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  • Prompting for authentication from a wxPython program and passing it along to IIS?

    - by MetaHyperBolic
    I have a client (written in Python, with a wxPython front end in dead-simple wizard style) which communicates a website running IIS. A python script receives requests and does the usual client-server dance. I would have written this as a browser application, but for the requirement that certain things happen on the local PC that the web can't help with (file manipulation, interfacing with certain USB hardware, etc.) Right now, I am simply using the logon credentials, compounded as a string from os.environ['USERDOMAIN'] and os.environ['USERNAME'], to pass along to the server, which connects to Active Directory and enumerates the members of the group, looking for those logon credentials. It's an ugly hack, but it works. Obviously, I could make people log out of the generic helper accounts and log back into Windows using specific accounts. However, I wondered how feasible it would be to provide some kind of logon prompt wherein the user can type in a name and password, then some kind of authorization token could be passed on to IIS. This seems like something I would not want to do myself, given that amateurs almost always make huge security mistakes. Now you can see why I am wishing this was purely web-based. What's a good way to handle this?

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  • Returning two or more values from a function

    - by cf_PhillipSenn
    I need to return multiple values from a ColdFusion function in an ajax callback function. Here's what I've got: $('input[name="StateName"]').live('change', function() { var StateID = $(this).parents('tr').attr('id'); var StateName = $(this).val(); $.ajax({ url: 'Remote/State.cfc' ,type: "POST" ,data: { 'method': 'UpdateStateName' ,'StateID': StateID ,'StateName': StateName } ,success: function(result){ if (isNaN(result)) { $('#msg').text(result).addClass('err'); } else { $('#' + result + ' input[name="StateName"]').addClass('changed'); }; } ,error: function(msg){ $('#msg').text('Connection error').addClass('err'); } }); }); If I trap a database error, then the success callback is fired, and the result is Not a Number (It is in fact, the text of the error message). I need the function to also pass back other values. One might be the primary key of the row that caused the error. Another might be the old StateName, so that I can refresh the old value on the screen so that the client will know absolutely for sure that their change did not take effect. I guess I'm breaking the rule of atomicity here and need to fix that, because I'm using result as both the primary key of the row that was updated, or it's the error message if the update fails. I need to return both the primary key and the error message.

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  • Pitfalls of the Architecture - Database based HTTP Request/Response Parsing

    - by Sam
    We have a current eCommerce Site that runs on ASP.NET and we hired a consultant to develop an new site bases on SOA. The new site architecture is as follows Web Application : Single Page Web Application (built on javascript/jquery templates - do not use any MVVM frameworks) that uses some javascript thrown all over the place. Service Layer : Very very light Service Layer that does not do anything other than calling a single stored procedure and pass in the entire http request. Database : The entire site content is in the database. The database does the heavy lifting of parsing the request and based on the HTTP method and some input parameter calls the appropriate Store Procedures or views and renders the result in JSON/XML. We have been told by them that this is built on latest and greatest technologies. I have a lot of concerns and of them given are the few Load on the Database SEO concerns for single page application as this is a public facing website Scalablity? Is this SOA? Cross Browser compatability (Site does not work in < IE9) Realistic implementaion of Single page application I know something is not right but I just need to validate my concerns here. Please help me.

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  • How to reliably get size of C-style array?

    - by Frank
    How do I reliably get the size of a C-style array? The method often recommended seems to be to use sizeof, but it doesn't work in the foo function, where x is passed in: #include <iostream> void foo(int x[]) { std::cerr << (sizeof(x) / sizeof(int)); // 2 } int main(){ int x[] = {1,2,3,4,5}; std::cerr << (sizeof(x) / sizeof(int)); // 5 foo(x); return 0; } Answers to this question recommend sizeof but they don't say that it (apparently?) doesn't work if you pass the array around. So, do I have to use a sentinel instead? (I don't think the users of my foo function can always be trusted to put a sentinel at the end. Of course, I could use std::vector, but then I don't get the nice shorthand syntax {1,2,3,4,5}.)

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  • how to call array values based on the main id they linked to?

    - by veronica george
    In page one, $add_id2=implode(',',$add_id); //result is 1,4 $item_type2=implode(',',$item_type_2); //result is 8,16 $final_total2=implode(',',$final); //result is 150,430 I pass these values via URL to the page two and store them in session. $_SESSION['cart'][$car]= array ('car'=>$car, 'loc_1'=>$location, array ( 'addon_id'=>$a_id, 'item_type'=>$item_type2, 'final_total'=>$final_t ) ); I call them like this, foreach($_SESSION['cart'] as $cart=>$things) { //display main array value like car id and location id echo $cart; foreach($things as $thing_1=>$thing_2) { foreach($thing_2['addon_id'] as $thi_2=>$thi_4) { //to display addons item for the car id //this is the id for each addon under the above car //echo $thi_2; //this is to echo addon id $thi_4; } } } The above loop works . the addon items array loops through inside main array which is car. If there were two addon items chosen then the addon array will loop twice. Now al I need to do is, How to make $item_type2 and $final_total2 display the value according to the addon id? PS: Same addon items can be chosen multiple times. They are identified uniquely by id(//echo $thi_2;). Thanks.

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  • Security strategies for storing password on disk

    - by Mike
    I am building a suite of batch jobs that require regular access to a database, running on a Solaris 10 machine. Because of (unchangable) design constraints, we are required use a certain program to connect to it. Said interface requires us to pass a plain-text password over a command line to connect to the database. This is a terrible security practice, but we are stuck with it. I am trying to make sure things are properly secured on our end. Since the processing is automated (ie, we can't prompt for a password), and I can't store anything outside the disk, I need a strategy for storing our password securely. Here are some basic rules The system has multiple users. We can assume that our permissions are properly enforced (ie, if a file with a is chmod'd to 600, it won't be publically readable) I don't mind anyone with superuser access looking at our stored password Here is what i've got so far Store password in password.txt $chmod 600 password.txt Process reads from password.txt when it's needed Buffer overwritten with zeros when it's no longer needed Although I'm sure there is a better way.

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  • first major web app

    - by vbNewbie
    I have created a web app version of my previous crawler app and the initial form has controls to allow the client to make selections and start a search 'job'. These searches 'jobs' will be run my different threads created individually and added to a list to keep track of. Now the idea is to have another web form that will display this list of 'jobs' and their current status and will allow the jobs to be cancelled or removed only from the server side. This second form contains a grid to display these jobs. Now I have no idea if I should create the threads in the initial form code or send all user input to my main class which runs the search and if so how do I pass the the thread list to the second form to have it displayed on the grid. Any ideas really appreciated. Dim count As Integer = 0 Dim numThread As Integer = 0 Dim jobStartTime As Date Dim thread = New Thread(AddressOf ResetFormControlValues) 'StartBlogDiscovery) jobStartTime = Date.Now thread.Name = "Job" & jobStartTime 'clientName Session("Job") = "Job" & jobStartTime 'clientName thread.start() thread.sleep(50000) If numThread >= 10 Then For Each thread In threadlist thread.Join() Next Else numThread = numThread + 1 SyncLock threadlist threadlist.Enqueue(thread) End SyncLock End If this is the code that is called when the user clicks the search button on the inital form. this is what I just thought might work on the second web form if i used the session method. Try If Not Page.IsPostBack Then If Not Session("Job") = Nothing Then Grid1.DataSource = Session("Job") Grid1.DataBind() End If End If Finally

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  • How can I handle all my errors/messages in one place on an Asp.Net page?

    - by Atomiton
    Hi all, I'm looking for some guidance here. On my site I put things in Web user controls. For example, I will have a NewsItem Control, an Article Control, a ContactForm control. These will appear in various places on my site. What I'm looking for is a way for these controls to pass messages up to the Page that they exist on. I don't want to tightly couple them, so I think I will have to do this with Events/Delegates. I'm a little unclear as to how I would implement this, though. A couple of examples: 1 A contact form is submitted. After it's submitted, instead of replacing itself with a "Your mail has been sent" which limits the placement of that message, I'd like to just notify the page that the control is on with a Status message and perhaps a suggested behaviour. So, a message would include the text to render as well as an enum like DisplayAs.Popup or DisplayAs.Success 2 An Article Control queries the database for an Article object. Database returns an Exception. Custom Exception is passed to the page along with the DisplayAs.Error enum. The page handles this error and displays it wherever the errors go. I'm trying to accomplish something similar to the ValidationSummary Control, except that I want the page to be able to display the messages as the enum feels fit. Again, I don't want to tightly bind or rely a control existing on the Page. I want the controls to raise these events, but the page can ignore them if it wants. Am I going about this the right way? I'd love a code sample just to get me started. I know this is a more involved question, so I'll wait longer before voting/choosing the answers.

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  • Django Getting RequestContext in custom tag

    - by greggory.hz
    I'm trying to create a custom tag. Inside this custom tag, I want to be able to have some logic that checks if the user is logged in, and then have the tag rendered accordingly. This is what I have: class UserActionNode(template.Node): def __init__(self): pass def render(self, context): if context.user.is_authenticated(): return render_to_string('layout_elements/sign_in_register.html'); else: return render_to_string('layout_elements/logout_settings.html'); def user_actions(parser, test): return UserActionNode() register.tag('user_actions', user_actions) When I run this, I get this error: Caught AttributeError while rendering: 'Context' object has no attribute 'user' The view that renders this looks like this: return render_to_response('start/home.html', {}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) Why doesn't the tag get a RequestContext object instead of the Context object? How can I get the tag to receive the RequestContext instead of the Context? EDIT: Whether or not it's possible to get a RequestContext inside a custom tag, I'd still be interested to know the "correct" or best way to determine a user's authentication state from within the custom tag. If that's not possible, then perhaps that kind of logic belongs elsewhere? Where?

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  • Best way to not update empty posts

    - by user1533106
    Hello, Im using codeigniter, and the page in case just update infos about an user. If the user go to the page and edit values and that posts come as "" or empty (samething) then no update it let the query pass it, i got a logic but its a bit ugly and ill take alot of time. $nome = "'nome' =>" . $this->input->post('nome') . "'"; $sobrenome = "'sobrenome' =>" . $this->input->post('sobrenome') . "'"; if($nome != ""){ $nome = "'nome' =>" . $this->input->post('nome') . "'"; }else{ $nome = ""; } if($sobrenome != ""){ $sobrenome = "'sobrenome' =>" . $this->input->post('sobrenome') . "'"; }else{ $sobrenome = ""; } $data = array($nome, $sobrenome); The problem is, i got alot of fields :( If anyone know a smart way or a better way, please i want know

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  • Security of Flex for payment website

    - by Mario
    So, it's been about 3 years since I wrote and went live with my company's main internet facing website. Originally written in php, I've since just been making minor changes here and there to progress the site as we've needed to. I've wanted to rewrite it from the ground up in the last year or so and now, we want to add some major features so this is a perfect time. The website in question is as close to a banking website as you'd get (without being a bank; sorry for the obscurity, but the less info I can give out, the better). For the rewrite, I want to separate the presentation layer from the processing layer as much as I can. I want the end user to be stuck in a box and not be able to get out so to speak (this is all because of PCI complacency, being PEN tested every 3 months, etc...) So, being probed every 3 months has increasingly made me nervous. We haven't failed yet and there hasen't been a breach yet, but I want to make sure I continue to pass (as much as I can anyways) So, I'm considering rewriting the presentation layer in Adobe Flex and do all the processing in PHP (effectively IMO, separating presentation from processing) - I would do all my normal form validation in flex (as opposed to javascript or php) and do my reads and writes to the db via php. My questions are: I know Flash has something like 99% market penetration - do people find this to be true? Has anyone seen on their own sites being in flash that someone couldn't access it? Flash in general has come under alot of attacks about security and the like - i know this. I would use a swf encryptor - disable debugging (which i got snagged on once on a different application), continue to use https and any other means i can think of. At the end of the day, everyone knows if someone wants in to the data bad enough, their going to find a ways in; i just wanna make it as difficult for them as i can. Any thoughts are appreciated. -Mario

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  • Setting up a view to draw to in Objective-C (iPhone) ?

    - by Johannes Jensen
    Okay, so, I'm all new to iPhone and stuff, but I'm not even at programming, I have many years of experience with ActionScript 2.0 and 3.0, I want to set up a view, that I can also pass variables to. The view is gonna draw everything with Quartz. I tried to make another game where I tried to add a pointer to a NSMutableArray to the view class, but it didn't work cause I didn't know how to store an actual class. I wanted to do like: [myView setNeedsDisplay]; but I had to do [(View*)self.view setNeedsDisplay]; didn't really work out in the end... Okay, so now I got: - (void) viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; viewClass = [[View class] retain]; gameView = [[[viewClass alloc] initWithFrame: CGRectZero] retain]; [gameView setNeedsDisplay]; } This is in my drawInContext:context, which is fired by drawRect: Also, my drawRect does [self drawInContext: UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext()]; CGContextSetStrokeColorWithColor(context, [[UIColor blackColor] CGColor]); CGContextSetLineWidth(context, 3.0); CGContextSetLineCap(context, kCGLineCapRound); CGContextSetLineJoin(context, kCGLineJoinRound); CGMutablePathRef aPath = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(aPath, nil, 5, 5); CGPathAddLineToPoint(aPath, nil, 45, 43); CGContextAddPath(context, aPath); CGContextStrokePath(context); Nothing happens. Help? Oh yeah, I get this error: : invalid context for each time I use those functions. :[ Thanks!

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  • MVC design pattern in complex iPad app: is one fat controller acceptable?

    - by nutsmuggler
    I am building a complex iPad application; think of it as a scrapbook. For the purpose of this question, let's consider a page with two images over it. My main view displays my doc data rendered as a single UIImage; this because I need to do some global manipulation over them. This is my DisplayView. When editing I need to instantiate an EditorView with my two images as subviews; this way I can interact with a single image, (rotate it, scale it, move it). When editing is triggered, I hide my DisplayView and show my EditorView. In a iPhone app, I'd associate each main view (that is, a view filling the screen) to a view controller. The problem is here there is just one view controller; I've considered passing the EditorView via a modal view controller, but it's not an option (there a complex layout with a mask covering everything and palettes over it; rebuilding it in the EditorView would create duplicate code). Presently the EditorView incorporates some logic (loads data from the model, invokes some subviews for fine editing, saves data back to the model); EditorView subviews also incorporate some logic (I manipulate images and pass them back to the main EditorView). I feel this logic belongs more to a controller. On the other hand, I am not sure making my only view controller so fat a good idea. What is the best, cocoa-ish implementation of such a class structure? Feel free to ask for clarifications. Cheers.

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  • Will WCF allow me to use object references across boundries on objects that implement INotifyPropert

    - by zimmer62
    So I've created a series of objects that interact with a piece of hardware over a serial port. There is a thread running monitoring the serial port, and if the state of the hardware changes it updates properties in my objects. I'm using observable collections, and INotifyPropertyChanged. I've built a UI in WPF and it works great, showing me real time updating when the hardware changes and allows me to send changes to the hardware as well by changing these properties using bindings. What I'm hoping is that I can run the UI on a different machine than what the hardware is hooked up to without a lot of wiring up of events. Possibly even allow multiple UI's to connect to the same service and interact with this hardware. So far I understand I'm going to need to create a WCF service. I'm trying to figure out if I'll be able to pass a reference to an object created at the service to the client leaving events intact. So that the UI will really just be bound to a remote object. Am I moving the right direction with WCF? Also I see tons of examples for WCF in C#, are there any good practical use examples in VB that might be along the lines of what I'm trying to do?

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  • Which pattern to use for logging? Dependency Injection or Service Locator?

    - by andlju
    Consider this scenario. I have some business logic that now and then will be required to write to a log. interface ILogger { void Log(string stuff); } interface IDependency { string GetInfo(); } class MyBusinessObject { private IDependency _dependency; public MyBusinessObject(IDependency dependency) { _dependency = dependency; } public string DoSomething(string input) { // Process input var info = _dependency.GetInfo(); var intermediateResult = PerformInterestingStuff(input, info); if (intermediateResult== "SomethingWeNeedToLog") { // How do I get to the ILogger-interface? } var result = PerformSomethingElse(intermediateResult); return result; } } How would you get the ILogger interface? I see two main possibilities; Pass it using Dependency Injection on the constructor. Get it via a singleton Service Locator. Which method would you prefer, and why? Or is there an even better pattern? Update: Note that I don't need to log ALL method calls. I only want to log a few (rare) events that may or may not occur within my method.

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  • Using an embedded DB (SQLite / SQL Compact) for Message Passing within an app?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, Just out of curiosity, for applications that have a fairly complicated module tree, would something like sqlite/sql compact edition work well for message passing? So if I have modules containing data such as: \SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC, \SubSystemB\SubSubSystemC\ModuleA\ModuleDataX Using traditional message passing/routing, you have to go through intermediate modules in order to pass a message to ModuleB to request say ModuleDataC. Instead of doing that, if we we simply store "\SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC" in a sqlite database, getting that data is as simple as a sql query and needs no routing and passing stuff around. Has anyone done this before? Even if you haven't, do you foresee any issues & performance impact? The only concern I have right now would be the passing of custom types, e.g. if ModuleDataC is a custom data structure or a pointer, I'll need some way of storing the data structure into the DB or storing the pointer into the DB. Thanks, JW EDIT One usage case I haven't thought about is when you want to send a message from ModuleA to ModuleB to get ModuleB to do something rather than just getting/setting data. Is it possible to do this using an embedded DB? I believe callback from the DB would be needed, how feasible is this?

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  • How to deal with unknown entity references?

    - by Chris
    I'm parsing (a lot of) XML files that contain entity references which i dont know in advance (can't change that fact). For example: xml = "<tag>I'm content with &funny; &entity; &references;.</tag>" when i try to parse this using the following code: final DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); final DocumentBuilder db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); final InputSource is = new InputSource(new StringReader(xml)); final Document d = db.parse(is); i get the following exception: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The entity "funny" was referenced, but not declared. but, what i do want to achieve is, that the parser replaces every entity that is not declared (unknown to the parser) with an empty String ''. Or even better, is there a way to pass a map to the parser like: Map<String,String> entityMapping = ... entityMapping.put("funny","very"); entityMapping.put("entity","important"); entityMapping.put("references","stuff"); so that i could do the following: final DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); final DocumentBuilder db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); final InputSource is = new InputSource(new StringReader(xml)); db.setEntityResolver(entityMapping); final Document d = db.parse(is); if i would obtain the text from the document using this example code i should receive: I'm content with very important stuff. Any suggestions? Of course, i already would be happy to just replace the unknown entity's with empty strings. Thanks,

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  • Declaring an object of a conditional type with a System.Type

    - by Chapso
    I am attempting to launch a specific form depending on the selected node of a treeview on the doubleclick event. The code I need to use to launch the form is a little bulky becuase I have to ensure that the form is not disposed, and that the form is not already open, before launching a new instance. I'd like to have all of this checking happen in one place at the end of the function, which means that I have to be able to pass the right form type to the code at the end. I'm trying to do this with a System.Type, but that doesn't seem to be working. Could someone point me in the right direction, please? With TreeView.SelectedNode Dim formType As Type Select Case .Text Case "Email to VPs" formType = EmailForm.GetType() Case "Revise Replacers" formType = DedicatedReplacerForm.GetType() Case "Start Email" formType = EmailForm.GetType() End Select Dim form As formType Dim form As formType Try form = CType(.Tag, formType) If Not form.IsDisposed Then form.Activate() Exit Sub End If Catch ex As NullReferenceException 'This will error out the first time it is run as the form has not yet ' been defined. End Try form = New formType form.MdiParent = Me .Tag = form CType(TreeView.SelectedNode.Tag, Form).Show() End With

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  • How make this jquery function reusable?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    Comsider this jquery function, function showresults(jsonobj) { $.each(jsonobj, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span style="display: inline-block;width:150px;" class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); } Here i am iterating my json data and drawing div elements.... As you see these div elements are hardcoded how to pass these html div elements dynamically by a variable... var divs=<div></div> function showresults(jsonobj,divs) { $.each(jsonobj, function(i, employee) { divs += divs Is this correct way of doing but there will be an error employee object wont be there know when my divs variable declared outside the function... Any suggestion...

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  • Recursion Problem in PHP

    - by streetparade
    I need to create a valid xml from a given array(); My Method looks like this, protected function array2Xml($array) { $xml = ""; if(is_array($array)) { foreach($array as $key=>$value) { $xml .= "<$key>"; if(is_array($value)) { $xml .= $this->array2Xml($value); } $xml .= "</$key>"; } return $xml; } else { throw new Exception("in valid"); } } protected function createValidXMLfromArray($array,$node) { $xml = '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?>'; $xmlArray = $this->array2Xml($array); $xml .= "<$node>$xmlArray</$node>"; return $xml; } if i execute the above i just get keys with empty values; like <node> <name></name> </node> What i need is if i pass this array("name"=>"test","value"=>array("test1"=>33,"test2"=>40)); that it return this <node> <name>test</name> <value> <test1>33</test1> <test2>40</test2> </value> </node> Where is the error what did i wrong in the above recursion?

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  • OcaIDE doesn't see JoCaml tools

    - by Surikator
    I'm having a problem while using OcaIDE in ocamlbuild mode. I'm trying to compile my own JoCaml sources. According to the JoCaml manual (bottom of page), to use ocamlbuild with JoCaml, I just need to add the -use-jocaml argument to ocamlbuild. Indeed, if I go to the root of my project and write ocamlbuild -use-jocaml foo.native it generates my executable just fine. However, in OcaIDE I get /bin/sh: jocamldep: command not found In OcaIDE, the -use-jocaml flag is passed in the "Other Flags" box (in Project Properties). And that certainly is working, as the complaint is precisely that it doesn't find jocaml stuff. The puzzling thing is that jocaml is installed and can be accessed from any random terminal window. For example, running jocamldep -modules foo.ml > foo.ml.depends on my project does generate the desired dependency file. So, it would seem I would have to configure OcaIDE and tell it where JoCaml executables are or something. This is done for OCaml, for example. But there is no place to do that for JoCaml. And it's really strange that, if jocamldep/jocamlc/etc are all accessible from anywhere, OcaIDE wouldn't be able to pick them. Any ideas? (I am aware I can do an ocamlbuild plugin and pass the flag in a "myocamlbuild.ml" file. I'll probably use that a latter stage after I get familiar with ocamlbuild plugins. But here the question is about OcaIDE. EDIT: Actually, ocamlbuild plugins don't seem to be a solution as, although there is an option -use-jocaml in ocamlbuild to enforce jocaml use (and it works fine), the plugin system doesn't support it, i.e. jocaml is not in the list of options.)

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  • initWithContentsOfURL seems to have issues with "long" URLs

    - by samsam
    Hi there I'm facing a rather strange Issue when trying to load data from an XML-Webservice. The webservice allows me to pass separated identifiers within the URL-Request. It is therefore possible for the URL to become rather long (240 characters). If I open said URL in firefox the response arrives as planned, if I execute the following code xmlData remains empty. NSString *baseUrl = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[[[[kSearchDateTimeRequestTV stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"{LANG}" withString:appLanguageCode] stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"{IDENTIFIERS}" withString:myIdentifiers] stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"{STARTTICKS}" withString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [[startTime getTicks] descriptionWithLocale:nil]]] stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"{ENDTICKS}" withString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [[endTime getTicks] descriptionWithLocale:nil]]]]; NSLog(baseUrl); //looks good, if openend in browser, returnvalue is ok urlRequest = [NSURL URLWithString:baseUrl]; NSString *xmlData = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:urlRequest encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding error:&err]; //err is nil, therefore i guess everything must be ok... :( NSLog(xmlData); //nothing... is there any sort of URL-Length restriction, does the same problem happened to anyone of you as well? whats a good workaround? thanks for your help sam

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  • C++ arrays as parameters, EDIT: now includes variable scoping

    - by awshepard
    Alright, I'm guessing this is an easy question, so I'll take the knocks, but I'm not finding what I need on google or SO. I'd like to create an array in one place, and populate it inside a different function. I define a function: void someFunction(double results[]) { for (int i = 0; i<100; ++i) { for (int n = 0; n<16; ++n) //note this iteration limit { results[n] += i * n; } } } That's an approximation to what my code is doing, but regardless, shouldn't be running into any overflow or out of bounds issues or anything. I generate an array: double result[16]; for(int i = 0; i<16; i++) { result[i] = -1; } then I want to pass it to someFunction someFunction(result); When I set breakpoints and step through the code, upon entering someFunction, results is set to the same address as result, and the value there is -1.000000 as expected. However, when I start iterating through the loop, results[n] doesn't seem to resolve to *(results+n) or *(results+n*sizeof(double)), it just seems to resolve to *(results). What I end up with is that instead of populating my result array, I just get one value. What am I doing wrong? EDIT Oh fun, I have a typo: it wasn't void someFunction(double results[]). It was: void someFunction(double result[])... So perhaps this is turning into a scoping question. If my double result[16] array is defined in a main.cpp, and someFunction is defined in a Utils.h file that's included by the main.cpp, does the result variable in someFunction then wreak havoc on the result array in main?

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  • If I cast an IQueryable as an IEnumerable then call a Linq extension method, which implementation gets called?

    - by James Morcom
    Considering the following code: IQueryable<T> queryable; // something to instantiate queryable var enumerable = (IEnumerable<T>) queryable; var filtered = enumerable.Where(i => i > 3); In the final line, which extension method gets called? Is it IEnumerable<T>.Where(...)? Or will IQueryable<T>.Where(...) be called because the actual implementation is still obviously a queryable? Presumably the ideal would be for the IQueryable version to be called, in the same way that normal polymorphism will always use the more specific override. In Visual Studio though when I right-click on the Where method and "Go to Definition" I'm taken to the IEnumerable version, which kind of makes sense from a visual point-of-view. My main concern is that if somewhere in my app I use Linq to NHibernate to get a Queryable, but I pass it around using an interface that uses the more general IEnumerable signature, I'll lose the wonders of deferred database execution!

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  • Jquery passing an HTML element into a function

    - by christian
    I have an HTML form where I am going to copy values from a series of input fields to some spans/headings as the user populates the input fields. I am able to get this working using the following code: $('#source').keyup(function(){ if($("#source").val().length == 0){ $("#destinationTitle").text('Sample Title'); }else{ $("#destinationTitle").text($("#source").val()); } }); In the above scenario the html is something like: Sample Title Basically, as the users fills out the source box, the text of the is changed to the value of the source input. If nothing is input in, or the user deletes the values typed into the box some default text is placed in the instead. Pretty straightforward. However, since I need to make this work for many different fields, it makes sense to turn this into a generic function and then bind that function to each 's onkeyup() event. But I am having some trouble with this. My implementation: function doStuff(source,target,defaultValue) { if($(source).val().length == 0){ $(target).text(defaultValue); }else{ $(target).text($(source).val()); } } which is called as follows: $('#source').keyup(function() { doStuff(this, '"#destinationTitle"', 'SampleTitle'); }); What I can't figure out is how to pass the second parameter, the name of the destination html element into the function. I have no problem passing in the element I'm binding to via "this", but can't figure out the destination element syntax. Any help would be appreciated - many thanks!

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