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  • C++ socket concurrent server

    - by gregpi
    Hi all; Im writing a concurrent server that's supposed to have a communication channel and a data channel. The client initially connect to the communication channel to authenticate, upon successful authentication, the client is then connected to the data channel to access data. My program is already doing that, and im using threads.My only issue is that if I try to connect another client, I get a "cannot bind : address already in use" error. I have it this way: PART A Client connect to port 4567 (and enter his login info). A thread spawn to handle the client(repeated for each client that connects). In the thread created, I have a function(let's call it FUNC_A) that checks the client's login info(dont worry about how the check is done), if successful, the thread starts the data server(listening on 8976) then sends an OK to the client, once received the client attempts to connect to the data server. PART B Once a client connect to the data server, from inside FUNC_A the client is accepted and another thread is spawn to handle the client's connection to the data server.(hopefully everything is clear). Now, all that is working fine. However, if I try to connect with second client when it gets to PART B I get a "cannot bind error: address already in use". I've tried so many different ways, I've even tried spawning a thread to start the data server and accept the client and then start another thread to handle that connection. still no luck. Please give me a suggestion as to what I'm doing wrong, how do I go about doing this or what's the best way to implement it. Thank you

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  • Why would certain browsers request all pages on my ASP.Net Web site twice?

    - by Deane
    Firefox is issuing duplicate requests to my ASP.Net web site. It will request a page, get the response, then immediately issue the same request again (well, almost the same -- see below). This happens on every page of this particular Web site (but not any others). IE does not do this, but Chrome also does this. I have confirmed that there is no Location header in the response, and no Javascript or meta tag in the page which would cause the page to be re-requested (if any of these were true, IE would be re-requesting pages as well). I have confirmed this behavior on multiple Firefox installs on multiple machines. Versions vary, but all are 3.x. The only difference between the two requests is the Accepts header. For the first request, it looks like this: Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 For the second request, it looks like this: Accept: */* The Content-Type response header in all cases is: Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Something else odd -- even though Firefox requests the page twice, it uses the first response and discards the second. I put a counter on a page that increments with every request. I can watch the responses come back (via the Charles proxy). Firefox will get a "1" the first time, and a "2" the second time. Yet it will display the "1," for some reason. Chrome exhibits this exact same behavior. I suspect it's a protocol-level issue, given the difference in Accepts header, but I've never seen this before.

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  • Javascript XMLHttpRequest Post method

    - by user535617
    Hey So I have a question about posting using an XMLHttpRequest. In theory, if I am to post a username and password to an https domain (which I have yet to get working, unfortunately) would the responseText then change to the next website, or should the text fields become filled in? What normally happens is you navigate to this page via browser, enter a username and password, and it uses a POST method when the submit button is clicked, doing some authentication under the hood and returning a different page. I feel like maybe the responseText should even stay exactly the same (which is what happens now), but I don't know as I have no experience with this kind of thing. this.requests[1].open("POST", "https://" + this.address, true); var query = "target=%2Fcgi-bin%2FStatusConfig.cgi%3FPage%3Dindex&userfile=&username=user&password=pass&log+in=Log+in"; this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-length", query.length); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Keep-Alive", 115); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Connection", "keep-alive"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Host", this.address); this.requests[1].send(query); this.requests[1].onreadystatechange = onReadyStateChange1; Then basically onReadyStateChange1 displays the responseText when ready. Any light that could be shed on what SHOULD be happening with the post and responseText would be very appreciated. As would any advice in getting the new, logged into page. For further clarification, what I'm trying to do is log in and then return the new page, because the login page displays only log in information/functionality and the page after logging in has a lot of relevant information. I'm not trying to check the credentials as much as I'm trying to get it (the script) to log in so it can access the next page. Granted, the credentials will have to be valid for that. Thanks all.

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  • Not loading associations without proxies in NHibernate

    - by Alice
    I don't like the idea of proxy and lazy loading. I don't need that. I want pure POCO. And I want to control loading associations explicitly when I need. Here is entity public class Post { public long Id { get; set; } public long OwnerId { get; set; } public string Content { get; set; } public User Owner { get; set; } } and mapping <class name="Post"> <id name="Id" /> <property name="OwnerId" /> <property name="Content" /> <many-to-one name="Owner" column="OwnerId" /> </class> However if I specify lazy="false" in the mapping, Owner is always eagerly fetched. I can't remove many-to-one mapping because that also disables explicit loading or a query like from x in session.Query<Comment>() where x.Owner.Title == "hello" select x; I specified lazy="true" and set use_proxy_validator property to false. But that also eager loads Owner. Is there any way to load only Post entity?

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  • How to make ActionController::Base.asset_host and Base.relative_url_root independent?

    - by GSP
    In our Intranet environment we have a decree that common assets (stylesheets, images, etc) should be fed from Apache root while Rails apps runs from from a "sub directory" (a proxy to a Mongrel cluster). In other words: <%= stylesheet_tag '/common' %> # <link href="http://1.1.1.1/stylesheets/common.css" /> <%= link_to 'Home', :controller=>'home', :action=>'index' %> # <a href="http://1.1.1.1/myapp/" /> What I would like to do is define the assets and relative url in my configuration like this: ActionController::Base.asset_host=http://1.1.1.1 ActionController::Base.relative_url_root=/myapp But when I do this, the relative_url_root value gets appended to the asset_host value. (e.g. <link href="http://1.1.1.1/myapp/stylesheets/common.css"> ) Is there a way to stop this? And, more importantly, is there a best practice for how to deploy a rails app to an environment like this? (BTW, I don't want to simply hard code my asset paths since the development environment does not match the test and production environments.) Environment: Rails 2.3.4 Ruby 1.8.7 RedHat Linux 5.4?

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  • WCF cross-domain policy security error

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + WCF + .Net 3.5 + Silverlight 3.0. I host Silverlight control in an html page and debug it from VSTS 2008 (press F5, then run in VSTS 2008 built-in ASP.Net development web server), then call another WCF service (hosted in another machine running IIS 7.0 + Vista). The WCF service is very simple, just return a constant string to client. When invoking the WCF service from Silverlight, I got the following error message, An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'https://LabTest/Test.svc'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. Here is the clientaccesspolicy.xml file, anything wrong? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*"> </domain> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true"></resource> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy> thanks in advance, George

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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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  • Error accessing uncompiled pages using ISA Server 2006 SP1

    - by Bravax
    We are in the processing of configuring a portal to use ISA Server as our front end security provider. So we are using ISA Server 2006 SP1. Unfortunately when we access .net applications through ISA Server, the first time they are accessed. i.e. They are not compiled yet, the following error appears: Error Code: 500 Internal Server Error. The parameter is incorrect. (87) In the ISA Monitoring logs, this shows: Failed Connection Attempt Log type: Web Proxy (Reverse) Status: 87 The parameter is incorrect. Once the application is compiled, the error never appears. Does anyone know how to resolve this, so the site works correctly the first time? Some additional information: The websites accessed are running on windows server 2008 64 bit - standard edition, and occurs for Sharepoint as well as standard .net websites. ISA Server is running on Windows server 2003 R2 SP2 Standard eidtion The firewall on the windows server 2008 box allows all access. (To rule this out.) Nothing odd appears in the IIS logs or firewall logs.

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  • DotNetOpeId - Using OpenIdButton for Google Apps

    - by JediPotPie
    I am an ASP.NET newbie and I am trying to design an OpenID/SSO system for an internal web application. The web application is pretty simple and the authentication is currently being managed by a database with usernames and passwords. I want to replace the existing accounts stored in the database with Google Apps accounts. I have downloaded the latest DotNetOpenAuth-3.4.3.10103 package and got the OpenIdRelyingPartyWebForms sample up and running on IIS. I have built my own login page using just a OpenIdButton object that points to a development Google domain. The button seems to work fine in FireFox, at least it is forwarding me to the Google Apps login, but nothing happens when I load the same page in IE. When I click the Google button, nothing happens, zip. The same is true for the Yahoo button in the login.aspx page given in the sample. Here is the .aspx code I am using... <rp:OpenIdButton runat="server" ImageUrl="http://www.google.com/accounts/google_transparent.gif" Text="Login with Google!" ID="googleLoginButton" Identifier="https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/site-xrds?hd=dev.connexcloud.com" />

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  • Credit Card storage solution

    - by jtnire
    Hi Everyone, I'm developing a solution that is designed to store membership details, as well as credit card details. I'm trying to comply with PCI DSS as much as I can. Here is my design so far: PAN = Primary account number == long number on credit card Server A is a remote server. It stores all membership details (Names, Address etc..) and provides indivudal Key A's for each PAN stored Server B is a local server, and actually holds the encrypted PANs, as well as Key B, and does the decryption. To get a PAN, the client has to authenticate with BOTH servers, ask Server A for the respective Key A, then give Key A to server B, which will return the PAN to the client (provided authentication was sucessful). Server A will only ever encrypt Key A with Server B's public Key, as it will have it beforehand. Server B will probably have to send a salt first though, however I doin't think that has to be encrypted I havn't really thought about any implementation (i.e. coding) specifics yet regarding the above, however the solution is using Java's Cajo framework (wrapper for RMI) so that is how the servers will communicate with each other (Currently, membership details are transfered in this way). The reason why I want Server B to do the decryption, and not the client, is that I am afraid of decryption keys going into the client's RAM, even though it's probably just as bad on the server... Can anyone see anything wrong with the above design? It doesn't matter if the above has to be changed. Thanks jtnire

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  • http_access.log on WebSphere 6.1.0.29

    - by DavidG
    I am running WebSphere 6.1.0.29 and I need to track the requests being made to an Enterprise Application. Previously I did this by routing the requests through a proxy server, but I need to repeat the exercise and I figure there must be a simpler way. Does anyone know how to enable HTTP access logging? I have been through the console an thought I had enabled http_access.log and http_error.log via: Application servers server1 HTTP error and NCSA access logging (where 'server1' is the application server) I've enabled the service at startup, and ticked the boxes to enable access logging and error logging - however... nothing has happened. I have restarted the server, restarted the Enterprise apps and even did a "find . -name" for the log files - but they don't seem to be anywhere on the system. I saw on a JavaRanch thread someone suggested writing a custom filter for requests in an application, but this seems like wild overkill - plus I am doing the logs to test a pre-built binary, so I don't want to mess with the code. Anyone have any ideas/suggestions? Help! :-)

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  • Are there good reasons not to use an ORM?

    - by hangy
    During my apprenticeship, I have used NHibernate for some smaller projects which I mostly coded and designed on my own. Now, before starting some bigger project, the discussion arose how to design data access and whether or not to use an ORM layer. As I am still in my apprenticeship and still consider myself a beginner in enterprise programming, I did not really try to push in my opinion, which is that using an object relational mapper to the database can ease development quite a lot. The other coders in the development team are much more experienced than me, so I think I will just do what they say. :-) However, I do not completely understand two of the main reasons for not using NHibernate or a similar project: One can just build one’s own data access objects with SQL queries and copy those queries out of Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio. Debugging an ORM can be hard. So, of course I could just build my data access layer with a lot of SELECTs etc, but here I miss the advantage of automatic joins, lazy-loading proxy classes and a lower maintenance effort if a table gets a new column or a column gets renamed. (Updating numerous SELECT, INSERT and UPDATE queries vs. updating the mapping config and possibly refactoring the business classes and DTOs.) Also, using NHibernate you can run into unforeseen problems if you do not know the framework very well. That could be, for example, trusting the Table.hbm.xml where you set a string’s length to be automatically validated. However, I can also imagine similar bugs in a “simple” SqlConnection query based data access layer. Finally, are those arguments mentioned above really a good reason not to utilise an ORM for a non-trivial database based enterprise application? Are there probably other arguments they/I might have missed? (I should probably add that I think this is like the first “big” .NET/C# based application which will require teamwork. Good practices, which are seen as pretty normal on Stack Overflow, such as unit testing or continuous integration, are non-existing here up to now.)

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  • Is it better to use a relational database or document-based database for an app like Wufoo?

    - by mboyle
    I'm working on an application that's similar to Wufoo in that it allows our users to create their own databases and collect/present records with auto generated forms and views. Since every user is creating a different schema (one user might have a database of their baseball card collection, another might have a database of their recipes) our current approach is using MySQL to create separate databases for every user with its own tables. So in other words, the databases our MySQL server contains look like: main-web-app-db (our web app containing tables for users account info, billing, etc) user_1_db (baseball_cards_table) user_2_db (recipes_table) .... And so on. If a user wants to set up a new database to keep track of their DVD collection, we'd do a "create database ..." with "create table ...". If they enter some data in and then decide they want to change a column we'd do an "alter table ....". Now, the further along I get with building this out the more it seems like MySQL is poorly suited to handling this. 1) My first concern is that switching databases every request, first to our main app's database for authentication etc, and then to the user's personal database, is going to be inefficient. 2) The second concern I have is that there's going to be a limit to the number of databases a single MySQL server can host. Pretending for a moment this application had 500,000 user databases, is MySQL designed to operate this way? What if it were a million, or more? 3) Lastly, is this method going to be a nightmare to support and scale? I've never heard of MySQL being used in this way so I do worry about how this affects things like replication and other methods of scaling. To me, it seems like MySQL wasn't built to be used in this way but what do I know. I've been looking at document-based databases like MongoDB, CouchDB, and Redis as alternatives because it seems like a schema-less approach to this particular problem makes a lot of sense. Can anyone offer some advice on this?

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  • Windows Phone - failing to get a string from a website with login information

    - by jumantyn
    I am new to accessing web services with Windows Phone 7/8. I'm using a WebClient to get a string from a php-website. The site returns a JSON string but at the moment I'm just trying to put it into a TextBox as a normal string just to test if the connection works. The php-page requires an authentication and I think that's where my code is failing. Here's my code: WebClient client = new WebClient(); client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("myUsername", "myPassword"); client.DownloadStringCompleted += new DownloadStringCompletedEventHandler(client_DownloadStringCompleted); client.DownloadStringAsync(new Uri("https://www.mywebsite.com/ba/php/jsonstuff.php")); void client_DownloadStringCompleted(object sender, DownloadStringCompletedEventArgs e) { try { string data = e.Result; this.jsonText.Text = data; } catch (Exception ex) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(ex.Message); } } This returns first a WebException and then a TargetInvocationException. If I replace the Uri with for example "http://www.google.com/index.html" the jsonText TextBox gets filled with html text from Google (oddly enough, this also works even when the WebClient credentials are still set). So is the problem in the setting of the credentials? I couldn't find any good results when searching for guides on how to access php-pages with credentials, only without them. Then I found a short mention somewhere to use the WebClient.Credentials property. But should it work some other way? Update: here's what I can get out of the WebException (sorry for the bad formatting): System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. ---System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.InternalEndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<c_DisplayClasse.b_d(Object sendState) at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.<c_DisplayClass1.b_0(Object sendState) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.BeginOnUI(SendOrPostCallback beginMethod, Object state) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.EndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Net.WebClient.GetWebResponse(WebRequest request, IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.WebClient.DownloadBitsResponseCallback(IAsyncResult result)

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  • JasperReports reports access image via authenticated URL

    - by user363115
    Hi all, I am hoping that this is a simple issue with a simple solution and that I have missed something obvious. Let me explain the problem; We have an application that generates PDF reports (using Jasper). These reports contain data from our database, as well as imagery (photographs). These photographs are stored in S3. We use signed URLs to access these photographs. We link these photographs into our Jasper reports using these S3 URLs. Because the S3 URLs are signed and time-limited (by design), the process is as follows; User requests a report to be generated, Report is filled, and goes to our database (at which time UUIDs to any required images are retrieved), For each UUID an S3 signed URL must be generated, To do this the URL behind each report image is a call to an authenticated URL in our app (/get_img?uuid=foo), The controller behind this URL generates a signed S3 URL and returns it, Reports loads the image. The problem is with step (4) - the call to the authenticated URL fails because Jasper does not pass any authentication information with the request. Is there a solution here? Thanks all for your time. Ben

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  • adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

    - by duncanUK
    I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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  • How to pass value in url using web request GET method asp.net

    - by Narasi
    Am new to .Net and web service..i like to pass id through url..how to do that?whether it was done post or get method?guide me string url = "http://XXXXX//"+id=22; WebRequest request = WebRequest.Create(url); request.Proxy.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(xxxxx); request.Credentials = CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials; //add properties request.Method = "GET"; request.ContentType = "application/json"; //convert byte[] byteArray = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(data); request.ContentLength = byteArray.Length; //post data Stream streamdata = request.GetRequestStream(); streamdata.Write(byteArray, 0, byteArray.Length); streamdata.Close(); //response WebResponse response = request.GetResponse(); // Get the stream containing content returned by the server. Stream dataStream = response.GetResponseStream(); // Open the stream using a StreamReader for easy access. StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(dataStream); // Read the content. string responseFromServer = reader.ReadToEnd(); // Clean up the streams and the response. reader.Close(); response.Close(); Thanks in advance

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  • In M-V-VM where does my code go?

    - by Nate Bross
    So, this is a pretty basic question I hope. I have a web service that I've added through Add Service Reference. It has some methods to get list and get detail of a perticular table in my database. What I'm trying to do is setup a UI as follows: App Load Load service proxy Call the GetList(); method display the results in a ListBox control User Double Clicks item in ListBox, display a modal dialog with a "detail" view I'm extremely new to using MVVM, so any help would be greatly appreciated. Additional information: // Service Interface (simplification): interface IService { IEnumerable<MyObject> GetList(); MyObject GetDetail(int id); } // Data object (simplification) class MyObject { public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } I'm thinking I should have something like this: MainWindow MyObjectViewUserControl Displays list Opens modal window on double click Specific Questions: What would my ViewModel class look like? Where does the code to handle the double click go? Inside the UserControl? Sorry for the long details, but I'm very new to the whole thing and I'm not educated enough to ask the right questions. I checked out the MVVM Sample from wpf.codeplex.com and something isn't quite clicking for me yet, because it seems very confusing.

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  • S3 file Uploading from Mac app though PHP?

    - by Ilija Tovilo
    I have asked this question before, but it was deleted due too little information. I'll try to be more concrete this time. I have an Objective-C mac application, which should allow users to upload files to S3-storage. The s3 storage is mine, the users don't have an Amazon account. Until now, the files were uploaded directly to the amazon servers. After thinking some more about it, it wasn't really a great concept, regarding security and flexibility. I want to add a server in between. The user should authenticate with my server, the server would open a session if the authentication was successful, and the file-sharing could begin. Now my question. I want to upload the files to S3. One option would be to make a POST-request and wait until the server would receive the file. Problems here are, that there would be a delay, when the file is being uploaded from my server to the S3 servers, and it would double the uploading time. Best would be, if I could validate the request, and then redirecting it, so the client uploads it directly to the s3-storage. Not sure if this is possible somehow. Uploading directly to S3 doesn't seem to be very smart. After looking into other apps like Droplr and Dropmark, it looks like they don't do this. Btw. I did this using Little Snitch. They have their api on their own web-server, and that's it. Could someone clear things up for me? EDIT How should I transmit my files to S3? Is there a way to "forward" it, or do I have to upload it to my server and then upload it from there to S3? Like I said, other apps can do this efficiently and without the need of communicating with S3 directly.

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  • Protecting sensitive entity data

    - by Andreas
    Hi, I'm looking for some advice on architecture for a client/server solution with some peculiarities. The client is a fairly thick one, leaving the server mostly to peristence, concurrency and infrastructure concerns. The server contains a number of entities which contain both sensitive and public information. Think for example that the entities are persons, assume that social security number and name are sensitive and age is publicly viewable. When starting the client, the user is presented with a number of entities, not disclosing any sensitive information. At any time the user can choose to log in and authenticate against the server, given the authentication is successful the user is granted access to the sensitive information. The client is hosting a domain model and I was thinking of implementing this as some kind of "lazy loading", making the first request instantiating the entities and later refreshing them with sensitive data. The entity getters would throw exceptions on sensitive information when they've not been disclosed, f.e.: class PersonImpl : PersonEntity { private bool undisclosed; public override string SocialSecurityNumber { get { if (undisclosed) throw new UndisclosedDataException(); return base.SocialSecurityNumber; } } } Another more friendly approach could be to have a value object indicating that the value is undisclosed. get { if (undisclosed) return undisclosedValue; return base.SocialSecurityNumber; } Some concerns: What if the user logs in and then out, the sensitive data has been loaded but must be disclosed once again. One could argue that this type of functionality belongs within the domain and not some infrastructural implementation(i.e. repository implementations). As always when dealing with a larger number of properties there's a risk that this type of functionality clutters the code Any insights or discussion is appreciated!

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  • How do you submit an authenticated HTML form using XUL (Firefox extension) Javascript?

    - by machineghost
    I am working on a Firefox extension, and in that extension I am trying to use AJAX to submit a form on a webpage. I am using: var request = Components.classes["@mozilla.org/xmlextras/xmlhttprequest;1"].createInstance(Components.interfaces.nsIXMLHttpRequest); request.onload = loadHandler; request.open("POST", url, true); request.send(values); to make the request, and it works ... mostly. The one problem is that the form has an authentication token on it, and I need to submit that token with my POST. I tried doing a GET separately to get this token, but by the time I made my second (POST) request my session had (evidently) changed, and the authenticity token was considered invalid. Does anyone know of a way to use the XUL/Chrome Javscript to maintain a constant session across multiple requests (all "behind the scenes") for something this? I'm still a XUL n00b, so there may be a totally obvious alternative that I'm missing (eg. hidden IFRAME; I tried that briefly but couldn't get it to work).

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  • identify accounts using zend-openid [HELP]

    - by tawfekov
    Hi! , i had successfully implemented simple open ID authentication with the [gmail , yahoo , myopenid, aol and many others ] exactly as stackoverflow do but i had a problem with identifying accounts for example 'openid_ns' => string 'http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0' (length=32) 'openid_mode' => string 'id_res' (length=6) 'openid_op_endpoint' => string 'https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud' (length=37) 'openid_response_nonce' => string '2010-05-02T06:35:40Z9YIASispxMvKpw' (length=34) 'openid_return_to' => string 'http://dev.local/download/index/gettingback' (length=43) 'openid_assoc_handle' => string 'AOQobUf_2jrRKQ4YZoqBvq5-O9sfkkng9UFxoE9SEBlgWqJv7Sq_FYgD7rEXiLLXhnjCghvf' (length=72) 'openid_signed' => string 'op_endpoint,claimed_id,identity,return_to,response_nonce,assoc_handle' (length=69) 'openid_sig' => string 'knieEHpvOc/Rxu1bkUdjeE9YbbFX3lqZDOQFxLFdau0=' (length=44) 'openid_identity' => string 'https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawk0NAa51T3xWy-oympGpxFj5CftFsmjZpY' (length=80) 'openid_claimed_id' => string 'https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawk0NAa51T3xWy-oympGpxFj5CftFsmjZpY' (length=80) i thought that openid_claimed_id or openid_identity is identical for every account but after some testing turns out the claimed id is changeable by the users them self in yahoo and randomly changing in case of gmail FYI am using zend openid with a bit modification on consumer class and i can't use SERG [Simple Refistration Extension] cuz currently it uses openid v1 specification :( i hadn't read the specification of openid so if any body know please help me to how to identify openid accounts to know if this account has signed in before or not

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  • How to access a web service behind a NAT?

    - by jr
    We have a product we are deploying to some small businesses. It is basically a RESTful API over SSL using Tomcat. This is installed on the server in the small business and is accessed via an iPhone or other device portable device. So, the devices connecting to the server could come from any number of IP addresses. The problem comes with the installation. When we install this service, it seems to always become a problem when doing port forwarding so the outside world can gain access to tomcat. It seems most time the owner doesn't know router password, etc, etc. I am trying to research other ways we can accomplish this. I've come up with the following and would like to hear other thoughts on the topic. Setup a SSH tunnel from each client office to a central server. Basically the remote devices would connect to that central server on a port and that traffic would be tunneled back to Tomcat in the office. Seems kind of redundant to have SSH and then SSL, but really no other way to accomplish it since end-to-end I need SSL (from device to office). Not sure of performance implications here, but I know it would work. Would need to monitor the tunnel and bring it back up if it goes done, would need to handle SSH key exchanges, etc. Setup uPNP to try and configure the hole for me. Would likely work most of the time, but uPNP isn't guaranteed to be turned on. May be a good next step. Come up with some type of NAT transversal scheme. I'm just not familiar with these and uncertain of how they exactly work. We have access to a centralized server which is required for the authentication if that makes it any easier. What else should I be looking at to get this accomplished?

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  • ASPX page renders differently when reached on intranet vs. internet?

    - by MattSlay
    This is so odd to me.. I have IIS 5 running on XP and it's hosting a small ASP.Net app for our LAN that we can access by using the computer name, virtual directory, and page name (http://matt/smallapp/customers.aspx), but you can also hit that IIS server and page from the internet because I have a public IP that my firewall routes to the "Matt" computer (like http://213.202.3.88/smallapp/customers.aspx [just a made-up IP]). Don't worry, I have Windows domain authentication is in place to protect the app from anonymous users. So all the abovea parts works fine. But what's weird is that the Border of the divs on the page are rendered much thicker when you access the page from the intranet, versus the internet, (I'm using IE8) and also, some of the div layout (stretching and such) acts differently. Why would it render different in the same browser based on whether it was reached from the LAN vs. the internet? It does NOT do this in FireFox. So it must be just an IE8 thing. All the CSS for the divs is right in the HTML page, so I do not think it is a caching matter of a CSS file. Notice how the borders are different in these two images: Internet: http://twitpic.com/hxx91 . Lan: http://twitpic.com/hxxtv

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  • Some sonatype nexus questions.

    - by smallufo
    I deployed a sonatype nexus server inside my LAN , mapping some remote repositories to my public repositories : First question is , why these repositories not sync with the "real" repositories ? For example , I mapped maven central (http://repo1.maven.org/maven2) to "central" , but when I browse http://smallufo:8081/nexus/content/repositories/central/org/springframework/ , the packages are not complete , in http://repo2.maven.org/maven2/org/springframework/ , there are tons of artifacts , but I only have some of them : And versions are old ... ex : spring-core is only 2.5.6.SEC01 , but the latest version is 3.0.2.RELEASE. And my maven client seems can only find the old artifacts ... "central" is a proxy directory , it should be the same with the remote server. I tried to "Expire Cache" , "ReIndex" , "Incremental ReIndex" the whole "central" : After a long time with almost 100% java process load , the situation seems not better , just add some artifacts ... not reflecting the real "Maven Central" data... Second question , what's difference with "Expire Cache" , "ReIndex" , "Incremental ReIndex" ? Even I can "search" spring-core.3.0.2.RELEASE , my m2eclipse still cannot find it : I can also see the spring-core-3.0.2.RELEASE in the "index" , (but not available in "storage") : But why m2eclipse cannot make use of it ? it seems m2eclipse can only install artifacts in the storage , if this is how nexus works , how do I "force" download spring-core-3.0.2.RELEASE to nexus's storage ? How do I solve these strange incompatibilities ? Thanks a lot !

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