedConstructor would indicate "a class which constructs an instance of Failed", not "a class which represents a failed attempt to construct another class". I feel like it should be named for one of the design patterns, like Proxy or Adapter, but I'm not sure which.

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• C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

  - by Ben

  Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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• Silverlight 3 + Java WebService

  - by Heko

  Hello! I have a Silverlight 3 project, and I need to call a Java WebService - the bindings are ok (SOAP 1.1 and basicHttpBinding): ClientConfig File: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="SkyinfoTestInterfaceExport2_SkyinfoTestInterfaceHttpBinding" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None"> <transport> <extendedProtectionPolicy policyEnforcement="Never" /> </transport> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="myAddress" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="SkyinfoTestInterfaceExport2_SkyinfoTestInterfaceHttpBinding" contract="SkyInfoServiceReference.SkyinfoTestInterface" name="SkyinfoTestInterfaceExport2_SkyinfoTestInterfaceHttpPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I call a method on client I get this Policy error: An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI '...'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. I know about those 2 policy XML filesbut Java EE service which I'm trying to call is hosted on a IBM WebSphere Process Server to which I don't have access. Does anybody know how to work around this policy exception?

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• Redirect uploaded files to another server, using nginx

  - by Serg ikS

  I am creating a web service of scheduled posts to some soc. network.Need help dealing with file uploads under high traffic. Process overview: User uploads files to SomeServer (not mine). SomeServer then responds with a JSON string. My web app should store that JSON response. Opt. 1 — Save, cURL POST, delete tmp The stupid way I made it work: User uploads files to MyWebApp; MyWebApp cURL's the file further to SomeServer, getting the response. Opt.2 — JS magic The smart way it could be perfect: User uploads the file directly to SomeServer, from within an iFrame; MyWebApp gets the response through JavaScript. But this is(?) impossible due to the 'Same Origin Policy', isn't it? Opt. 3 — nginx proxying? The better way for a production server: User uploads files to MyWebApp; nginx intercepts the file uploads and sends them directly to the SomeServer; JSON response is also intercepted by nginx and processed by MyWebApp. Does this make any sense, and what would be the nginx config for, say, /fileupload Location to proxy it to SomeServer ?

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• Alternatives to the Entity Framework for Serving/Consuming an OData Interface

  - by Egahn

  I'm researching how to set up an OData interface to our database. I would like to be able to pull/query data from our DB into Excel, as a start. Eventually I would like to have Excel run queries and pull data over HTTP from a remote client, including authentication, etc. I've set up a working (rickety) prototype so far, using the ADO.NET Entity Data Model wizard in Visual Studio, and VSTO to create a test Excel worksheet with a button to pull from that ADO.NET interface. This works OK so far, and I can query the DB using Linq through the entities/objects that are created by the ADO.NET EDM wizard. However, I have started to run into some problems with this approach. I've been finding the Entity Framework difficult to work with (and in fact, also difficult to research solutions to, as there's a lot of chaff out there regarding it and older versions of it). An example of this is my being unable to figure out how to set the SQL command timeout (as opposed to the HTTP request timeout) on the DataServiceContext object that the wizard generates for my schema, but that's not the point of my question. The real question I have is, if I want to use OData as my interface standard, am I stuck with the Entity Framework? Are there any other solutions out there (preferably open source) which can set up, serve and consume an OData interface, and are easier to work with and less bloated than the Entity Framework? I have seen mention of NHibernate as an alternative, but most of the comparison threads I've seen are a few years old. Are there any other alternatives out there now? Thanks very much!

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• On-Demand thumbnail creation with django and nginx

  - by sharjeel

  I want to generate thumbnails of images on the fly. My site is built with django and deployed using nginx which serves all the static content and communicates with django/apache using reverse proxy. Right now, for every image in my site, I generate all required sizes of thumbnails on-hand and deliver them when required. The problem is that whenever I change the size of a thumbnail, I have to regenerate all of them (and they are tons). However now I'd like to generate the thumbnail the first time it is accessed and later on nginx would deliver the same file over n over. If I delete that thumbnail file because of lesser accesses, it should get generated automatically the next time. Thumbnails in my case also have watermarks which require some computation logic of my application so a webserver thumbnail module might not work very well. The size of the thumbnail can be embedded in the URL. So http://www.example.com/thumbnail/abc_320x240.jpg gets the 320x240 size of the thumbnail. The approach I'm looking right now is to let nginx lookup the file and if it doesn't exist, forward the query to my django application which would create the thumbnail and send either the response or a redirect string. However I'm not sure about the concurrency issues and any other issues which might pop up later. What is the appropriate way to achieve this?

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