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  • casting vs using the 'as' keyword in the CLR

    - by Frank V
    I'm learning about design patterns and because of that I've ended using a lot of interfaces. One of my "goals" is to program to an interface, not an implementation. What I've found is that I'm doing a lot of casting or object type conversion. What I'd like to know is if there is a difference between these two methods of conversion: public interface IMyInterface { void AMethod(); } public class MyClass : IMyInterface { public void AMethod() { //Do work } // other helper methods.... } public class Implementation { IMyInterface _MyObj; MyClass _myCls1; MyClass _myCls2; public Implementation() { _MyObj = new MyClass(); // What is the difference here: _myCls1 = (MyClass)_MyObj; _myCls2 = (_MyObj as MyClass); } } If there is a difference, is there a cost difference or how does this affect my program? Hopefully this makes sense. Sorry for the bad example; it is all I could think of... Update: What is "in general" the preferred method? (I had a question similar to this posted in the 'answers'. I moved it up here at the suggestion of Michael Haren. Also, I want to thank everyone who's provided insight and perspective on my question.

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  • Phonegap: Will my mobile app 'feel' faster or slower once ported to phonegap?

    - by user15872
    So I'm designing everything in mobile Safari and I know that phonegap is essentially a stripped webview but... Question: Will my application will run better in phonegap? (revised below) a)I imagine my navigation and core app will load faster as the scripts and images are on the hard drive. Is this True? b)I assume since they've been working on it for 2 years now that they may have made some optimizations to make it quicker than just an average safari window. Is this true? (Assuming both html5/js/css code bases are pretty much the same and app is running on iOS.) Update: Sorry, I meant to compare apples to slightly different apples. Question 1 revised: Will my app see any performance benefits running with in a phonegap environment vs standard mobile safari? (compare mobile - to mobile) 1b) In what ways, other than loading time has phonegap optimized performance over standard mobile safari? Follow ups: 1) Are there any pitfalls, other than large libraries, that may cause phonegap to suffer a serious performance hit vs stand mobile safari? 2) Can I mix native and webview rendering? (i.e the top half of my app is rendered in with html/css/js and the bottom half native)

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  • ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Extended Class Field Binding

    - by user336858
    Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to get automatic View Object binding for fields defined in a partial class for a Linq-To-SQL generated class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Postclass to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So here's my question: If a user is accessing my MVC application front-end and begins editing a Post object, they might enter an invalid category. When the server recognizes the invalid input, the usual practice is to return the faulty object to the original view for re-editing along with some error messages. The fields in the edit page are re-populated with the provided values. However I don't know how to get this mechanism to work with the properties I created with the partial class as shown above. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

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  • Want to mimic iphone address book search (In terms of interface & interaction)

    - by mr-sk
    Hi, When you do a search in the address book the flow is: 1) Select the search bar 2) The right most transparent a-z index is removed 3) A transparent black window is placed over the current UITableView 4) When you begin typing, a new UITableView is loaded with no data 5) The UITableView is populated with data as you type. 6) If you select an item you are brought to it 7) If you cancel the search you return to the main UITalbeView My first real question is, how do I load a new UITableView when a user begins searching? Is it as easy as popping a new view on the stack? It would then be a seperate .m/.h file with its own implementation? The second question is how do you remove the right most index? Or just that just go away when you render the new (blank) UITableView? I've gotten search working, but mine does it in the same UITableView, which when you start contains like 2K results, is grouped (A results under A Heading, etc) and has a right most index. I'd be happy leaving the results in the table, if I could; 1) Remove the rightmost a-z index 2) Drop the table groupings 3) Tell the view I only have N search results so it will build the scroll bar correctly. Thanks for your input; sk

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  • JQuery: Current, Well-Formatted, Printable Documentation?

    - by Eli
    Hi All, I'm looking for a current (1.2), well-formatted, printable version of the jQuery documentation. I've checked the alternative resources page and see the PDF versions from CF and Java, but both are out of date. The jQuery site has the API browser with "Printable Version" in the toolbox, but it prints terribly, and I don't really want to print one page or tab at a time. I have a hard time believing that there is no print doc for a tool this popular - all I want is a simple listing with descriptions and examples ON PAPER. Am I missing something? I can buy one of the books if I need to, but not sure which is for the current version. Thanks! Update: I can see that somebody voted this down. I know it's a pretty basic question, but it is not asked lightly or frivolously. I have made a pretty solid effort to find this on my own, and am pretty good at finding information when I need it. Perhaps the person who thought the question not worth asking knows where to find the print doc?

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  • data ownership and performance

    - by Ami
    We're designing a new application and we ran into some architectural question when thinking about data ownership. we broke down the system into components, for example Customer and Order. each of this component/module is responsible for a specific business domain, i.e. Customer deals with CRUD of customers and business process centered around customers (Register a n new customer, block customer account, etc.). each module is the owner of a set of database tables, and only that module may access them. if another module needs data that is owned by another module, it retrieves it by requesting it from that module. so far so good, the question is how to deal with scenarios such as a report that needs to show all the customers and for each customer all his orders? in such a case we need to get all the customers from the Customer module, iterate over them and for each one get all the data from the Order module. performance won't be good...obviously it would be much better to have a stored proc join customers table and orders table, but that would also mean direct access to the data that is owned by another module, creating coupling and dependencies that we wish to avoid. this is a simplified example, we're dealing with an enterprise application with a lot of business entities and relationships, and my goal is to keep it clean and as loosely coupled as possible. I foresee in the future many changes to the data scheme, and possibly splitting the system into several completely separate systems. I wish to have a design that would allow this to be done in a relatively easy way. Thanks!

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  • Displaying cookies as key=value for all domains?

    - by OverTheRainbow
    Hello, This question pertains to the use of the cookie-capable WebClient derived class presented in the How can I get the WebClient to use Cookies? question. I'd like to use a ListBox to... 1) display each cookie individually as "key=value" (the For Each loop displays all of them as one string), and 2) be able to display all cookies, regardless of the domain from which they came ("www.google.com", here): Imports System.IO Imports System.Net Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim webClient As New CookieAwareWebClient Const URL = "http://www.google.com" Dim response As String response = webClient.DownloadString(URL) RichTextBox1.Text = response 'How to display cookies as key/value in ListBox? 'PREF=ID=5e770c1a9f279d5f:TM=1274032511:LM=1274032511:S=1RDPaKJKpoMT9T54 For Each mycc In webClient.cc.GetCookies(New Uri(URL)) ListBox1.Items.Add(mycc.ToString) Next End Sub End Class Public Class CookieAwareWebClient Inherits WebClient Public cc As New CookieContainer() Private lastPage As String Protected Overrides Function GetWebRequest(ByVal address As System.Uri) As System.Net.WebRequest Dim R = MyBase.GetWebRequest(address) If TypeOf R Is HttpWebRequest Then With DirectCast(R, HttpWebRequest) .CookieContainer = cc If Not lastPage Is Nothing Then .Referer = lastPage End If End With End If lastPage = address.ToString() Return R End Function End Class Thank you.

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  • C++ - Distributing different headers than development

    - by Ben
    I was curious about doing this in C++: Lets say I have a small library that I distribute to my users. I give my clients both the binary and the associated header files that they need. For example, lets assume the following header is used in development: #include <string> ClassA { public: bool setString(const std::string & str); private: std::string str; }; Now for my question. For deployment, is there anything fundamentally wrong with me giving a 'reduced' header to my clients? For example, could I strip off the private section and simply give them this: #include <string> ClassA { public: bool setString(const std::string & str); }; My gut instinct says "yes, this is possible, but there are gotchas", so that is why I am asking this question here. If this is possible and also safe, it looks like a great way to hide private variables, and thus even avoid forward declaration in some cases. I am aware that the symbols will still be there in the binary itself, and that this is just a visibility thing at the source code level. Thanks!

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  • Get type of the parameter from list of objects, templates, C++

    - by CrocodileDundee
    This question follows to my previous question Get type of the parameter, templates, C++ There is the following data structure: Object1.h template <class T> class Object1 { private: T a1; T a2; public: T getA1() {return a1;} typedef T type; }; Object2.h template <class T> class Object2: public Object1 <T> { private: T b1; T b2; public: T getB1() {return b1;} } List.h template <typename Item> struct TList { typedef std::vector <Item> Type; }; template <typename Item> class List { private: typename TList <Item>::Type items; }; Is there any way how to get type T of an object from the list of objects (i.e. Object is not a direct parameter of the function but a template parameter)? template <class Object> void process (List <Object> *objects) { typename Object::type a1 = objects[0].getA1(); // g++ error: 'Object1<double>*' is not a class, struct, or union type } But his construction works (i.e. Object represents a parameter of the function) template <class Object> void process (Object *o1) { typename Object::type a1 = o1.getA1(); // OK }

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  • Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

    - by przno
    I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

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  • What is the correct install process to setup Node.js with Windows Azure Emulator

    - by PazoozaTest Pazman
    This question is related to this question: Node.js running under IIS Express Keeps Crashing to which I need help with reinstalling and getting node.js up and running in windows emulator working. Hello I am reinstalling my machine: Toshiha Laptop 2 GB Ram 32 bit processor What is the correct procedure from start to finish to get node.js development working, so far nothing has worked and the emulator (IIS Express) worker processor keeps crashing. No matter how many instances they all end up crashing. Up until two weeks ago my node development was working fine, but I had to do a reinstall, and since then I haven't been doing any node.js development on windows emulator because the latest June 2012 Azure SDK for Node.js is buggy. These are the steps I have taken: 1) Reformat HD 2) Insert Windows 7 N SP1 CD 3) Reboot machine into CD installation 4) Follow and wait until Windows 7 installed 5) Run Add/Remove programs + enable IIS + IIS management tools 6) Run Windows Update (installed about 53 updates) 7) Go here http://www.windowsazure.com/en-us/develop/nodejs/ 8) Click Windows Installer June 2012 and install Windows Azure SDK for Node.js - June 2012 9) Run Azure Powershell 10) Navigate to c:\node\testSite\webrole1 11) launch site: start-azureemulator -launch 12) Play around on website (then crash!) Problem signature: Problem Event Name: APPCRASH Application Name: iisexpress.exe Application Version: 8.0.8298.0 Application Timestamp: 4f620349 Fault Module Name: iiscore.dll Fault Module Version: 8.0.8298.0 Fault Module Timestamp: 4f63b65c Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Offset: 00021767 OS Version: 6.1.7601.2.1.0.256.28 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: f66d Additional Information 2: f66d807b515d6b2dc6f28f66db769a01 Additional Information 3: 7b2f Additional Information 4: 7b2f6797d07ebc2c23f2b227e779722e Am I missing a step in my resintall process? Do I have all the required files to do node.js windows azure emulator development? Why is IIS Express crashing all the time? Can I still do node.js windows azure emulator development without using IIS Express and use my local Windows 7 N (SP1) IIS 7.x that comes shipped?

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  • odd url, and difficulty in following the php page flow

    - by sdfor
    I'm trying to understand code that I bought so I can modify it. In the index.php there are picture links: <a href="test10,10"><img title="" border=1 src="makethumb.php?pic=product_images/test101.jpg&amp;w=121&amp;sq=N" / ></a> I don't understand the href since it is not pointing to a page. test10 is an id of a picture. I assumed it was going back to the index.php and the code would extract the test10,10 from the url, but it's not. I know that because I put in trace code as the first line. The question is, where is the link going to? I know it that it somewhere in the process it executes a page called profile.php, but nowhere in the source code (doing a global search) is there an explicit call to profile.php. As a related question, is there a way to profile the code to see what pages it's calling without using xdebug, which for the life of me I can't get working after many hours of trying every suggestion I found here and else where. (I'm using xampp) thanks

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  • JDO architecture: One to many relationship and cascading deleting

    - by user361897
    I’m new to object oriented database designs and I’m trying to understand how I should be structuring my classes in JDO for google app engine, particularly one to many relationships. Let’s say I’m building a structure for a department store where there are many departments, and each department has many products. So I’d want to have a class called Department, with a variable that is a list of a Product class. @PersistenceCapable public class Department { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private String deptID; @Persistent private String departmentName; @Persistent private List<Product>; } @PersistenceCapable public class Product { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private String productID; @Persistent private String productName; } But one Product can be in more than one Department (like a battery could be in electronics and household supplies). So the next question is, how do I not duplicate data in the OOD world and have only one copy of product data in numerous departments? And the next question is, let’s say I delete out a particular product, how do each of the departments know it was deleted?

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  • codeigniter cron job with http access

    - by user1313850
    Sorry if this is a duplicate question...I've searched around and found similar advice but nothing that helps my exact problem. And please excuse the noob questions, CRON is a new thing for me. I have a codeigniter script that scrapes the html DOM of another site and stores some of that in a database. I'd like to run this script at a regular interval. This has lead me to looking into cron jobs. The page I have is at myserver.com/index.php/update I realize I can run a cron job with curl and run this page. If I want to be a bit more secure I can put a string at the end like: myserver.com/index.php/update/asdfh2784fufds And check for that in my CI controller. This seems like it would be mostly secure, but doesn't seem like the "right" way to do things. I've looked into running CI from the command line, and can execute basic pages like: php index.php mycontroller But when I try to do: php index.php update It doesn't work. I suspect this is because it needs to use HTTP to scrape the DOM of the outside page. So, my question: How do I securely run a codeigniter script with a cron job that needs HTTP access?

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  • What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

    - by Curtis White
    This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

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  • Does the managed main UI thread stay on the same (unmanaged) Operation System thread?

    - by Daniel Rose
    I am creating a managed WPF UI front-end to a legacy Win32-application. The WPF front-end is the executable; as part of its startup routines I start the legacy app as a DLL in a second thread. Any UI-operation (including CreateWindowsEx, etc.) by the legacy app is invoked back on the main UI-thread. As part of the shutdown process of the app I want to clean up properly. Among other things, I want to call DestroyWindow on all unmanaged windows, so they can properly clean themselves up. Thus, during shutdown I use EnumWindows to try to find all my unmanaged windows. Then I call DestroyWindow one the list I generate. These run on the main UI-thread. After this background knowledge, on to my actual question: In the enumeration procedure of EnumWindows, I have to check if one of the returned top-level windows is one of my unmanaged windows. I do this by calling GetWindowThreadProcessId to get the process id and thread id of the window's creator. I can compare the process id with Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id to check if my app created it. For additional security, I also want to see if my main UI-thread created the window. However, the returned thread id is the OS's ThreadId (which is different than the managed thread id). As explained in this question, the CLR reserves the right to re-schedule the managed thread to different OS threads. Can I rely on the CLR to be "smart enough" to never do this for the main UI thread (due to thread-affinity of the UI)? Then I could call GetCurrentThreadId to get the main UI-thread's unmanaged thread id for comparison.

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  • Is there a way to specify a per-host deploy_to path with Capistrano?

    - by Chad Johnson
    I have searched and searched and asked a question already and have not received a clear answer. I have the following deploy script (snippet): set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :app, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :db, "domain1.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true role :db, "domain2.com", :norelease => true As you see, I have set deploy_to to a specific path. And, I also have specified multiple web servers. However, each web server should have a different deployment path. I want to be able to run "cap deploy" and deploy to all hosts in one shot. I am NOT trying to deploy to staging and then to production. This is all production. My question is: how exactly do I specify a path per server? I have read the "Roles" documentation for Capistrano, and this is unclear. Can someone please post a deploy file example? I have read the documentation, and it is unclear how to do this. Does anyone know? Am I crazy? Am I thinking of this wrong or something? No answers anywhere online. Nowhere. Nothing. Please, someone help.

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  • PHP sleep() excution sequence while echoeing.

    - by Babiker
    I have the following: echo time()."<br>"; sleep(1); echo time()."<br>"; sleep(1); echo time()."<br>"; I wrote the preceding code with intention to echo time()."<br>" ln 1,echo time()."<br>" ln 4, wait a final second and then echo the final time()."<br>". Altough the time bieng echoed is correct when it comes to the intervals between time(), all echo functions are echoeing after the total of the waiting period/parameters in each sleep function. This is how the script runs: Excutes. Waits 2 secons. echoes 1275540664 1275540665 1275540666 Notice the correct incrementation in time() being echoed. My question is why is it not behaving like expected to where it echoes, waits a second, echoes again, waits one final second and then echos the last parameter? I know my question is a little confusing due to my wording, but i will try my hardest to answer any comments regarding this, thanks.

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  • Polling a web URL until event

    - by Jaxo
    I'm really sorry about the crappy title - if anybody has a better way of wording it, please edit it! I basically need to have a C# application run a function if the output of a URL is a certain value. For example, if the website says blue the background colour will be blue, red to make it red, etc. The problem is I don't want to spam my webserver with checks. The 4 bytes it downloads each time is negligible, but if I were to deploy this type of system on multiple computers, it would get slower and slower and the bandwidth would add up quickly. So my question is: How can my desktop application run a piece of code only when a web URL has a different output without checking each time? I can't use sockets, and any sort of LAN protocol won't end up working. My reasoning behind this potentially nefarious code is to be able to mute computers by updating a file on the website (as you may have seen in my previous question today, sorry!). I'd like it to be rather quick, and not have the refresh time minutes apart, a few seconds at the most would be ideal. How can I accomplish this? The website's code is easy, but getting the C# application to check when it changes is the part I'm stuck on. Nothing shows up on the website other than the command. Thanks!

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  • Why do people keep parsing HTML using regex? [closed]

    - by polygenelubricants
    As much as I love regular expressions, it's obvious to me that it's not the best tool for parsing HTML, especially given the numerous good HTML parsers out there. And yet there are numerous questions on stackoverflow that attempts to parse HTML using regex. And people would always point out what a bad idea that is in the comments. And the accepted answer would often have a disclaimer how this isn't really the ideal way of doing things. But based on the constant flow of questions, it still seems that people keep parsing HTML using regex, despite the perceived difficulty in reading and maintaining it (and that's putting correctness aside for now). So my question is: why? Is it because it's easy to learn? Is it because it's faster? Is it because it's the industry standard? Is it because there are already so many reusable regexes to build from? Is it because 100% correctness is never really the objective? (90% good enough?) etc... I'd also like to hear from the downvoters why they did so. Is it because: There's absolutely nothing wrong with using regex to parse HTML and asking "Why?" is just dumb? The premise of the question is flawed because the people who are using regex to parse HTML is such a small minority?

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  • Accessing Instance Variables from NSTimer selector

    - by Timbo
    Firstly newbie question: What's the difference between a selector and a method? Secondly newbie question (who would have thought): I need to loop some code based on instance variables and pause between loops until some condition (of course based on instance variables) is met. I've looked at sleep, I've looked at NSThread. In both discussions working through those options many asked why don't I use NSTimer, so here I am. Ok so it's simple enough to get a method (selector? ) to fire on a schedule. Problem I have is that I don't know how to see instance variables I've set up outside the timer from within the code NSTimer fires. I need to see those variables from the NSTimer selector code as I 1) will be updating their values and 2) will set labels based on those values. Here's some code that shows the concept… eventually I'd invalidate the timers based on myVariable too, however I've excluded that for code clarity. MyClass *aMyClassInstance = [MyClass new]; [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:0]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(doStuff) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:5.0 target:self selector:@selector(doSomeOtherStuff) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; - (void) doStuff { [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:11]; // don't actually have access to set aMyClassInstance.myVariable [self updateSomeUILabel:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aMyClassInstance.myVariable]]; // don't actually have access to aMyClassInstance.myVariable } - (void) doSomeOtherStuff { [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:22]; // don't actually have access to set aMyClassInstance.myVariable [self updateSomeUILabel:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aMyClassInstance.myVariable]]; // don't actually have access to aMyClassInstance.myVariable } - (void) updateSomeUILabel:(NSNumber *)arg{ int value = [arg intValue]; someUILabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"myVariable = %d", value]; // Updates the UI with new instance variable values }

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  • When is a bool not a bool (compiler warning C4800)

    - by omatai
    Consider this being compiled in MS Visual Studio 2005 (and probably others): CPoint point1( 1, 2 ); CPoint point2( 3, 4 ); const bool point1And2Identical( point1 == point2 ); // C4800 warning const bool point1And2TheSame( ( point1 == point2 ) == TRUE ); // no warning What the...? Is the MSVC compiler brain-dead? As far as I can tell, TRUE is #defined as 1, without any type information. So by what magic is there any difference between these two lines? Surely the type of the expression inside the brackets is the same in both cases? [This part of the question now satisfactorily answered in the comments just below] Personally, I think that avoiding the warning by using the == TRUE option is ugly (though less ugly than the != 0 alternative, despite being more strictly correct), and it is better to use #pragma warning( disable:4800 ) to imply "my code is good, the compiler is an ass". Agree? Note - I have seen all manner of discussion on C4800 talking about assigning ints to bools, or casting a burger combo with large fries (hold the onions) to a bool, and wondering why there are strange results. I can't find a clear answer on what seems like a much simpler question... that might just shine line on C4800 in general.

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  • Leftover Nav Bar in Landscape View

    - by Rob Bonner
    Hello, I am working to force a view into landscape mode, and have picked up all kinds of cool tips to make this happen, but am stuck on one item that is left on the screen. I have my XIB file laid out in landscape, and in my code I create the view controller normally: RedeemViewController *aViewController = [[RedeemViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"RedeemViewController" bundle:nil]; aViewController.hidesBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; aViewController.wantsFullScreenLayout = YES; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:aViewController animated:YES]; Inside the controller viewDidLoad I complete the following: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setStatusBarOrientation:UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight]; [[self navigationController] setNavigationBarHidden:YES animated:YES]; [UIView beginAnimations:@"View Flip" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:.75]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; if (self.interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait) { self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformIdentity; self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(degreesToRadian(90)); self.view.bounds = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 480, 320); } [UIView commitAnimations]; What I end up with is a perfectly rotated view, with a grey vertical bar on the left side (see pic). So to the question, how do I get rid of the bar? Edit: I am pretty sure this is the navigation bar that is not being hidden. This is a duplicate of another post, with some modified code, the other question was being answered with the bug.

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  • Passing user_id, site_id, and question_id to same table on create...

    - by bgadoci
    I can't seem to figure out how to do this. I am trying to pass four different variables to a single table. To be more specific I am trying to create a "like" in a likes table that also captures the site_id (like an answer), user_id, and the question_id. Here is the set up. class Like < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :site belongs_to :user belongs_to :question end I will spare you the reverse, has_many associations but they are there. Here is the likes controller where I think the problem is. class LikesController < ApplicationController def create @user = current_user @site = Site.find(params[:site_id]) @like = @site.likes.create!(params[:like]) @like.user = current_user @like.save respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to @site} format.js end end end This code successfully passes the like and site_id but after many different variations of trying I can't get it to pass the question id. Here is my form: /views/sites/_site.html.erb (though the partial is being displayed in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file). <% remote_form_for [site, Like.new] do |f| %> <%= f.hidden_field :site_name, :value => "#{site.name}" %> <%= f.hidden_field :ip_address, :value => "#{request.remote_ip}" %> <%= f.hidden_field :like, :value => "1" %> <%= submit_tag "^" , :class => 'voteup' %> <% end %>

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  • Website. VoteUp or VoteDown Videos. How to restrict users voting multiple times?

    - by DJDonaL3000
    Im working on a website (html,css,javascript, ajax, php,mysql), and I want to restrict the number of times a particular user votes for a particular video. Its similar to the YouTube system where you can voteUp or voteDown a particular video. Each vote involves adding a row to the video.votes table, which logs the time, vote direction(up or down), the client IPaddress( using PHP: $ip = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; ), and of course the ID of the video in question. Adding votes is as simple as; (pseudocode): Javascript:onClick( vote( a,b,c,d ) ), which passes variables to PHP insertion script via ajax, and finally we replace the voteing buttons with a "Thank You For Voting" message. THE PROBLEM: If you reload/refresh the page after voting, you can vote again, and again, and again, you get the point. MY QUESTION: How do you limit the amount of times a particular user votes for a particular video?? MY THOUGHTS: Do you use cookies, and add a new cookie with the id of the video. And check for a cookie before you insert a new vote.? OR Before you insert the vote, do you use the IPaddress and the videoID to see if this same user(IP) has voted for this same video(vidID) in the past 24hrs(mktime), and either allow or dissallow the voteInsertion based on this query? OR Do you just not care? Take the assumption that most users are sane, and have better things to do than refresh pages and vote repeatedly.?? Any suggestions or ideas welcome.

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