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  • Webkit browsers rendering CSS different than Mozilla Firefox...Why??

    - by JAG2007
    I'm styling a form that was already marked up (made some markup changes), and I normally work in Firefox to style so I can use firebug and the web developer toolbar. On this project, I noticed that my styles are displaying quite differently for one particular area (several elements) in webkit based browsers Chrome and Safari, than in Firefox (we won't even get into Internet Explorer, although it is siding with the Firefox display). I can't figure out though why the styles are displaying so differently. Normally there is some rule that I'm neglecting that Firefox just takes for granted, and the others need it specified. But here I'm not getting why it's displaying this way. In particular I'm referring to the bottom area of the form where users can enter their contact info, then submit the form. I'll attach screen shots for reference as to the discrepancy. Here's the URL so feel free to check it out on your own. Although be advised that this is a production page (already released) so if you try out the form, you WILL BE added to CURE's contact database. http://www.helpcurenow.org/survey2010 Here's the screen shots: Firefox (the way I intend it to look) Chrome, and then Safari - strange change to submit button As a bonus, if anybody wants to help me with figuring out why on earth IE7 wants to not show the background behind the questions only, and how to fix that I would be much obliged! Thanks very much.

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  • How to make an AJAX call immediately on document loading

    - by Ankur
    I want to execute an ajax call as soon as a document is loaded. What I am doing is loading a string that contains data that I will use for an autocomplete feature. This is what I have done, but it is not calling the servlet. I have removed the calls to the various JS scripts to make it clearer. I have done several similar AJAX calls in my code but usually triggered by a click event, I am not sure what the syntax for doing it as soon as the document loads, but I thought this would be it (but it's not): <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "AutoComplete", dataType: 'json', data: queryString, success: function(data) { var dataArray = data; alert(dataArray); } }); $("#example").autocomplete(dataArray); }); </script> <title></title> </head> <body> API Reference: <form><input id="example"> (try "C" or "E")</form> </body> </html>

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  • How to force inclusion of an object file in a static library when linking into executable?

    - by Brian Bassett
    I have a C++ project that due to its directory structure is set up as a static library A, which is linked into shared library B, which is linked into executable C. (This is a cross-platform project using CMake, so on Windows we get A.lib, B.dll, and C.exe, and on Linux we get libA.a, libB.so, and C.) Library A has an init function (A_init, defined in A/initA.cpp), that is called from library B's init function (B_init, defined in B/initB.cpp), which is called from C's main. Thus, when linking B, A_init (and all symbols defined in initA.cpp) is linked into B (which is our desired behavior). The problem comes in that the A library also defines a function (Af, defined in A/Afort.f) that is intended to by dynamically loaded (i.e. LoadLibrary/GetProcAddress on Windows and dlopen/dlsym on Linux). Since there are no references to Af from library B, symbols from A/Afort.o are not included into B. On Windows, we can artifically create a reference by using the pragma: #pragma comment (linker, "/export:_Af") Since this is a pragma, it only works on Windows (using Visual Studio 2008). To get it working on Linux, we've tried adding the following to A/initA.cpp: extern void Af(void); static void (*Af_fp)(void) = &Af; This does not cause the symbol Af to be included in the final link of B. How can we force the symbol Af to be linked into B?

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  • Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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  • Travelling Visual Studio developers

    - by Graphain
    Hi, I am about to travel to Europe (I'm Australian but imagine this is a similar circumstance for US users and simply flipped for European users). However, there is the slim possibility I will need to do some Visual Studio work while I'm travelling. As I see it I have three options: Leave a desktop PC on at home, access remotely via net cafes. Carry a laptop with me on the trip, upload files as required using public wifi. Option 2 but instead buy cheap light netbook that is miraculously capable of running VS. Does anyone have any experience or advice to shed on any of these options? For reference, this existing post suggests that VS remotely for short distances is okay, but over longer distances could be more problematic. I've used VS via RDP to a US server before and it was pretty laggy but for small changes I could get by. Concerns I have that you may have some experience with: Weight of luggage (ideally like to travel light) Security of laptop (imagine it'll be too heavy to carry around all the time so have to leave it at hotel/hostel etc. and hope for the best) Security of data (don't want someone stealing RDP access to my home PC) Security of FTP (don't want someone stealing FTP passwords over wireless)

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  • Why does grails use hsqldb when I ask for mysql?

    - by John
    I'm following the racetrack example from Jason Rudolph's book at InfoQ, using grails-1.2.1. I got up to the part where I was to switch from hsqldb to mysql. I think I've deleted every reference to hsqldb in the DataSource.groovy file, but I get an exception and the stack trace shows it's still using hsqldb. DataSource.groovy dataSource { boolean pooled = true String driverClassName = "com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" String url = "jdbc:mysql://localhost/dfpc2" String dbCreate = "create" String username = "dfpc2" String password = "dfpc2" dialect = org.hibernate.dialect.MySQL5InnoDBDialect } hibernate { cache.use_second_level_cache=true cache.use_query_cache=true cache.provider_class='net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.EhCacheProvider' } // environment specific settings environments { development { } test { } production { } } When I grails run-app it all starts up with no errors. I can navigate to the home page. But when I click on one of the links, I get a stack trace: java.sql.SQLException: Table not found in statement [select this_.id as id0_0_, this_.version as version0_0_, this_.name as name0_0_, this_.variant as variant0_0_ from domainObject this_ limit ?] at org.hsqldb.jdbc.Util.throwError(Unknown Source) at org.hsqldb.jdbc.jdbcPreparedStatement.<init>(Unknown Source) at org.hsqldb.jdbc.jdbcConnection.prepareStatement(Unknown Source) at dfpc2.domainObjectController$_closure2.doCall(script1269434425504953491149.groovy:13) at dfpc2.domainObjectController$_closure2.doCall(script1269434425504953491149.groovy) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) My mysql database shows no tables created. (I don't think groovy's connected to mysql yet.) Things I've checked: mysql-connector-java-5.1.6.jar is in lib directory. I've tried grails clean I tried putting the dataSource info in the development environment (I haven't graduated to test or prod yet), but it seemed to make no difference. The stdout shows I'm using development env. I've googled for solutions, but the only solution I've found is when people don't change the test or production environments.

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  • Is it possible to navigate to the parent node of a matched node during XSLT processing?

    - by Darin
    I'm working with an OpenXML document, processing the main document part with some XSLT. I've selected a set of nodes via <xsl:template match="w:sdt"> </xsl:template> In most cases, I simply need to replace that matched node with something else, and that works fine. BUT, in some cases, I need to replace not the w:sdt node that matched, but the closest w:p ancestor node (ie the first paragraph node that contains the sdt node). The trick is that the condition used to decide one or the other is based on data derived from the attributes of the sdt node, so I can't use a typical xslt xpath filter. I'm trying to do something like this <xsl:template match="w:sdt"> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test={first condition}> {apply whatever templating is necessary} </xsl:when> <xsl:when test={exception condition}> <!-- select the parent of the ancestor w:p nodes and apply the appropriate templates --> <xsl:apply-templates select="(ancestor::w:p)/.." mode="backout" /> </xsl:when> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template> <!-- by using "mode", only this template will be applied to those matching nodes from the apply-templates above --> <xsl:template match="node()" mode="backout"> {CUSTOM FORMAT the node appropriately} </xsl:template> This whole concept works, BUT no matter what I've tried, It always applies the formatting from the CUSTOM FORMAT template to the w:p node, NOT it's parent node. It's almost as if you can't reference a parent from a matching node. And maybe you can't, but I haven't found any docs that say you can't Any ideas?

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  • Moving from NHibernate to FluentNHibernate: assembly error (related to versions)?

    - by goober
    Not sure where to start, but I had gotten the most recent version of NHibernate, successfully mapped the most simple of business objects, etc. When trying to move to FluentNHibernate and do the same thing, I got this error message on build: "System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'NHibernate, Version=2.1.0.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference." Background: I'm new to Hibernate, NHibernate, and FluentNHibernate -- but not to .NET, C#, etc. Database I have a database table called Category: (PK) CategoryID (type: int), unique, auto-incrementing UserID (type: uniqueidentifier) -- given the value of the user Guid in ASP.NET database Title (type: varchar(50) -- the title of the category Components involved: I have a SessionProviderClass which creates the mapping to the database I have a Category class which has all the virtual methods for FluentNHibernate to override I have a CategoryMap : ClassMap class, which does the fluent mappings for the entity I have a CategoryRepository class that contains the method to add & save the category I have the TestCatAdd.aspx file which uses the CategoryRepository class. Would be happy to post code for any of those, but I'm not sure that it's necessary, as I think the issue is that somewhere there's a version conflict between what FluentNHibernate references and the NHibernate I have installed from before. Thanks in advance for any help you can give!

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  • Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

    - by CL4NCY
    Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

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  • Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

    - by George Crawford
    Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

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  • How to Object Array to List

    - by Peter Black
    (C#) I have 2 classes. 1 is called Employee. The other is my "main". I am trying to take a list and assign each value in list to an array of Employee object. //Inside "Main" class int counter = NameList.Count; Employee[] employee = new Employee[counter]; for (int i = 0; i <= counter; i++) { employee[i].Name = NameList[i]; employee[i].EmpNumber = EmpNumList[i]; employee[i].DateOfHire = DOHList[i]; employee[i].Salary = SalaryList[i]; employee[i].JobDescription = JobDescList[i]; employee[i].Department = DeptList[i]; } This returns the error: An unhandled exception of type 'System.NullReferenceException' occurred in Pgm4.exe Additional information: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. I think this means that I am not calling the list properly. Any help would be much appreciated. Thank you.

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  • Change Rectangle Fill Based on ColumnWidth of a grid

    - by Coesy
    Essentially i want to do as the title says, if the columnwidth is .50 then the rectangle should be red, if it's .75 then it should be amber, and if it's 1 then it should be green. I thought I could achieve this with DataTriggers but for some reason I am getting "Object Reference Not Set To An Instance Of An Object" error, here is my code, am I missing something here? FYI the width property will be changed in the backend through a timer_tick event. <Grid x:Name="Grid1" Width="300" Height="30"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition x:Name="MyColumn1" Width=".50*"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition x:Name="MyColumn2" Width=".50*"></ColumnDefinition> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value=".50*"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Red"></Setter> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value=".75*"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Yellow"></Setter> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value="1"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Green"></Setter> </DataTrigger> </Grid.Triggers> <Rectangle x:Name="rect" Grid.Column="0" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"></Rectangle> <Rectangle Grid.Column="1" Fill="Blue"></Rectangle> </Grid>

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  • How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

    - by BenA
    I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

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  • Getting a gestureoverlayview

    - by Codejoy
    I have been using some nice tutorials on drawing graphics on my android. I wanted to also add in the cool gesture demo found here: http://developer.android.com/resources/articles/gestures.html That takes these lines of code: GestureOverlayView gestures = (GestureOverlayView) findViewById(R.id.gestures); gestures.addOnGesturePerformedListener(this); This is fine and dandy yet I realize in my demo i'm trying to build using code from "Playing with Graphics in Android". The demos make sense, everything makes sense but I found out by using: setContentView(new Panel(this)); as is required by the Playing With Graphics tutorials, then the findViewById seems to no longer be valid and returns null. At first I was about to post a stupider question as to why this is happening, a quick test of playing with the setContentView made me realize the cause of findViewById returning null, I just do not know how to remedy this issue. Whats the key I am missing here? I realize that the new Panel is doinking some reference up but I am not sure how to make the connection here. The: R.id.gestures is defined right int he main.xml as: (just like the tutorial) <android.gesture.GestureOverlayView android:id="@+id/gestures" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="0dip" android:layout_weight="1.0" /> So I did confirm the setContentView(new Panel(this)) is causing the issue. So I know the issue is that I have to figure out how to add the android.gesture.GestureOverlayView to the panel class somehow, I am just not sure how to go about this. After fighting with this I generally know what I need to do just now how to do it. I think I need either the equivalent of creating a panel in that main.xml OR figuring out how to build whats in main.xml for the gestures in code. I am close because I did this: GestureOverlayView gestures = new GestureOverlayView(this); which gets me a non null gestures now, unfortunately since I am not telling it to fill Parent anywhere I don't think its really showing up, so I am trying hard to figure out layout pa rams. Am I even on the right track?

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  • Square Brackets in Python Regular Expressions (re.sub)

    - by user1479984
    I'm migrating wiki pages from the FlexWiki engine to the FOSwiki engine using Python regular expressions to handle the differences between the two engines' markup languages. The FlexWiki markup and the FOSwiki markup, for reference. Most of the conversion works very well, except when I try to convert the renamed links. Both wikis support renamed links in their markup. For example, Flexwiki uses: "Link To Wikipedia":[http://www.wikipedia.org/] FOSwiki uses: [[http://www.wikipedia.org/][Link To Wikipedia]] both of which produce something that looks like I'm using the regular expression renameLink = re.compile ("\"(?P<linkName>[^\"]+)\":\[(?P<linkTarget>[^\[\]]+)\]") to parse out the link elements from the FlexWiki markup, which after running through something like "Link Name":[LinkTarget] is reliably producing groups <linkName> = Link Name <linkTarget = LinkTarget My issue occurs when I try to use re.sub to insert the parsed content into the FOSwiki markup. My experience with regular expressions isn't anything to write home about, but I'm under the impression that, given the groups <linkName> = Link Name <linkTarget = LinkTarget a line like line = renameLink.sub ( "[[\g<linkTarget>][\g<linkName>]]" , line ) should produce [[LinkTarget][Link Name]] However, in the output to the text files I'm getting [[LinkTarget [[Link Name]] which breaks the renamed links. After a little bit of fiddling I managed a workaround, where line = renameLink.sub ( "[[\g<linkTarget>][ [\g<linkName>]]" , line ) produces [[LinkTarget][ [[Link Name]] which, when displayed in FOSwiki looks like <[[Link Name> <--- Which WORKS, but isn't very pretty. I've also tried line = renameLink.sub ( "[[\g<linkTarget>]" + "[\g<linkName>]]" , line ) which is producing [[linkTarget [[linkName]] There are probably thousands of instances of these renamed links in the pages I'm trying to convert, so fixing it by hand isn't any good. For the record I've run the script under Python 2.5.4 and Python 2.7.3, and gotten the same results. Am I missing something really obvious with the syntax? Or is there an easy workaround?

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  • Fluent NHibernate - How to map the foreign key column as a property

    - by Steve
    I am sure this is a straightforward question but consider the following: I have a reference between company and sector as follows: public class Company { public Guid ID { get; set; } public Sector Sector { get; set; } public Guid SectorID { get; set; } } public class Sector { public Guid ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Ok. What I want is the SectorID of the Company object to be populated after I go: (new Company()).Sector = new Sector() { Name="asdf" } and do a flush. The mapping I am using kindly creates an additional column in the database called Sector_Id in the Company table, but this is not available as a property on Company. I want the SectorID property to be filled. The mapping i am currently using in the CompanyMap is References(c = c.Sector).Cascade.All(); Does anyone have any ideas?

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  • Dynamically cast a control type in runtime

    - by JayT
    Hello, I have an application whereby I dynamically create controls on a form from a database. This works well, but my problem is the following: private Type activeControlType; private void addControl(ContainerControl inputControl, string ControlName, string Namespace, string ControlDisplayText, DataRow drow, string cntrlName) { Assembly assem; Type myType = Type.GetType(ControlName + ", " + Namespace); assem = Assembly.GetAssembly(myType); Type controlType = assem.GetType(ControlName); object obj = Activator.CreateInstance(controlType); Control tb = (Control)obj; tb.Click += new EventHandler(Cntrl_Click); inputControl.Controls.Add(tb); activeControlType = controlType; } private void Cntrl_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string test = ((activeControlType)sender).Text; //Problem ??? } How do I dynamically cast the sender object to a class that I can reference the property fields of it. I have googled, and found myself trying everything I have come across..... Now I am extremely confused... and in need of some help Thnx JT

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  • JVM to ignore certificate name mismatch

    - by Heavy Bytes
    I know there were a lot of questions/answers about how to ignore SSL error in the code. On our dev region dev.domain.tld we have configured a app server over SSL. The certificate that is displayed is for somedev.domain.tld. There is no way to change the certificate, it will always be a domain mismatch. So when I deploy a web-service to https://dev.domain.tld and try to connect/call my webservice I get an exception: Caused by: java.security.cert.CertificateException: No name matching dev.domain.tld found And I have the somedev.domain.tld CERT in my trust store. Now, I saw a lot of samples how to change that in the code (using a Trust Manager that accepts all domains), but how do I specify to the JVM to ignore the domain mismatch when connecting to the server? Is there a -Djavax.net.ssl argument or something? Thank you! UPDATE: Or, since I am using Spring-WS, is there a way to set some property in Spring for that? (WebServiceTemplate) UPDATE I guess I'll have to do use something from Spring Security: http://static.springsource.org/spring-ws/sites/1.5/reference/html/security.html

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  • How can I accelerate the generation of the an MD5 Checksum within vb.net?

    - by Richard
    I'm working with some very large files residing on P2 (Panasonic) cards. Part of the process we employ is to first generate a checksum of the file we are going to copy, then copy the file, then run a checksum on the file to confirm that it copied OK. The problem is, is that files are large (70 GB+) and take a long time to complete. It's an issue since we will eventually be dealing with thousands of these files. I would like to find a faster way to generate the checksum other than using the System.Security.Cryptography.MD5CryptoServiceProvider I don't care if this means using a specialized hardware card, provided it works and is not to ungodly expensive. I would prefer to have a method of encoding that provided some feedback as to how far the process has gone along so I can display it like I do now. The application is written in vb.net. I would prefer to be able to use it as component, library, reference within my application, but I'm willing to call an outside application if there is enough improvement in the speed of generating the checksum. Needless to say, the checksum must be consistent and correct. :-) Thank you in advance for your time and efforts, Richard

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  • adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

    - by duncanUK
    I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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  • how does MySQL implement the "group by"?

    - by user188916
    I read from the MySQL Reference Manual and find that when it can take use of index,it just do index scan,other it will create tmp tables and do things like filesort. And I also read from other article that the "Group By" result will sort by group by columns by default,if "order by null" clause added,it won't don filesort. The difference can be found from the "explain ..." clause. so my problem is:what is the difference between "group by" clause that with "order by null" and which doesn't have? I try to use profiling to see what mysql do on the background,and only see result like: result for group clause without order by null: |preparing | 0.000016 | | Creating tmp table | 0.000048 | | executing | 0.000009 | | Copying to tmp table | 0.000109 | **| Sorting result | 0.000023 |** | Sending data | 0.000027 | result for clause with "order by null": preparing | 0.000016 | | Creating tmp table | 0.000052 | | executing | 0.000009 | | Copying to tmp table | 0.000114 | | Sending data | 0.000028 | So I guess what MySQL do when the "order by null" added,it does not use filesort algorithm,maybe when it creates the tmp table,it uses index as well,and then use the index to do group by operation,when completed,it just read result from the table rows and does not sort the result. But my original opinion is that MySQL can use quicksort to sort the items and then do group by,so the result will be sorted as well. Any opinion appreciated,thanks.

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  • Compound Primary Key in Hibernate using Annotations

    - by Rich
    Hi, I have a table which uses two columns to represent its primary key, a transaction id and then the sequence number. I tried what was recommended http://docs.jboss.org/hibernate/stable/annotations/reference/en/html_single/#entity-mapping in section 2.2.3.2.2, but when I used the Hibernate session to commit this Entity object, it leaves out the TXN_ID field in the insert statement and only includes the BA_SEQ field! What's going wrong? Here's the related code excerpt: @Id @Column(name="TXN_ID") private long txn_id; public long getTxnId(){return txn_id;} public void setTxnId(long t){this.txn_id=t;} @Id @Column(name="BA_SEQ") private int seq; public int getSeq(){return seq;} public void setSeq(int s){this.seq=s;} And here are some log statements to show what exactly happens to fail: In createKeepTxnId of DAO base class: about to commit Transaction :: txn_id->90625 seq->0 ...<Snip>... Hibernate: insert into TBL (BA_ACCT_TXN_ID, BA_AUTH_SRVC_TXN_ID, BILL_SRVC_ID, BA_BILL_SRVC_TXN_ID, BA_CAUSE_TXN_ID, BA_CHANNEL, CUSTOMER_ID, BA_MERCHANT_FREETEXT, MERCHANT_ID, MERCHANT_PARENT_ID, MERCHANT_ROOT_ID, BA_MERCHANT_TXN_ID, BA_PRICE, BA_PRICE_CRNCY, BA_PROP_REQS, BA_PROP_VALS, BA_REFERENCE, RESERVED_1, RESERVED_2, RESERVED_3, SRVC_PROD_ID, BA_STATUS, BA_TAX_NAME, BA_TAX_RATE, BA_TIMESTAMP, BA_SEQ) values (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) [WARN] util.JDBCExceptionReporter SQL Error: 1400, SQLState: 23000 [ERROR] util.JDBCExceptionReporter ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into ("SCHEMA"."TBL"."TXN_ID") The important thing to note is I print out the entity object which has a txn_id set, and then the following insert into statement does not include TXN_ID in the listing and thus the NOT NULL table constraint rejects the query.

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  • Is there a way to automatically load navigational property using the .NET Entity Framework?

    - by René Wolferink
    Stepping away more and more from writing SQL for my applications, I decided to give the Entity Framework a try. However, I've run into something I believe is causing me to write more code than I think is strictly necessary. When I accessed some navigational properties, I discovered that all many-to-one relations (simple references) were null and all one-to-many and many-to-many relations (EntityCollections) were empty. For example: I have a User with a reference to a Group. When I have retieved a User, by using a simple select-by-id, the Group property is null. If I want to access the Group I have to manually load it (using User.GroupReference.Load()). So I added a GetGroup() method in User which checks whether the Group is loaded already and, if not, does so and then returns the Group. Now this will result in a lot of highly similar methods for all navigational properties. And it all results in the navigational properties not being used, only my custom-made Get"PropertyName"() method's are now being used. I don't want to expand my queries (linq to entities) to immediately load all these properties, because it's not always known at first what is needed. And besides, it would cause a lot of queries to have to be made. Is there a way to configure the Entity Framework to load these objects when they happen to not be present? So when I access User.Group and the group is not loaded yet, it is loaded automatically? Or am I stuck using my own Get"PropertyName"() method's as long as I'm trying to load objects only on demand (or "just-in-time")? Some extra info: I'm using VS2008 SP1 with .NET 3.5 SP1. The Entity Framework I'm using is the one that got shipped with it.

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  • What does it mean to pass a &variable to a function? E.g., string& insert ( size_t pos1, const strin

    - by Bob Montgomery
    I understand passing a pointer, and returning a pointer: char * strcat ( char * destination, const char * source ); You're passing a variable that contains the address to a char; returning the same. But what does it mean to pass something using the reference operator? Or to return it? string& insert ( size_t pos1, const string& str ); I mean, I understand what actually happens, I just don't understand the notation. Why isn't the notation this instead: string * insert ( size_t pos1, const string * str ); //made up I presume it has something to do with passing/returning the instance of a class, but what? Is this syntax valid; if not why not and if so what does it mean? char & strcat ( char & destination, const char & source ); //made up (all of the function declarations, except the last made-up two, are from http://www.cplusplus.com )

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  • Maven + SSDM Build and Runtime Environment Automation

    - by Randy
    Preface: My Company, like most, has several run-time environments and several release versions which themselves are composed of different versions of various jars. For example, let us consider release versions 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3 of Software X, which may be deployed to a developer computer, testing, or production. Software-x-1.1 is itself composed of jarA-0.9.1 and jarB-0.7.5, but software-x-1.3 is composed of jarA-1.7.31 and jarB-0.8.1. Currently we use Spring's PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer to configure run-time variables (such as database credentials), however, properties also change with release versions. We also use Maven 2 POM version 4 to specify which versions of our code need to be used. We place the version numbers of our jars as properties within profiles (dev,test,prod) inside of the parent pom and then reference those version numbers in all project poms. As of right now, we have no way to specify which project versions pertain to a given release other than the most current one. Moreover, we deploy our run-time configurations to the SSDM pickup which then configures and creates the services defined by the built versions of our software. -- Questions: Is there any procedure/tool we can use to build our product by merely providing the run-time environment and version number? IE "build 1.1 dev"? Is there anyway we can store the required jar versions for each release build? We are currently versioning all files, including the parent pom, but merely versioning the parent pom does not record which release version is pertinent to that parent pom. What else can we do to further automate the process of builds? For example, if we could manage run-time configurations within the parent pom that would be a step in the right direction, but that seems like a violation of scope. Any tool outside of our framework is inconceivable at this point, but not in the far future. Summary: How can we automate our build process to the fullest extent without being error prone?

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