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  • How to define generic super type for static factory method?

    - by Esko
    If this has already been asked, please link and close this one. I'm currently prototyping a design for a simplified API of a certain another API that's a lot more complex (and potentially dangerous) to use. Considering the related somewhat complex object creation I decided to use static factory methods to simplify the API and I currently have the following which works as expected: public class Glue<T> { private List<Type<T>> types; private Glue() { types = new ArrayList<Type<T>>(); } private static class Type<T> { private T value; /* some other properties, omitted for simplicity */ public Type(T value) { this.value = value; } } public static <T> Glue<T> glueFactory(String name, T first, T second) { Glue<T> g = new Glue<T>(); Type<T> firstType = new Glue.Type<T>(first); Type<T> secondType = new Glue.Type<T>(second); g.types.add(firstType); g.types.add(secondType); /* omitted complex stuff */ return g; } } As said, this works as intended. When the API user (=another developer) types Glue<Horse> strongGlue = Glue.glueFactory("2HP", new Horse(), new Horse()); he gets exactly what he wanted. What I'm missing is that how do I enforce that Horse - or whatever is put into the factory method - always implements both Serializable and Comparable? Simply adding them to factory method's signature using <T extends Comparable<T> & Serializable> doesn't necessarily enforce this rule in all cases, only when this simplified API is used. That's why I'd like to add them to the class' definition and then modify the factory method accordingly. PS: No horses (and definitely no ponies!) were harmed in writing of this question.

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  • ASP.Net 4.0 - Response required in SiteMap building?

    - by Nick Craver
    I'm running into an issue upgrading a project to .Net 4.0...and having trouble finding any reason for the issue (or at least, the change causing it). Given the freshness of 4.0, not a lot of blogs out there for issues yet, so I'm hoping someone here has an idea. Preface: this is a Web Forms application, coming from 3.5 SP1 to 4.0. In the Application_Start event we're iterating through the SiteMap and constructing routes based off data there (prettifying URLs mostly with some utility added), that part isn't failing though...or at least isn't not getting that far. It seems that calling the SiteMap.RootNode (inside application_start) causes 4.0 to eat it, since the XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode method has been changed, looking in reflector you can see it's hitting HttpResponse.ApplyAppPathModifier here: str2 = HttpContext.Current.Response.ApplyAppPathModifier(str2); HttpResponse wasn't used at all in this method in the 2.0 CLR, so what we had worked fine, in 4.0 though, that method is called as a result of this stack: [HttpException (0x80004005): Response is not available in this context.] System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode(XmlNode xmlNode, Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.ConvertFromXmlNode(Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.BuildSiteMap() System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.get_RootNode() System.Web.SiteMap.get_RootNode() Since Response isn't available here in 4.0, we get an error. To reproduce this, you can narrow the test case down to this in global: protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { var s = SiteMap.RootNode; //Kaboom! //or just var r = Context.Response; //or var r = HttpContext.Current.Response; //all result in the same "not available" error } Question: Am I missing something obvious here? Or, is there another event added in 4.0 that's recommended for anything related to SiteMap on startup? For anyone curious/willing to help, I've created a very minimal project (a default VS 2010 ASP.Net 4.0 site, all the bells & whistles removed and only a blank sitemap and the Application_Start code added). It's a small 10kb zip available here: http://www.ncraver.com/Test/SiteMapTest.zip Update: Not a great solution, but the current work-around is to do the work in Application_BeginRequest, like this: private static bool routesRegistered = false; protected void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!routesRegistered) { Application.Lock(); if (!routesRegistered) RouteManager.RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); routesRegistered = true; Application.UnLock(); } } I don't like this particularly, feels like an abuse of the event to bypass the issue. Does anyone have at least a better work-around, since the .Net 4 behavior with SiteMap is not likely to change?

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  • How do you use technology to memorize set of terms?

    - by user49767
    Always there are few set of items needs to be memorized in short span of time. Here are my following cases. 1) My Job requires some set of items needs to be memorized. 2) I am a developer who has to learn 150+ tags within next 3 days. 3) Fix developer/support has to remember minimum of 125+ tags (set of possible values). 4) It is better if team's SQL developer knows all the table and columns in my database. 5) When guys join new department or job. Memorizing few related items will definitely gives some benefit. Most of the cases, I suggest people to understand the domain better and nothing wrong in using google (but remember correct search-word). But recently I came across a junior developer who took lot of effort in memorizing set of things (150+ table structures, fix protocol tags, almost 300+ configuration items from property file) and was very very successful in his job and was swift in responding for support queries. Needless to say he is smart worker too (not a dumb guy). When I try to recollect some of the successful employees I met, they were so good in remembering entire schema and they did in short span of time. But I don't argue that memorizing alone gives success, but it greatly helps when situation demands. Here my question is, I am not good at remembering things, but it shouldn't be lame excuse. Hence I am evaluating using technolgies better to memorize set of items. Not very much interested in memory techniques (mnemoninc, photography memory, etc..). Even I have recorded 100+ items and listen to that whenever I found free time, defintely there were some fruitful result. Now I need your suggestion about what are all the ways to exploit technology to memorize. There could be so many reason why guys remember a subject (passionate, essential, author, creator, responsbile). Not interested in dissecting why guys remeber. Rather much interested in using ways, and techniques (cheat sheet...) to remember a set of itmes. Note : I appreciate, encourage people who could rephrase my question better. Note : I have kept couple of cheat-sheet close to my monitor, honestly it did not help me :).

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  • jboss connection pooling

    - by Web
    I have a question related to Prepared Steatement pooling (across all connections). Here's the config file <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>JNDI-NAME</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:mysql://<server_name>/<database_name>?useServerPrepStmts=true</connection-url> <driver-class>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</driver-class> <user-name>xxx</user-name> <password>xxxxx</password> <min-pool-size>10</min-pool-size> <max-pool-size>20</max-pool-size> <idle-timeout-minutes>20</idle-timeout-minutes> <exception-sorter-class-name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.MySQLExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <valid-connection-checker-class-name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.MySQLValidConnectionChecker</valid-connection-checker-class-name> <background-validation>true</background-validation> <background-validation-minutes>5</background-validation-minutes> <prepared-statement-cache-size>100</prepared-statement-cache-size> <share-prepared-statements>true</share-prepared-statements> <!-- sql to call when connection is created <new-connection-sql>some arbitrary sql</new-connection-sql> --> <!-- sql to call on an existing pooled connection when it is obtained from pool - MySQLValidConnectionChecker is preferred for newer drivers <check-valid-connection-sql>some arbitrary sql</check-valid-connection-sql> --> <!-- corresponding type-mapping in the standardjbosscmp-jdbc.xml --> <metadata> <type-mapping>mySQL</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> It seems that this line: <background-validation-minutes>5</background-validation-minutes> doesn't cause any problems with Prepared Statements, but: <idle-timeout-minutes>20</idle-timeout-minutes> causes that all connections are removed and re-created if there was no traffic for the last 20 minutes. Because of that existing Prepared Statements are removed from the pool of cached Prepared Statements. How to overcome this issue? I have to use idle-timeout-minutes because MySQL server closes the connection after 8h

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  • Interoperability between two AES algorithms

    - by lpfavreau
    Hello, I'm new to cryptography and I'm building some test applications to try and understand the basics of it. I'm not trying to build the algorithms from scratch but I'm trying to make two different AES-256 implementation talk to each other. I've got a database that was populated with this Javascript implementation stored in Base64. Now, I'm trying to get an Objective-C method to decrypt its content but I'm a little lost as to where the differences in the implementations are. I'm able to encrypt/decrypt in Javascript and I'm able to encrypt/decrypt in Cocoa but cannot make a string encrypted in Javascript decrypted in Cocoa or vice-versa. I'm guessing it's related to the initialization vector, nonce, counter mode of operation or all of these, which quite frankly, doesn't speak to me at the moment. Here's what I'm using in Objective-C, adapted mainly from this and this: @implementation NSString (Crypto) - (NSString *)encryptAES256:(NSString *)key { NSData *input = [self dataUsingEncoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSData *output = [NSString cryptoAES256:input key:key doEncrypt:TRUE]; return [Base64 encode:output]; } - (NSString *)decryptAES256:(NSString *)key { NSData *input = [Base64 decode:self]; NSData *output = [NSString cryptoAES256:input key:key doEncrypt:FALSE]; return [[[NSString alloc] initWithData:output encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] autorelease]; } + (NSData *)cryptoAES256:(NSData *)input key:(NSString *)key doEncrypt:(BOOL)doEncrypt { // 'key' should be 32 bytes for AES256, will be null-padded otherwise char keyPtr[kCCKeySizeAES256 + 1]; // room for terminator (unused) bzero(keyPtr, sizeof(keyPtr)); // fill with zeroes (for padding) // fetch key data [key getCString:keyPtr maxLength:sizeof(keyPtr) encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSUInteger dataLength = [input length]; // See the doc: For block ciphers, the output size will always be less than or // equal to the input size plus the size of one block. // That's why we need to add the size of one block here size_t bufferSize = dataLength + kCCBlockSizeAES128; void* buffer = malloc(bufferSize); size_t numBytesCrypted = 0; CCCryptorStatus cryptStatus = CCCrypt(doEncrypt ? kCCEncrypt : kCCDecrypt, kCCAlgorithmAES128, kCCOptionECBMode | kCCOptionPKCS7Padding, keyPtr, kCCKeySizeAES256, nil, // initialization vector (optional) [input bytes], dataLength, // input buffer, bufferSize, // output &numBytesCrypted ); if (cryptStatus == kCCSuccess) { // the returned NSData takes ownership of the buffer and will free it on deallocation return [NSData dataWithBytesNoCopy:buffer length:numBytesCrypted]; } free(buffer); // free the buffer; return nil; } @end Of course, the input is Base64 decoded beforehand. I see that each encryption with the same key and same content in Javascript gives a different encrypted string, which is not the case with the Objective-C implementation that always give the same encrypted string. I've read the answers of this post and it makes me believe I'm right about something along the lines of vector initialization but I'd need your help to pinpoint what's going on exactly. Thank you!

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  • Improving performance on data pasting 2000 rows with validations

    - by Lohit
    I have N rows (which could be nothing less than 1000) on an excel spreadsheet. And in this sheet our project has 150 columns like this: Now, our application needs data to be copied (using normal Ctrl+C) and pasted (using Ctrl+V) from the excel file sheet on our GUI sheet. Copy pasting 1000 records takes around 5-6 seconds which is okay for our requirement, but the problem is when we need to make sure the data entered is valid. So we have to validate data in each row generate appropriate error messages and format the data as per requirement. So we need to at runtime parse and evaluate data in each row. Now all the formatting of data and validations come from the back-end database and we have it in a data-table (dtValidateAndFormatConditions). The conditions would be around 50. So you can see how slow this whole process becomes since N X 150 X 50 operations are required to complete this whole process. Initially it took approximately 2-3 minutes but now i have reduced it to 20 - 30 seconds. However i have increased the speed by making an expression parser of my own - and not by any algorithm, is there any other way i can improve performance, by using Divide and Conquer or some other mechanism. Currently i am not really sure how to go about this. Here is what part of my code looks like: public virtual void ValidateAndFormatOnCopyPaste(DataTable DtCopied, int CurRow) { foreach (DataRow dRow in dtValidateAndFormatConditions.Rows) { string Condition = dRow["Condition"]; string FormatValue = Value = dRow["Value"]; GetValidatedFormattedData(DtCopied,ref Condition, ref FormatValue ,iRowIndex); Condition = Parse(Condition); dRow["Condition"] = Condition; FormatValue = Parse(FormatValue ); dRow["Value"] = FormatValue; } } The above code gets called row-wise like this: public override void ValidateAndFormat(DataTable dtChangedRecords, CellRange cr) { int iRowStart = cr.Row, iRowEnd = cr.Row + cr.RowCount; for (int iRow = iRowStart; iRow < iRowEnd; iRow++) { ValidateAndFormatOnCopyPaste(dtChangedRecords,iRow); } } Please know my question needs a more algorithmic solution than code optimization, however any answers containing code related optimizations will be appreciated as well. (Tagged Linq because although not seen i have been using linq in some parts of my code).

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  • Getting jQuery slideshow animation to stop on click

    - by hollyb
    I have a slide show built with jQuery that pauses on hover. It has a group of thumbnails sitting on top of the image that advances the image when clicked, otherwise the slideshow just auto-rotates through all the images. There is also a +/- to expand and contract a caption related to each image. I want to have the slideshow's automatic advancing to stop if one of the thumbnails is clicked, or the +/-. Basically, just stop whenever a user clicks anywhere within the gallery (div class=".homeImg"). I'm having a major brain fart in getting this working properly and could use some advice. Here's the jQuery: $(document).ready(function() { $(".main_image .desc").show(); //Show image info $(".main_image .block").animate({ opacity: 0.85 }, 1 ); //Set Opacity //Click and Hover events for thumbnail list $(".image_thumb ul li:first").addClass('active'); // * Adds a class 'last' to the last li to let the rotator know when to return to the first $(".image_thumb ul li:last").addClass('last'); $(".image_thumb ul li").click(function(){ //Set Variables var imgAlt = $(this).find('img').attr("alt"); //Get Alt Tag of Image var imgTitle = $(this).find('a').attr("href"); //Get Main Image URL var imgDesc = $(this).find('.block').html(); //Get HTML of block var imgDescHeight = $(".main_image").find('.block').height(); //Calculate height of block if ($(this).is(".active")) { //If it's already active, then… return false; // Don't click through } else { //Animate $(".main_image img").animate({ opacity: 0}, 800 ); $(".main_image .block").animate({ opacity: 0, marginBottom: -imgDescHeight }, 800, function() { $(".main_image .block").html(imgDesc).animate({ opacity: 0.85, marginBottom: "0" }, 250 ); $(".main_image img").attr({ src: imgTitle , alt: imgAlt}).animate({ opacity: 1}, 250 ); }); } $(".image_thumb ul li").removeClass('active'); //Remove class of 'active' on all lists $(this).addClass('active'); //add class of 'active' on this list only return false; }) .hover(function(){ $(this).addClass('hover'); }, function() { $(this).removeClass('hover'); }); //Toggle teaser $("a.collapse").click(function(){ $(".main_image .block").slideToggle(); $("a.collapse").toggleClass("show"); return false; // added to remove # browser jump }); // If we are hovering over the image area, pause the clickNext function pauseClickNext = false; $(".homeImg").hover( function () { pauseClickNext = true; }, function () { pauseClickNext = false; } ); // Define function to click the next li var clickNext = function(){ if(!pauseClickNext) { /// find the next li after .active var $next_li = $("li.active").next("li"); if($("li.active").hasClass("last") ){ $(".image_thumb ul li:first").trigger("click"); } else { $next_li.trigger("click"); } } }; // Time between image transition setInterval(clickNext, 6000); });

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  • Why do some questions get closed for no reason? [closed]

    - by IVlad
    Recently there was a question asking about generating all subsets of a set using a stack and a queue, which was closed (and now deleted it seems) as not a real question for no good reason, since it didn't fit into any of these conditions: It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. No, it was clear what was being asked. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. Not ambiguous, not vague, not incomplete, definitely not rhetorical and could easily be answered if one knew the solution. Now, the exact same thing has happened with this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2791982/a-shortest-path-problem-with-superheroes-and-intergalactic-journeys/2793746#2793746 I am interested in hearing a logical argument for why that question is either ambiguous, vague, incomplete, rhetorical or cannot reasonably be answered in its current form. It seems that (the same bunch of) people like to close questions that they think are homework questions, especially when they think people want to be served the solution on a platter, which is also not the case: Any suggestions or ideas of how this problem might be solved would be most welcomed. Most of the time the people asking these questions are very reasonable and appreciate even the most vague idea, yet their question is closed. Let's go further and assume that it IS a homework problem. So what? When I registered here I didn't see any rule that said not to post homework problems, nor do I see such a rule now. What is wrong with posting homework problems that makes people hunt them down with a passion to close them without even reading the entire question body? This site is full of questions asked by people who get paid to know the things they are asking, yet their questions are considered fine. How is solving someone's homework problem worse? In some places (like where I live), computer science is a mandatory high school subject, and not everyone is interested in it. How is helping at least those people worse than doing someone's JOB? Not answering homework questions is fine and it's everyone's choice, but I consider closing them to be an act of power abuse, selfishness, and an insult to the fellow community members who are also interested in a solution or want feedback on their proposed solution. So my questions are: - Why do questions like the above get closed for reasons that do not apply? Why do you close them? Why don't you? - Why doesn't a vote to reopen a question reopen it automatically? Needing 5 votes for a reopen takes too long, and it's not fair because one reopen vote basically cancels out a close vote, making it 4 close votes (or 5 to 1, which is the same as only 4 people wanting to close the question), which isn't enough to close the question. I think a question should only be closed when CloseVotes - ReopenVotes >= 5. I'm hoping this will stay up, but I realize it probably won't. In either case, I think this is worth saying and discussing, since it IS community-related.

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  • Using a Button to navigate to another Page in a NavigationWindow

    - by Will
    I'm trying to use the navigation command framework in WPF to navigate between Pages within a WPF application (desktop; not XBAP or Silverlight). I believe I have everything configured correctly, yet its not working. I build and run without errors, I'm not getting any binding errors in the Output window, but my navigation button is disabled. Here's the app.xaml for a sample app: <Application x:Class="Navigation.App" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" StartupUri="First.xaml"> </Application> Note the StartupUri points to First.xaml. First.xaml is a Page. WPF automatically hosts my page in a NavigationWindow. Here's First.xaml: <Page x:Class="Navigation.First" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="First"> <Grid> <Button CommandParameter="/Second.xaml" CommandTarget="{Binding RelativeSource= {RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type NavigationWindow}}}" Command="NavigationCommands.GoToPage" Content="Go!"/> </Grid> </Page> The button's CommandTarget is set to the NavigationWindow. The command is GoToPage, and the page is /Second.xaml. I've tried setting the CommandTarget to the containing Page, the CommandParameter to "Second.xaml" (First.xaml and Second.xaml are both in the root of the solution), and I've tried leaving the CommandTarget empty. I've also tried setting the Path to the Binding to various navigational-related public properties on the NavigationWindow. Nothing has worked so far. What am I missing here? I really don't want to do my navigation in code. Clarification. If, instead of using a button, I use a Hyperlink: <Grid> <TextBlock> <Hyperlink NavigateUri="Second.xaml">Go! </Hyperlink> </TextBlock> </Grid> everything works as expected. However, my UI requirements means that using a Hyperlink is right out. I need a big fatty button for people to press. That's why I want to use the button to navigate. I just want to know how I can get the Button to provide the same ability that the Hyperlink does in this case.

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  • How do I add Objective C code to a FireBreath Project?

    - by jmort253
    I am writing a browser plugin for Mac OS that will place a status bar icon in the status bar, which users can use to interface with the browser plugin. I've successfully built a FireBreath 1.6 project in XCode 4.4.1, and can install it in the browser. However, FireBreath uses C++, whereas a large majority of the existing libraries for Mac OS are written in Objective C. In the /Mac/projectDef.make file, I added the Cocoa Framework and Foundation Framework, as suggested here and in other resources I've found on the Internet: target_link_libraries(${PROJECT_NAME} ${PLUGIN_INTERNAL_DEPS} ${Cocoa.framework} # added line ${Foundation.framework} # added line ) I reran prepmac.sh, expecting a new project to be created in XCode with my .mm files, and .m files; however, it seems that they're being ignored. I only see the .cpp and .h files. I added rules for those in the projectDef.make file, but it doesn't seem to make a difference: file (GLOB PLATFORM RELATIVE ${CMAKE_CURRENT_SOURCE_DIR} Mac/[^.]*.cpp Mac/[^.]*.h Mac/[^.]*.m #added by me Mac/[^.]*.mm #added by me Mac/[^.]*.cmake ) Even if I add the files in manually, I get a series of compilation errors. There are about 20 of them, all related to the file NSObjRuntime.h file: Parse Issue - Expected unqualified-id Parse Issue - Unknown type name 'NSString' Semantic Issue - Use of undeclared identifier 'NSString' Parse Issue - Unknown type name 'NSString' ... ... Semantic Issue - Use of undeclared identifier 'aSelectorName' ... ... Semantic Issue - Use of undeclared identifier 'aClassName' ... It continues like this for some time with similar errors... From what I've read, these errors appear because of dependencies on the Foundation Framework, which I believe I've included in the project. I also tried clicking the project in XCode I'm to the point now where I'm not sure what to try next. People say it's not hard to use Objective C in C/C++ code, but being new to XCode and Objective C might contribute to my confusion. This is only day 4 for me in this new platform. What do I need to do to get XCode to compile the Objective C code? Please remember that I'm a little new to this, so I'd appreciate it if you leave detailed answers as opposed to the vague one-liners that are common in the firebreath tag. I'm just a little in over my head, but if you can get me past this hurdle I'm certain I'll be good to go from there. UPDATE: I edited projects/MyPlugin/CMakeLists.txt and added in the .m and .mm rules there too. after running prepmac.sh, the files are included in the project, but I still get the same compile errors. I moved all the .h files and .mm files from the Obj C code to the MyPlugin root folder and reran the prepmac.sh file. Problem still exists. Same compile errors.

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  • XY-Scatter Chart In SSRS Won't Display Points

    - by Dalin Seivewright
    I'm a bit confused with this one. I have a Dataset with a BackupDate and a BackupTime as well as a BackupType. The BackupDate is comprised of 12 characters from the left of a datetime string within a table. The BackupTime is comprised of 8 characters from the right of that same datetime string. So for example: BackupDate would be 'December 12 2008' and the BackupTime would be '12:53PM.' I have added an XY-scatter chart to the report. I've added a 'series' value for the BackupType (so one can distinguish between a Full/Incr/Log backup). I've added a category value of BackupDate and set the Scale for the X-axis from the Min of BackupDate to the Max of BackupDate. I've then added an item to the Values with the Y variable set to BackupTime and the X variable set to BackupDate. The interval for the Y-axis is 12:00AM to 11:59PM and the formatting for the labels is 'hh:mmtt'. The BackupTime matches the format of the Y-axis. The BackupDate matches the format of the X-axis. 10 entries are retrieved by my Dataset and the Legend is properly populated by the BackupType field. No points are being plotted on the graph and no markers/pointers are shown if they are enabled. There should be a point on the graph for every point in time of each day there is a backup of a specific type. Am I missing something? Does anyone know of a good tutorial dealing specifically with XY-scatter graphs and using them in a way I intend? I am using the 2005 version of SSRS rather than the 2008 version. Screenshot of what my chart currently looks like: In case it could be dataset related: SELECT TOP (10) backup_type, LTRIM(RTRIM(LEFT(backup_finish_date, 12))) AS BackupDate, LTRIM(RTRIM(RIGHT(backup_finish_date, 8))) AS BackupTime FROM DBARepository.Backup_History As requested, here are the results of this query. There is a Where clause to constrain the results to a specific database of a specific server that was not included in the above SQL Query. Log Dec 26 2008 12:00PM Log Dec 27 2008 4:00AM Log Dec 27 2008 8:00AM Log Dec 27 2008 12:00PM Log Dec 27 2008 4:00PM Log Dec 27 2008 8:00PM Database Dec 27 2008 10:01PM Log Dec 28 2008 12:00AM Log Dec 28 2008 4:00AM Log Dec 28 2008 8:00AM

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  • Why SQL2008 debugger would NOT step into a certain child stored procedure

    - by John Galt
    I'm encountering differences in T-SQL with SQL2008 (vs. SQL2000) that are leading me to dead-ends. I've verified that the technique of sharing #TEMP tables between a caller which CREATES the #TEMP and the child sProc which references it remain valid in SQL2008 See recent SO question. My core problem remains a critical "child" stored procedure that works fine in SQL2000 but fails in SQL2008 (i.e. a FROM clause in the child sProc is coded as: SELECT * FROM #AREAS A) despite #AREAS being created by the calling parent. Rather than post snippets of the code now, here is another symptom that may help you suggest something. I fired up the new debugger in SQL Mgmt Studio: EXEC dbo.AMS1 @S1='06',@C1='037',@StartDate='01/01/2008',@EndDate='07/31/2008',@Type=1,@ACReq = 1,@Output = 0,@NumofLines = 30,@SourceTable = 'P',@LoanPurposeCatg='P' This is a very large sProc and the key snippet that is weird is the following: **create table #Areas ( State char(2) , County char(3) , ZipCode char(5) NULL , CityName varchar(28) NULL , PData varchar(3) NULL , RData varchar(3) NULL , SMSA_CD varchar(10) NULL , TypeCounty varchar(50) , StateAbbr char(2) ) EXECUTE dbo.AMS_I_GetAreasV5 -- this child populates #Areas @SMSA = @SMSA , @S1 = @S1 , @C1 = @C1 , @Z1 = @Z1 , @SourceTable = @SourceTable , @CustomID = @CustomID , @UserName = @UserName , @CityName = @CityName , @Debug=0 EXECUTE dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC -- this child cannot reference #Areas @StartDate = @StartDate , @EndDate = @EndDate , @SMSA_CD = @SMSA_CD , @S1 = @S1 , @C1 = @C1 , @Z1 = @Z1 , @CityName = @CityName , @CustomID = @CustomID , @Debug=0 -- continuation of the parent sProc** I can step through the execution of the parent stored procedure. When I get to the first child sproc above, I can either STEP INTO dbo.AMS_I_GetAreasV5 or STEP OVER its execution. When I arrive at the invocation of the 2nd child sProc - dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC - I try to STEP INTO it (because that is where the problem statement is) and STEP INTO is ignored (i.e. treated like STEP OVER instead; yet I KNOW I pressed F11 not F10). It WAS executed however, because when control is returned to the statement after the EXECUTE, I click Continue to finish execution and the results windows shows the errors in the dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC (i.e. the 2nd child) stored procedure. Is there a way to "pre-load" an sProc with the goal of setting a breakpoint on its entry so that I can pursue execution inside it? In summary, I wonder if the inability to step into a given child sproc might be related to the same inability of this particular child to reference a #temp created by its parent (caller).

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  • Difference in DocumentBuilder.parse when using JRE 1.5 and JDK 1.6

    - by dhiller
    Recently at last we have switched our projects to Java 1.6. When executing the tests I found out that using 1.6 a SAXParseException is not thrown which has been thrown using 1.5. Below is my test code to demonstrate the problem. import java.io.StringReader; import javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilder; import javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilderFactory; import javax.xml.transform.stream.StreamSource; import javax.xml.validation.SchemaFactory; import org.junit.Test; import org.xml.sax.InputSource; import org.xml.sax.SAXParseException; /** * Test class to demonstrate the difference between JDK 1.5 to JDK 1.6. * * Seen on Linux: * * <pre> * #java version "1.6.0_18" * Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_18-b07) * Java HotSpot(TM) Server VM (build 16.0-b13, mixed mode) * </pre> * * Seen on OSX: * * <pre> * java version "1.6.0_17" * Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_17-b04-248-10M3025) * Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 14.3-b01-101, mixed mode) * </pre> * * @author dhiller (creator) * @author $Author$ (last editor) * @version $Revision$ * @since 12.03.2010 11:32:31 */ public class TestXMLValidation { /** * Tests the schema validation of an XML against a simple schema. * * @throws Exception * Falls ein Fehler auftritt * @throws junit.framework.AssertionFailedError * Falls eine Unit-Test-Pruefung fehlschlaegt */ @Test(expected = SAXParseException.class) public void testValidate() throws Exception { final StreamSource schema = new StreamSource( new StringReader( "<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?>" + "<xs:schema xmlns:xs=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" " + "elementFormDefault=\"qualified\" xmlns:xsd=\"undefined\">" + "<xs:element name=\"Test\"/>" + "</xs:schema>" ) ); final String xml = "<Test42/>"; final DocumentBuilderFactory newFactory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); newFactory.setSchema( SchemaFactory.newInstance( "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" ).newSchema( schema ) ); final DocumentBuilder documentBuilder = newFactory.newDocumentBuilder(); documentBuilder.parse( new InputSource( new StringReader( xml ) ) ); } } When using a JVM 1.5 the test passes, on 1.6 it fails with "Expected exception SAXParseException". The Javadoc of the DocumentBuilderFactory.setSchema(Schema) Method says: When errors are found by the validator, the parser is responsible to report them to the user-specified ErrorHandler (or if the error handler is not set, ignore them or throw them), just like any other errors found by the parser itself. In other words, if the user-specified ErrorHandler is set, it must receive those errors, and if not, they must be treated according to the implementation specific default error handling rules. The Javadoc of the DocumentBuilder.parse(InputSource) method says: BTW: I tried setting an error handler via setErrorHandler, but there still is no exception. Now my question: What has changed to 1.6 that prevents the schema validation to throw a SAXParseException? Is it related to the schema or to the xml that I tried to parse?

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  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

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  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

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  • C++ Virtual Constructor, without clone()

    - by Julien L.
    I want to perform "deep copies" of an STL container of pointers to polymorphic classes. I know about the Prototype design pattern, implemented by means of the Virtual Ctor Idiom, as explained in the C++ FAQ Lite, Item 20.8. It is simple and straightforward: struct ABC // Abstract Base Class { virtual ~ABC() {} virtual ABC * clone() = 0; }; struct D1 : public ABC { virtual D1 * clone() { return new D1( *this ); } // Covariant Return Type }; A deep copy is then: for( i = 0; i < oldVector.size(); ++i ) newVector.push_back( oldVector[i]->clone() ); Drawbacks As Andrei Alexandrescu states it: The clone() implementation must follow the same pattern in all derived classes; in spite of its repetitive structure, there is no reasonable way to automate defining the clone() member function (beyond macros, that is). Moreover, clients of ABC can possibly do something bad. (I mean, nothing prevents clients to do something bad, so, it will happen.) Better design? My question is: is there another way to make an abstract base class clonable without requiring derived classes to write clone-related code? (Helper class? Templates?) Following is my context. Hopefully, it will help understanding my question. I am designing a class hierarchy to perform operations on a class Image: struct ImgOp { virtual ~ImgOp() {} bool run( Image & ) = 0; }; Image operations are user-defined: clients of the class hierarchy will implement their own classes derived from ImgOp: struct CheckImageSize : public ImgOp { std::size_t w, h; bool run( Image &i ) { return w==i.width() && h==i.height(); } }; struct CheckImageResolution; struct RotateImage; ... Multiple operations can be performed sequentially on an image: bool do_operations( std::vector< ImgOp* > v, Image &i ) { std::for_each( v.begin(), v.end(), /* bind2nd(mem_fun(&ImgOp::run), i ...) don't remember syntax */ ); } int main( ... ) { std::vector< ImgOp* > v; v.push_back( new CheckImageSize ); v.push_back( new CheckImageResolution ); v.push_back( new RotateImage ); Image i; do_operations( v, i ); } If there are multiple images, the set can be split and shared over several threads. To ensure "thread-safety", each thread must have its own copy of all operation objects contained in v -- v becomes a prototype to be deep copied in each thread.

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  • IPHONE DEVELOPMENT PROFILE EXPIRED - I TRIED EVERYTHING AND YES, I READ THE DOCS

    - by theiphoneguy
    I really combed this site and others. I read and re-read the related links here and the Apple docs. I'm sorry, but either I am obviously missing something right under my nose, or this Apple profile/certificate stuff is a bit convoluted. Here it is: I have a product in the App Store. I have updated it several times and users like it. My development profile recently expired just when I was improving the app for its next release. I can run the app in the simulator. I can compile and put the distribution build on my iPhone just fine. I went to the Apple portal and renewed the development profile. I downloaded it and installed it in Xcode. I see it in the Organize window. I see it on my iPhone. I CANNOT put the debug build on my iPhone to debug or run with Instruments. The message is that either there is not a valid signed profile or it is untrusted. I subsequently tried to download and install the certificate to my Mac's keychain. Still no success. I checked the code signing section of Project settings and also for the target and the root. All appears to indicate that it is using the expected development profile for debug. Yes, I had deleted the old profile from my iPhone, from the Organizer. I cleaned the Xcode cache and all targets. I have done all of this several times and in varying sequences to try to cover every possibility. I am ready to do anything to be able to debug with Instruments in order to check for leaks or high memory usage. Even though the distribution compile runs fine on my iPhone and plays well with other running processes, I will not release anything without a leaks/memory test. Any ideas will be appreciated. If I missed something obvious, please forgive me - it was not due to just posting a question without searching for similar postings. Thanks!

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  • Nested Execution Flow Control

    - by chris
    I've read tens of answers related to callbacks, promises and other ways to control flow, but I can't still wrap my head around this task, obviously due to my lack of competence. I have a nested problem: In test_1() (and the other functions) I would like to ensure that the rows are added to the table according to the order in which the elements are in the object; I would like to execute either test_2 or test_3 (or both after each other) only after test_1 has finished completely. Actually the right sequence will only be known at runtime (there will be a switch with the possible sequences, like 1,2,3 or 1,3,2 or 1,2,1,3 or 1,3,3,2, etc...) Code: $(function () { // create table tbl = document.createElement('table'); tbl.className = "mainTbl"; $("body").append(tbl); }); function test_1() { $.each(obj, function () { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "loaded"; }; img.onerror = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "not loaded"; }; img.src = this.url; }); } function test_2() { $.each(obj, function () { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "loaded"; }; img.onerror = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "not loaded"; }; img.src = this.url; }); } function test_3() { $.each(obj, function () { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "loaded"; }; img.onerror = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "not loaded"; }; img.src = this.url; }); } I know that calling the functions in sequence doesn't work as they don't wait for each other... I think promises are they way to go but I can't find the right combination and the documentation is way too complex for my skills. What's the best way to structure the code so that it's executed in the right order?

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  • UIButtons creating a native-like keyboard behavior.

    - by camilo
    Greets. A somehow detailed explanation on my problem, and what I have already done, and what I cannot do. I want to create a behavior resembling the one in the iPhone's keyboard. Basically, I want a view to appear when the user taps a button and WHILE the user taps that button. This, I accomplished. When the user lets go of the button WHILE his finger is on that button's area, I want to trigger an action "doing stuff". This, I was also able to do. Since all the buttons are near (like in the keyboard) and I don't want the user to select other button than the one he pressed, I reduced the hit area for the button using the -(BOOL)pointInside:(CGPoint)point withEvent:(UIEvent )event function. When the user presses the button, not lifting its finger, and dragging outside the button area, I want another action to trigger. This is the first problem... This function only triggers when the user's finger is far from the buttons' area, and this time the pointInside function is not being my friend. How can I detect the user finger "left" the button area the moment it exits its bounds? This, in case you didn't realize... was problem 1. The second problem is related with the drag enter. Again, I need to limit the area like in the drag exit. But I suppose that when I solve one of these, the other is the same. The problem is that in order to have a behavior like in the keyboard, I may need to detect the user started the touch in another button, never lifted his finger, and changed to another button. I can detect drag enter and drag exit IN THIS ORDER while on the same button. I cannot detect drag enter when the user first touched anywhere else other than the button where I want to detect the drag enter event. Basically what I need is to detect touch on any button (and not anywhere else in the view), and while the user is changing buttons without lifting the finger, I want to detect the new button being touched. This gigantic paragraph was problem #2. Any help, as you might guess, is highly appreciated. Best Regards. Thanks a lot!

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  • Spring constructor injection error

    - by Jeune
    I am getting the following error for a bean in my application context: Related cause: org.springframework.beans.factory.UnsatisfiedDependencyException: Error creating bean with name 'businessLogicContext' d efined in class path resource [activemq-jms-consumer.xml]: Unsatisfied dependency expressed through constructor argument with index 0 of type [java.lang.String]: Could not convert constructor argument value of type [java.util.ArrayList] to required type [java.lang.String]: Failed to convert value of type [java.util.ArrayList] to required type [java.lang.Stri ng]; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Cannot convert value of type [java.util.ArrayList] to requi red type [java.lang.String]: no matching editors or conversion strategy found at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.ConstructorResolver.createArgumentArray(ConstructorResolver.java:53 4) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.ConstructorResolver.autowireConstructor(ConstructorResolver.java:18 6) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.autowireConstructor(AbstractAuto wireCapableBeanFactory.java:855) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBeanInstance(AbstractAutow ireCapableBeanFactory.java:765) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCap ableBeanFactory.java:412) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory$1.run(AbstractAutowireCapableBea nFactory.java:383) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBean(AbstractAutowireCapab leBeanFactory.java:353) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory$1.getObject(AbstractBeanFactory.java:245) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultSingletonBeanRegistry.getSingleton(DefaultSingletonBeanRegis try.java:169) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.getBean(AbstractBeanFactory.java:242) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.getBean(AbstractBeanFactory.java:164) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.preInstantiateSingletons(DefaultListable BeanFactory.java:400) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.finishBeanFactoryInitialization(AbstractApplic ationContext.java:736) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:369) at org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.<init>(ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.java :123) at org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.<init>(ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.java :66) Here is my bean: <bean id="businessLogicContext" class="org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext" depends-on="resolveProperty"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <list> <value>jms-applicationContext.xml</value> <value>jms-managerBeanContext.xml</value> <value>jms-daoContext.xml</value> <value>jms-serviceContext.xml</value> </list> </constructor-arg> </bean> I don't know what's wrong, I have googled how to inject a string array via constructor injection and the way I do it above seems okay.

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  • Supporting multiple instances of a plugin DLL with global data

    - by Bruno De Fraine
    Context: I converted a legacy standalone engine into a plugin component for a composition tool. Technically, this means that I compiled the engine code base to a C DLL which I invoke from a .NET wrapper using P/Invoke; the wrapper implements an interface defined by the composition tool. This works quite well, but now I receive the request to load multiple instances of the engine, for different projects. Since the engine keeps the project data in a set of global variables, and since the DLL with the engine code base is loaded only once, loading multiple projects means that the project data is overwritten. I can see a number of solutions, but they all have some disadvantages: You can create multiple DLLs with the same code, which are seen as different DLLs by Windows, so their code is not shared. Probably this already works if you have multiple copies of the engine DLL with different names. However, the engine is invoked from the wrapper using DllImport attributes and I think the name of the engine DLL needs to be known when compiling the wrapper. Obviously, if I have to compile different versions of the wrapper for each project, this is quite cumbersome. The engine could run as a separate process. This means that the wrapper would launch a separate process for the engine when it loads a project, and it would use some form of IPC to communicate with this process. While this is a relatively clean solution, it requires some effort to get working, I don't now which IPC technology would be best to set-up this kind of construction. There may also be a significant overhead of the communication: the engine needs to frequently exchange arrays of floating-point numbers. The engine could be adapted to support multiple projects. This means that the global variables should be put into a project structure, and every reference to the globals should be converted to a corresponding reference that is relative to a particular project. There are about 20-30 global variables, but as you can imagine, these global variables are referenced from all over the code base, so this conversion would need to be done in some automatic manner. A related problem is that you should be able to reference the "current" project structure in all places, but passing this along as an extra argument in each and every function signature is also cumbersome. Does there exist a technique (in C) to consider the current call stack and find the nearest enclosing instance of a relevant data value there? Can the stackoverflow community give some advice on these (or other) solutions?

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  • .NET and C# Exceptions. What is it reasonable to catch.

    - by djna
    Disclaimer, I'm from a Java background. I don't do much C#. There's a great deal of transfer between the two worlds, but of course there are differences and one is in the way Exceptions tend to be thought about. I recently answered a C# question suggesting that under some circstances it's reasonable to do this: try { some work } catch (Exeption e) { commonExceptionHandler(); } (The reasons why are immaterial). I got a response that I don't quite understand: until .NET 4.0, it's very bad to catch Exception. It means you catch various low-level fatal errors and so disguise bugs. It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed, so even if the callExceptionReporter fuunction tries to log and quit, it may not even get to that point (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database). May I'm more confused than I realise, but I don't agree with some of that. Please would other folks comment. I understand that there are many low level Exceptions we don't want to swallow. My commonExceptionHandler() function could reasonably rethrow those. This seems consistent with this answer to a related question. Which does say "Depending on your context it can be acceptable to use catch(...), providing the exception is re-thrown." So I conclude using catch (Exception ) is not always evil, silently swallowing certain exceptions is. The phrase "Until .NET 4 it is very bad to Catch Exception" What changes in .NET 4? IS this a reference to AggregateException, which may give us some new things to do with exceptions we catch, but I don't think changes the fundamental "don't swallow" rule. The next phrase really bothers be. Can this be right? It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database) My understanding is that if some low level code had lowLevelMethod() { try { lowestLevelMethod(); } finally { some really important stuff } } and in my code I call lowLevel(); try { lowLevel() } catch (Exception e) { exception handling and maybe rethrowing } Whether or not I catch Exception this has no effect whatever on the excution of the finally block. By the time we leave lowLevelMethod() the finally has already run. If the finally is going to do any of the bad things, such as corrupt my disk, then it will do so. My catching the Exception made no difference. If It reaches my Exception block I need to do the right thing, but I can't be the cause of dmis-executing finallys

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  • UITableView: Mixing static and dynamic cells

    - by AlexR
    I am trying to mix dynamic and static cells in a grouped table view: I would like to get two sections with static cells at the top followed by a section of dynamic cells (please refer to the screenshot below). I have set the table view contents to static cells. I designed the static cells in Interface Builder and gave them identifiers related to their section and row: "section0static0", "section0static1", "section1static0" and "section1static1". I named the dynamic cell "section2dynamic". My delegate methods, in which I am trying to return the correct cell identifier (static or dynamic) are as follows: - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { switch (section) { case 0: return 2; break; case 1: return 2; break; case 2: return 0; break; default: break; } return 0; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @""; if (indexPath.section <= 1) CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%istatic%i",indexPath.section,indexPath.row]; else CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%idynamic",indexPath.section]; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; return cell; } Edit Based on AppleFreak's advice I have changed my code as follows: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell; if (indexPath.section <= 1) { // section <= 1 indicates static cells cell = [super tableView:tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]; } else { // section > 1 indicates dynamic cells CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%idynamic",indexPath.section]; cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; } return cell; } However, my app crashes with error message Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'UITableView dataSource must return a cell from tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath:' for section 0 and row 0. The cell returned from cell = [super tableView:tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath] for section 0 and row 0 is nil. What is wrong with my code? Could there be any problems with my outlets? I haven't set any outlets because I am subclassing UITableViewController and supposedly do not any outlets for tableview to be set (?). Any suggestions on how to better do it?

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  • GLKit Memory Leak copywithZone

    - by TommyT39
    Running the instruments utility against the game I'm writing shows a bunch of memory leaks related to copy with Zone when I cycle through an array and draw some simple cube objects. Im not sure the best way to track this down as I'm new to OpenGL programming. My program is using ARC and is set to build for IOS 5. I am initializing GLKit to use OPenGl 2.0 and using the BafeEffect so I don't have to write my own shaders etc.. This shouldn't be rocket science. Im guessing that I must be not releasing something within the draw function. Below is the code to my draw function. Could you guys take a look and see if anything stands out as the problem? One other thing to note is that I'm using 15 different textures, the cubes can be 1 of 15 different ones. I have a property set on the cube class for the texture and I set it as I create the cube in there array. But I do load all 15 when my programs view did load starts.They are small .jps files that are less than 75k each and each cube uses the same texture all the way around so shouldn't be too big of an issue. Here is the code to my draw function: - (void)draw { GLKMatrix4 xRotationMatrix = GLKMatrix4MakeXRotation(rotation.x); GLKMatrix4 yRotationMatrix = GLKMatrix4MakeYRotation(rotation.y); GLKMatrix4 zRotationMatrix = GLKMatrix4MakeZRotation(rotation.z); GLKMatrix4 scaleMatrix = GLKMatrix4MakeScale(scale.x, scale.y, scale.z); GLKMatrix4 translateMatrix = GLKMatrix4MakeTranslation(position.x, position.y, position.z); GLKMatrix4 modelMatrix = GLKMatrix4Multiply(translateMatrix,GLKMatrix4Multiply(scaleMatrix,GLKMatrix4Multiply(zRotationMatrix, GLKMatrix4Multiply(yRotationMatrix, xRotationMatrix)))); GLKMatrix4 viewMatrix = GLKMatrix4MakeLookAt(0, 0, 1, 0, 0, -5, 0, 1, 0); effect.transform.modelviewMatrix = GLKMatrix4Multiply(viewMatrix, modelMatrix); effect.transform.projectionMatrix = GLKMatrix4MakePerspective(0.125*M_TAU, 1.0, 2, 0); effect.texture2d0.name = wallTexture.name; [effect prepareToDraw]; glEnable(GL_DEPTH_TEST); glEnable(GL_CULL_FACE); glEnableVertexAttribArray(GLKVertexAttribPosition); glVertexAttribPointer(GLKVertexAttribPosition, 3, GL_FLOAT, GL_FALSE, 0, triangleVertices); glEnableVertexAttribArray(GLKVertexAttribTexCoord0); glVertexAttribPointer(GLKVertexAttribTexCoord0, 2, GL_FLOAT, GL_FALSE, 0, textureCoordinates); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLES, 0, 18); glDisableVertexAttribArray(GLKVertexAttribPosition); glDisableVertexAttribArray(GLKVertexAttribTexCoord0); }

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  • sequence generators are getting ignored

    - by luvfort
    I'm getting the following error while saving a object. However similar configuration is working for other model objects in my projects. Any help would be greatly appreciated. @Entity @Table(name = "ENROLLMENT_GROUP_MEMBERSHIPS", schema = "LEAD_ROUTING") public class EnrollmentGroupMembership implements Serializable, Comparable,Auditable { @javax.persistence.SequenceGenerator(name = "enrollmentGroupMemID", sequenceName = "S_ENROLLMENT_GROUP_MEMBERSHIPS") @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO, generator = "enrollmentGroupMemID") @Column(name = "ID") private Long id; @ManyToOne() @JoinColumn(name = "TIER_WEIGHT_OID", referencedColumnName = "OID", updatable = false, insertable = false) private TierWeight tierWeight; public EnrollmentGroupMembership() { } } Code: @Entity @Table(name = "TIER_WEIGHT", schema = "LEAD_ROUTING") public class TierWeight implements Serializable, Auditable { @SequenceGenerator(name = "tierSequence",sequenceName = "S_TIER_WEIGHT") @Column(name = "OID") @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO, generator = "tierSequence") private Long id; @OneToMany @JoinColumn(name = "TIER_WEIGHT_OID", referencedColumnName = "OID") private Set<EnrollmentGroupMembership> memberships; public TierWeight() { } } The logic layer's code is @Override public void createTier(String tierName, float weight) { TierWeight tier = new TierWeight(); tier.setWeight(weight); tier.setTier(tierName); tierWeightDAO.create(tier); } Similar Many-one configuration is working through out the project. I don't know why this one instance is failing. Any help would be greatly appreciated. The following is the error that I'm getting Caused by: org.hibernate.id.IdentifierGenerationException: ids for this class must be manually assigned before calling save(): edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.TierWeight at org.hibernate.id.Assigned.generate(Assigned.java:3 3) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractSaveEventListener. saveWithGeneratedId(AbstractSaveEventListener.java :99) The log file is telling that the sequence generator tierSequence is not getting created. However other sequence generators are getting created. 2010-06-03 11:24:51,834 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Processing annotations of edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.TierWeight.dateCreated 2010-06-03 11:24:51,834 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Processing annotations of edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.TierWeight.dateCreated 2010-06-03 11:24:51,834 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.Ejb3Column:] Binding column DATE_CREATED unique false ....................................... ....................................... 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Processing annotations of edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.CounselorAvailability.id 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.Ejb3Column:] Binding column OID unique false 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.Ejb3Column:] Binding column OID unique false 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] id is an id 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] id is an id 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Add sequence generator with name: counselorAvailabilityID 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Add sequence generator with name: counselorAvailabilityID While debugging, I see that the org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl is returning the "Assigned" identifierGenerator. This is horrible. I've specified the identifierGenerator as "Auto". Please see the above code. As a sidenote, I was trying to debug and seeing how the objects are getting retrieved from the database. Looks like the enrollmentgroupmembership records have the tierweight value populated. However if I look at the tierweight object, it doesn't have the enrollmentgroupmembership records. I'm puzzled. I think these two problems must be related. Maddy.

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