Search Results

Search found 48324 results on 1933 pages for 'how stuff works'.

Page 445/1933 | < Previous Page | 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452  | Next Page >

  • Conditionaly strip the last line from a text file

    - by fraXis
    Hello, I posted this yesterday on SO, and I received an answer that works great, but I need to change it around and I don't know how. Here is my original message: I need to strip the last line from a text file. I know how to open and save text files in C#, but how would I strip the last line of the text file? The text file will always be different sizes (some have 80 lines, some have 20). Can someone please show me how to do this? Here is the code that someone gave me to do this (which works fine) //Delete the last line from the file. This line could be 8174, 10000, or anything. This is from SO string tempfile = @"C:\junk_temp.txt"; using (StreamReader reader2 = new StreamReader(newfilename)) { using (StreamWriter writer2 = new StreamWriter(tempfile)) { string line = reader2.ReadLine(); while (!reader2.EndOfStream) { writer2.WriteLine(line); line = reader2.ReadLine(); } // by reading ahead, will not write last line to file } } File.Delete(newfilename); File.Move(tempfile, newfilename); File.Delete(tempfile); How would I change this to only delete the last line of the text file if it is a 4 or 5 digit string (such as 8001 or 99999). If it is anything other than that, such as a %, then I don't want to delete the last line. Can someone please modify the above code to do this for me? Thanks so much.

    Read the article

  • Web Reference Code generator template.

    - by Bluephlame
    I Have an internal SOAP Web service that is being called from an external REST service in .NET it works fine however I am simply passing through the SOAP objects of the REST Layer but the automatic generation of the WebReference Code in Visual Studio adds the 'field' to the end of every attribute. basically it makes my XML look all nasty. Everything works I just want to clean up my XML. Any ideas how i can change the template for the reference.cs or to make the XML generate nicely from the Web Service Objects. Here is an example of the reference.cs public int HeadLeft { get { return this.headLeftField; } set { this.headLeftField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadTop { get { return this.headTopField; } set { this.headTopField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadWidth { get { return this.headWidthField; } set { this.headWidthField = value; } } Here is an examle of the XML <a:headHeightField>208</a:headHeightField> <a:headLeftField>316</a:headLeftField> <a:headTopField>103</a:headTopField> <a:headWidthField>161</a:headWidthField>

    Read the article

  • While loop in foreach loop not looping correctly

    - by tominated
    I'm trying to make a very basic php ORM as for a school project. I have got almost everything working, but I'm trying to map results to an array. Here's a snippet of code to hopefully assist my explanation. $results = array(); foreach($this->columns as $column){ $current = array(); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($this->results)){ $current[] = $row[$column]; print_r($current); echo '<br><br>'; } $results[$column] = $current; } print_r($results); return mysql_fetch_array($this->results); This works, but the while loop only works on the first column. The print_r($results); shows the following: Array ( [testID] => Array ( [0] => 1 [1] => 2 ) [testName] => Array ( ) [testData] => Array ( ) ) Can anybody shed some light? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Should I pass a SqlDataReader by reference or not when passing it out to multiple threads.

    - by deroby
    Hi all, being new to c# I've run into this 'conundrum' when passing around a SqlDataReader between different threads. Without going into too much detail, the idea is to have a main thread fetching data from the database (a large recordset) and then have a helper-task run through this record by record and doing some stuff based upon the contents of this. There is no feedback to the recordset, it simply wades through until no records are left. This works fine, but given the nature of the job at hand it should be possible to have this job spread over different threads (CPUs) to maximize throughput (the order of execution is of no significance). The question then becomes, when I pass this recordset in a SqlDataReader, do I have to use ref or not ? It kind of boils down to the question : if I pass the object around without specifying ref, won't it create new copies in memory and have records processed n times ? Or, don't I risk having the record-position being moved forward while not all fields have been fully read yet ? The latter seems more like a 'data racing' issue and probably is covered by the lock()ing mechanism (or not?). My initial take on the problem was that it doesn't really hurt passing the variable using ref, yet as a colleague put it : "you only need ref when you're doing something wrong" =) Additionally using ref restricts me from applying a Using() construction too which isn't very nice either. I thus create a "basic" project that tackles the same approach but without the ref notation. Tests so far show that it works flawlessly on a Core2Duo (2cpu) using any number of threads, yet I'm still a bit wary... What do you experts think about this ? Use ref or not ? You can find the test-project here as it seems I can't upload it to this question directly ?!? ps: it's just a test-project and I'm new to c#, so please be gentle on me when breaking down the code =P

    Read the article

  • Focus CSS tag in Internet Explorer 8

    - by Sam
    This is driving me nuts. http://www.cssdrive.com/index.php/examples/exampleitem/focus_pseudo_class This is an example of using the hover pseudo-class. Works fine in Chrome and IE. When I save locally it works fine in Chrome but won't work in IE. What am I doing wrong!? <link rel="Stylesheet" href="style.css" /> <form> <p>1) Name:<br /> <input type="text" size="40"></p> <p>2) Email address:<br /> <input type="text" size="40"></p> <p>3) Comments:<br /> <textarea rows="5" name="comments" cols="45" wrap="virtual"></textarea></p> <p><input id="actualsubmit" type="submit" value="Submit"></p> </form> style.css: input:focus, textarea:focus{ background-color: lightyellow; }

    Read the article

  • Send Click Message to another application process

    - by Nazar Hussain
    I have a scenario, i need to send click events to an independent application. I started that application with the following code. private Process app; app = new Process(); app.StartInfo.FileName = app_path; app.StartInfo.WorkingDirectory = dir_path; app.Start(); Now i want to send Mouse click message to that applicaiton, I have specific coordinates in relative to application window. How can i do it using Windows Messaging or any other technique. I used [DllImport("user32.dll")] private static extern void mouse_event(UInt32 dwFlags, UInt32 dx, UInt32 dy, UInt32 dwData, IntPtr dwExtraInfo); It works well but cause the pointer to move as well. So not fit for my need. Then i use. [DllImport("user32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = false)] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, int Msg, int wParam, int lParam); It works well for minimize maximize, but do not work for mouse events. The codes for mousevents i am using are, WM_LBUTTONDOWN = 0x201, //Left mousebutton down WM_LBUTTONUP = 0x202, //Left mousebutton up WM_LBUTTONDBLCLK = 0x203, //Left mousebutton doubleclick WM_RBUTTONDOWN = 0x204, //Right mousebutton down WM_RBUTTONUP = 0x205, //Right mousebutton up WM_RBUTTONDBLCLK = 0x206, //Right mousebutton do Thanks for the help in advance, and waiting for feedback.

    Read the article

  • How to copy a variable in JavaScript?

    - by Michael Stum
    I have this JavaScript code: for (var idx in data) { var row = $("<tr></tr>"); row.click(function() { alert(idx); }); table.append(row); } So I'm looking through an array, dynamically creating rows (the part where I create the cells is omitted as it's not important). Important is that I create a new function which encloses the idx variable. However, idx is only a reference, so at the end of the loop, all rows have the same function and all alert the same value. One way I solve this at the moment is by doing this: function GetRowClickFunction(idx){ return function() { alert(idx); } } and in the calling code I call row.click(GetRowClickFunction(idx)); This works, but is somewhat ugly. I wonder if there is a better way to just copy the current value of idx inside the loop? While the problem itself is not jQuery specific (it's related to JavaScript closures/scope), I use jQuery and hence a jQuery-only solution is okay if it works.

    Read the article

  • How to make a self contained jQuery plugin that finds the tallest image height?

    - by Jannis
    I have been trying to make this to be a little jQuery plugin that I can reuse in the future without having to write the following into my actions.js file in full. This works when loaded in the same file where I set the height using my variable tallest. var tallest = null; $('.slideshow img').each(function(index) { if ($(this).height() >= tallest ) { tallest = $(this).height(); } }); $('.slideshow').height(tallest); This works and will cycle through all the items, then set the value of tallest to the greatest height found. The following however does not work: This would be the plugin, loaded from its own file (before the actions.js file that contains the parts using this): (function($){ $.fn.extend({ tallest: function() { var tallest = null; return this.each(function() { if ($(this).height() >= tallest ) { tallest = $(this).height(); } }); } }); })(jQuery); Once loaded I am trying to use it as follows: $('.slideshow img').tallest(); $('.slideshow').height(tallest); However the above two lines return an error of 'tallest is undefined'. How can I make this work? Any ideas would be appreciated. Thinking about this even more the perfect usage of this would be as follows: $('.container').height(tallest('.container item')); But I wouldn't even know where to begin to get this to work in the manner that you pass the object to be measured into the function by adding it into the brackets of the function name. Thanks for reading, Jannis

    Read the article

  • C# Interface Method calls from a controller

    - by ArjaaAine
    I was just working on some application architecture and this may sound like a stupid question but please explain to me how the following works: Interface: public interface IMatterDAL { IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input); IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input); } Class: public class MatterDAL : IMatterDAL { private readonly Database _db; public MatterDAL(Database db) { _db = db; LoadAll(); //Private Method } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input) { //CODE return result; } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input) { //CODE return results; } Controller: public class MatterController : ApiController { private readonly IMatterDAL _publishedData; public MatterController(IMatterDAL publishedData) { _publishedData = publishedData; } [ValidateInput(false)] public JsonResult SearchByCode(string id) { var searchText = id; //better name for this var results = _publishedData.GetMattersBySearch(searchText).Select( matter => new { MatterCode = matter.Code, MatterName = matter.Name, matter.ClientCode, matter.ClientName }); return Json(results); } This works, when I call my controller method from jquery and step into it, the call to the _publishedData method, goes into the class MatterDAL. I want to know how does my controller know to go to the MatterDAL implementation of the Interface IMatterDAL. What if I have another class called MatterDAL2 which is based on the interface. How will my controller know then to call the right method? I am sorry if this is a stupid question, this is baffling me.

    Read the article

  • UDP server doesnt accept calls from outside.

    - by rayman
    Hi, ive implement simple udp server on my Android device.(sdk 1.5) it works fine when i am runnning a local client on the phone sends through it trigger to my server. but when i try to get udp call from an outside server to my phone, it doesnt work. already make sure the outside server isnt blocked by firewall and it's sending the udp trigger to the right port, which my phone is listening to. i used natstat on the phone and checked that the phone is realy listening to the it's local ip and the port ive setted it to. here is my code of the server:(on the device) // server will listen to one client try { Thread udpServerThread = new Thread() { @Override public void run() { try { // Retrieve the ServerName InetAddress serverAddr = InetAddress .getByName("localhost"); Log.d("UDP", "S: Connecting..."); // Create new UDP-Socket socket = new DatagramSocket(SERVERPORT,serverAddr); byte[] buf = new byte[17]; // * Prepare a UDP-Packet that can contain the data we // * want to receive DatagramPacket packet = new DatagramPacket(buf, buf.length); Log.d("UDP", "S: Receiving..."); // wait to Receive the UDP-Packet socket.receive(packet); Log.d("UDP", "S: Received: '" + new String(packet.getData()) + "'"); acceptedMsg=new String(packet.getData()); notifyService(acceptedMsg); Log.d("UDP", "S: Done."); } catch (Exception e) { Log.e("UDP", "S: Error", e); } } }; udpServerThread.start(); } catch (Exception E) { Log.e("r",E.getMessage()) ; } so as i said, when i try it with local client(seperate thread) which sends udp trigger it works fine, but when i take this client implementation and put it on an outside real server, after UDP being sent, the phone doesnt respond to it. any idea? thanks, ray.

    Read the article

  • Checkboxes in ADF are initially null, where I want them to be 0

    - by Mark Tielemans
    I am using ADF in JDeveloper and don´t have any experience with either of the two. Now I´ve run into quite some trouble yet, but for this particular thing I decided to consult the wisom of stackoverflow. The thing is, I have an edit form for an object that contains 3 checkboxes. The checked values are set to 1, unchecked to 0. In my database, the values are NOT NULL, and I want to keep it that way. The thing is, in the edit form, if the user submits the form leaving any boxes unchecked, it will result in an error, because the unchecked box values apparently remain null. Only after checking and then unchecking the boxes again, their values will be '0' rather than null. I've tried some things, including making the attributes mandatory in the domain BCD, but that just gives a bit more neat error message.. Any help would be greatly appreciated!! EDIT I made a little progress thanks to the guide provided by Joe, but still run into problems. I changed the values that should be checkboxes in my model, making them BOOLEANs where the table columns are NUMBERs (All are also mandatory and have a default value of 0). This automatically changed the corresponding View Object too. In the Application module, this now works great. It shows checkboxes, a checked one will return 1, an untouched one will return 0. However, I deleted the old form, and inserted a new one using the corresponding Data Control. I gave these values the checkbox type. I still had to edit the bindings (which I think reflects the problem, as this is not the case with, say, a model-level defined LOV) and gave them 1 for checked and 0 for unchecked. However, now apart from the original problem still occurring, also the checkboxes cannot be unchecked after checking, and return 0 when checked (and null when left untouched). Even though this has created new problems, it works correctly in my AM. Does someone know what I'm doing wrong in my Swing form?

    Read the article

  • Need help with if else statement

    - by Michael Quiles
    I'm trying to do an else statement that would tell the user that the game ended in a draw (tic tac toe game). I got it where it works if played and there's a winner it will show another form declaring the winner through an if statement but I cant figure out the its a draw portion. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Drawing; namespace MyGame { public class Result1 { static private int[,] Winners = new int[,] { // main gameplay Ex: if x is on 0,1,2 x is the winner {0,1,2}, {3,4,5}, {6,7,8}, {0,3,6}, {1,4,7}, {2,5,8}, {0,4,8}, {2,4,6}, }; static public bool CheckWinner(Button[] myControls) { //bolean statement to check for the winner bool gameOver = false; for (int i = 0; i < 8; i++) { int a = Winners[i, 0]; int b = Winners[i, 1]; int c = Winners[i, 2]; Button b1 = myControls[a], b2 = myControls[b], b3 = myControls[c]; if (b1.Text == "" || b2.Text == "" || b3.Text == "") continue; if (b1.Text == b2.Text && b2.Text == b3.Text) { b1.BackColor = b2.BackColor = b3.BackColor = Color.LightCoral; b1.Font = b2.Font = b3.Font = new System.Drawing.Font("Microsoft Sans Serif", 32F, System.Drawing.FontStyle.Italic & System.Drawing.FontStyle.Bold, System.Drawing.GraphicsUnit.Point, ((System.Byte)(0))); gameOver = true; xWinnerForm xWinnerForm = new xWinnerForm(); xWinnerForm.ShowDialog(); //only works with show not showDialog method gets overloaded (b1.Text + " is the Winner"); to get around this I added and image showing the last player } //else statement here for draw what code would I put in? } return gameOver; } } }

    Read the article

  • protect form hijacking hack

    - by Karem
    Yes hello today I discovered a hack for my site. When you write a msg on a users wall (in my communitysite) it runs a ajax call, to insert the msg to the db and will then on success slide down and show it. Works fine with no problem. So I was rethinking alittle, I am using POST methods for this and if it was GET method you could easily do ?msg=haxmsg&usr=12345679. But what could you do to come around the POST method? I made a new html document, made a form and on action i set "site.com/insertwall.php" (the file that normally are being used in ajax), i made some input fields with names exactly like i am doing with the ajaxcall (msg, uID (userid), BuID (by userid) ) and made a submit button. I know I have a page_protect() function on which requires you to login and if you arent you will be header to index.php. So i logged in (started session on my site.com) and then I pressed on this submit button. And then wops I saw on my site that it has made a new message. I was like wow, was it so easy to hijack POST method i thought maybe it was little more secure or something. I would like to know what could I do to prevent this hijacking? As i wouldnt even want to know what real hackers could do with this "hole". The page_protect secures that the sessions are from the same http user agent and so, and this works fine (tried to run the form without logging in, and it just headers me to startpage) but yea wouldnt take long time to figure out to log in first and then run it. Any advices are appreciated alot. I would like to keep my ajax calls most secure as possible and all of them are running on the POST method. What could I do to the insertwall.php, to check that it comes from the server or something.. Thank you

    Read the article

  • What could possibly be causing this NPE in onCreate?

    - by Adam Johns
    I am getting an NPE in onCreate of the following file (MySubActivity): public class MySubActivity extends MySuperActivity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); myTextView.setText(getResources().getString(R.string.myString)); } } MySuperActivity: public class MySuperActivity extends Activity { protected TextView myTextView; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.my_layout); myTextView = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.myTextViewid); } } The strange thing is that I have never seen this crash while testing the app. The page works fine when I test it. However I got a crash report from Google notifying me of the crash. I cannot reproduce it, and I have no idea under what scenario this crash could happen. Seeing as how it works for me, the resource ids and string names etc. must be correct. The only thing that came across my mind was that maybe the user had their phone set to a different language, so it couldn't properly pull the resources. However, there are default resources for all of them, and I tested changing the language of my emulator and it didn't crash. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Loading Javascript through an AJAX load through jQuery??

    - by Jason Axelrod
    I have an javascript that I place into a page using the code below. What the code does is place an object/embed code into a webpage. Simple javascript loader to a NicoVideo movie <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395"></script> This works great in a webpage. But what if I want to load this javascript into a page using AJAX? This no longer works for the obvious reasons, you would need to eval the script in order to get it to run. However, I have no idea how to do this. I am using jQuery on my page; so keep that in mind. I have tried the following code, but it doesn't seem to work through AJAX, or even in a normal page load environment. <script>$.getScript("http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395");</script> Any ideas on how I would get this to work?

    Read the article

  • Castle windsor security exception

    - by Sunil
    I developed a small WCF service that uses Castle Windsor IoC container and it works fine on my PC. When I deploy it onto a Win 2008 R2 server and host the WCF service in IIS 7 it fails with the following error. I checked the server level web.config and the trust level is set to "Full". What do I need to do to get this to work. As a test I deployed the same service as it is onto a Windows 2003 server with the trust level set to "Full" and it works fine. I am unable to figure out what setting/configuration I am missing on the 2008 server that is making the service fail. Stack Trace: [SecurityException: That assembly does not allow partially trusted callers.] Castle.Windsor.WindsorContainer..ctor() +0 WMS.ServiceContractImplementation.IoC.IoCInstanceProvider..ctor(Type serviceType) in D:\WCF\WCFProofOfConcept\WMSServices \WMS.ServiceContractImplementation\IoC\IoCInstanceProvider.cs:19 WMS.ServiceContractImplementation.IoC.IoCServiceBehavior.ApplyDispatchBehav­ior(ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase) in D:\WCF \WCFProofOfConcept\WMSServices\WMS.ServiceContractImplementation\IoC \IoCServiceBehavior.cs:24 System.ServiceModel.Description.DispatcherBuilder.InitializeServiceHost(Ser­viceDescription description, ServiceHostBase serviceHost) +377 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.InitializeRuntime() +37 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnBeginOpen() +27 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) +49 System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) +261 System.ServiceModel.HostingManager.ActivateService(String normalizedVirtualPath) +121 System.ServiceModel.HostingManager.EnsureServiceAvailable(String normalizedVirtualPath) +479

    Read the article

  • redirecting the root domain - SEO and other issues, need some guidance!

    - by Jim Sp
    I'm not familiar with some of these forwarding methods and I need help. My issue is this: I have a site hosted on discountasp.net. My domain was registered through 1&1 and I redirected the DNS to what discountasp.net wanted. So when a user types www.mydomain.com, he/she sees the ASP.NET site hosted on discountasp.net, which is all fine My main page is Index.aspx, I really suck at html page design and I don't have time or the talent to fiddle with it (or money to get it done by a pro). The rest of the pages are fine. I want to use a good theme from tumblr or bloggr - one of the blog sites and create a page that I want to use as the first page - directly on blogger or tumblr - say yyy.blogspot.com (I have many reasons, so for now please don't bash my decision - let's just say that's what I want). That means when a user types www.mydomain.com, it should redirect it to the blogger or tumblr page. Everything else stays the sme - the links on the blogger page will say www.mydomain.com/xxxx and show up what's on the hosted website. I have setup the IIS rewrite rules etc. etc. so that all works just fine The bottom line is I want to show an external site's web page as my root page. I suppose I'm struggling to even explain what I want! I can of course do a response.redirect on the Index.aspx page - which is the simplest way to manage this, but the big question is will this hurt SEO in some way? If not, that would be what I do and leave the rest of the infrastructure intact (I have already done this to test and it works fine) Thank you very much j

    Read the article

  • Android: How to periodically check current location without draining the battery

    - by uyahalom
    I have a background service which works periodically by timer.scheduleAtFixedRate. It wakes up every amount of time (let's say 60 seconds for example) and checks for the location. The location is checked by locManager.requestLocationUpdates(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 60000, 5, listener); and the actual location is collected from the listener's onLocationChanged. Now, when the phone is outside and GPS reception is good, this works fine. But, if the phone is inside, the GPS is almost always active - looking for a signal, and the battery is drained rapidly. I created another thread using a Handler and a Runnable in order to conrol the GPS active time accurately: I used locManager.requestLocationUpdates(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 0, 0, listener); and locManager.removeUpdates(listener); so I can open and close the GPS as I want. In this case, I can open the GPS for the exact amount of time, but found out that it doesn't lock in an area with good reception even after 10 seconds. So here I'm draining the battery again... I'm using API level 7, hence I cannot use locationManager.requestSingleUpdate. I have two questions: Is there any way to optimize this process? Will upgrading to API level 9 (and use locationManager.requestSingleUpdate) improve the process significantly? I mean, does it worth upgrading?

    Read the article

  • OpenMP in Fortran

    - by user345293
    I very rarely use fortran, however I have been tasked with taking legacy code rewriting it to run in parallel. I'm using gfortran for my compiler choice. I found some excellent resources at https://computing.llnl.gov/tutorials/openMP/ as well as a few others. My problem is this, before I add any OpenMP directives, if I simply compile the legacy program: gfortran Example1.F90 -o Example1 everything works, but turning on the openmp compiler option even without adding directives: gfortran -openmp Example1.F90 -o Example1 ends up with a Segmentation fault when I run the legacy program. Using smaller test programs that I wrote, I've successfully compiled other programs with -openmp that run on multiple threads, but I'm rather at a loss why enabling the option alone and no directives is resulting in a seg fault. I apologize if my question is rather simple. I could post code but it is rather long. It faults as I assign initial values: REAL, DIMENSION(da,da) :: uconsold REAL, DIMENSION(da,da,dr,dk) :: uconsolde ... uconsold=0.0 uconsolde=0.0 The first assignment to "uconsold" works fine, the second seems to be the source of the fault as when I comment the line out the next several lines execute merrily until "uconsolde" is used again. Thank you for any help in this matter.

    Read the article

  • MySQL to PostreSQL and Named Scope

    - by Lowgain
    I've got a named scope for one of my models that works fine. The code is: named_scope :inbox_threads, lambda { |user| { :include => [:deletion_flags, :recipiences], :conditions => ["recipiences.user_id = ? AND deletion_flags.user_id IS NULL", user.id], :group => "msg_threads.id" }} This works fine on my local copy of the app with a MySQL database, but when I push my app to Heroku (which only uses PostgreSQL), I get the following error: ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid (PGError: ERROR: column "msg_threads.subject" must appear in the GROUP BY clause or be used in an aggregate function: SELECT "msg_threads"."id" AS t0_r0, "msg_threads"."subject" AS t0_r1, "msg_threads"."originator_id" AS t0_r2, "msg_thr eads"."created_at" AS t0_r3, "msg_threads"."updated_at" AS t0_r4, "msg_threads"."url_key" AS t0_r5, "deletion_flags"."id" AS t1_r0, "deletion_flags"."user_id" AS t1_r1, "deletion_flags"."msg_thread_id" AS t1_r2, "deletion_flags"."confirmed" AS t1_r3, "deletion_flags"."created_at" AS t1_r4, "deletion_flags"."updated_at" AS t1_r5, "recipiences"."id" AS t2_r0, "recipiences"."user_id" AS t2_r1, "recipiences"."msg_thread_id" AS t2_r2, "recipiences"."created_at" AS t2_r3, "recipien ces"."updated_at" AS t2_r4 FROM "msg_threads" LEFT OUTER JOIN "deletion_flags" ON deletion_flags.msg_thread_id = msg_threads.id LEFT OUTER JOIN "recipiences" ON recipiences.msg_thread_id = msg_threads.id WHERE (recipiences.user_id = 1 AND deletion_flags.user_id IS NULL) GROUP BY msg_threads.id) I'm not as familiar with the working of Postgres, so what would I need to add here to get this working? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • UITableViewCell checkmarks

    - by burki
    Hi! When you select a cell in the UITableView, the - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)table didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath is called. There some of the NSManagedObjects will be updated with the right values and the row will be deselected. Well, it works all right, but you can't see any selection of the tableviewcell. I found out that the access on core data causes the problem, that means, if i comment out the lines with the commands of updating the NSManagedObjects, it all works like I want, with a smooth selection and deselection. Can anybody help? Thanks. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)table didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { //[table deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:YES]; NSMutableSet *favoriteGroups = [NSMutableSet setWithSet:element.favoriteGroup]; NSMutableSet *elements = [NSMutableSet setWithSet:[(FavoriteGroup *)[fetchedResultsController objectAtIndexPath:indexPath] element]]; UITableViewCell *checkedCell = [table cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]; if (checkedCell.accessoryType == UITableViewCellAccessoryCheckmark) { [elements removeObject:element]; [favoriteGroups removeObject:[fetchedResultsController objectAtIndexPath:indexPath]]; [[table cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath] setAccessoryType:UITableViewCellAccessoryNone]; } else { [elements addObject:element]; [favoriteGroups addObject:[fetchedResultsController objectAtIndexPath:indexPath]]; [[table cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath] setAccessoryType:UITableViewCellAccessoryCheckmark]; } element.favoriteGroup = favoriteGroups; FavoriteGroup *favoriteGroup = [self.fetchedResultsController objectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; favoriteGroup.element = elements; [self.tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:YES]; }

    Read the article

  • Super inplace controls in_place_select displays incorrectly

    - by Magicked
    I'm using the super_inplace_controls plugin to allow users to edit fields on the "show" page. However, I'm running into an issue with the in_place_select function. Here is my view: <p> <b>Status:</b> <%= in_place_select :incident, :incident_status, :choices => @statuses.map { |e| [e.name, e.id] } %> </p> This is in the 'Incident' view. IncidentStatus is a separate table that has_many Incidents. In the Incident controller, I retrieve @statuses like so: @statuses = IncidentStatus.find(:all) Everything works fine for the in_place_select, except the original display. In my browser, it shows: Status: #<IncidentStatus:0x1033147d8> Which means it's not grabbing the current incident_status.name, but it's just changing the object to a string. I'm not sure how to fix this! When I click on the "IncidentStatus:0x1033147d8", everything works properly and I can select the proper fields. Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • How to find nearest week day for an arbitrary date?

    - by Stig Brautaset
    Is there a more elegant way than the below to find the nearest day of the week for a given date using JodaTime? I initially thought setCopy() would be it, but this sets the day to the particular day in the same week. Thus, if ld is 2011-11-27 and day is "Monday" the following function returns 2011-11-21, and not 2011-11-28 as I want. // Note that "day" can be _any_ day of the week, not just weekdays. LocalDate getNearestDayOfWeek(LocalDate ld, String day) { return ld.dayOfWeek().setCopy(day); } Below is a work-around I came up with that works for the particular constraints in my current situation, but I'd love to get help find a completely generic solution that works always. LocalDate getNearestDayOfWeek(LocalDate ld, String day) { LocalDate target = ld.dayOfWeek().setCopy(day); if (ld.getDayOfWeek() > DateTimeConstants.SATURDAY) { target = target.plusWeeks(1); } return target; } Looking more into this I came up with this, which seems to be a more correct solution, though it seems awfully complicated: LocalDate getNearestDayOfWeek(LocalDate ld, String day) { LocalDate target = ld.dayOfWeek().setCopy(day); if (target.isBefore(ld)) { LocalDate nextTarget = target.plusWeeks(1); Duration sincePrevious = new Duration(target.toDateMidnight(), ld.toDateMidnight()); Duration untilNext = new Duration(ld.toDateMidnight(), nextTarget.toDateMidnight()); if (sincePrevious.isLongerThan(untilNext)) { target = nextTarget; } } return target; }

    Read the article

  • JSP request parameter is returning null on a jsp include win Weblogic.

    - by doug
    Hello, I am having trouble with the jsp:include tag. I have code like the following: <jsp:include page="./Address.jsp"> <jsp:param value="30" name="tabIndex"/> <jsp:param value="true" name="showBox"/> <jsp:param value="none" name="display"/> </jsp:include> The page is included fine, but when I try to access the parameters on the Address.jsp page, they are null. I have tried accessing them the following ways (with jstl): <c:out value="${param.tabIndex}" /> <c:out value="${param['tabIndex']} /> <%= request.getParameter("tabIndex") %> <c:out value="${pageScope.param.tabIndex} /> ${param.tabIndex} etc... Here is the kicker, The above works fine in tomcat 5.5. However, when I deploy the application in Weblogic 10, it does not. Also, the code works fine in other areas of my application (on weblogic) just not a particular page. Any Ideas? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • NSTask Launch causing crash

    - by tripskeet
    Hi, I have an application that can import an XML file through this terminal command : open /path/to/main\ app.app --args myXML.xml This works great with no issues. And i have used Applescript to launch this command through shell and it works just as well. Yet when try using Cocoa's NSTask Launcher using this code : NSTask *task = [[NSTask alloc] init]; [task setLaunchPath:@"/usr/bin/open"]; [task setCurrentDirectoryPath:@"/Applications/MainApp/InstallData/App/"]; [task setArguments:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:[(NSURL *)foundApplicationURL path], @"--args", @"ImportP.xml", nil]]; [task launch]; the applications will start up to the initial screen and then crash when either the next button is clicked or when trying to close the window. Ive tried using NSAppleScript with this : NSAppleScript *script = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:@"tell application \"Terminal\" do script \"open /Applications/MainApp/InstallData/App/Main\\\\ App.app\" end tell"]; NSDictionary *errorInfo; [script executeAndReturnError:&errorInfo]; This will launch the program and it will crash as well and i get this error in my Xcode debug window : 12011-01-04 17:41:28.296 LaunchAppFile[4453:a0f] Error loading /Library/ScriptingAdditions/Adobe Unit Types.osax/Contents/MacOS/Adobe Unit Types: dlopen(/Library/ScriptingAdditions/Adobe Unit Types.osax/Contents/MacOS/Adobe Unit Types, 262): no suitable image found. Did find: /Library/ScriptingAdditions/Adobe Unit Types.osax/Contents/MacOS/Adobe Unit Types: no matching architecture in universal wrapper LaunchAppFile: OpenScripting.framework - scripting addition "/Library/ScriptingAdditions/Adobe Unit Types.osax" declares no loadable handlers. So with research i came up with this : NSAppleScript *script = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:@"do shell script \"arch -i386 osascript /Applications/MainApp/InstallData/App/test.scpt\""]; NSDictionary *errorInfo; [script executeAndReturnError:&errorInfo]; But this causes the same results as the last command. Any ideas on what causes this crash?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452  | Next Page >