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  • MySQL to PostreSQL and Named Scope

    - by Lowgain
    I've got a named scope for one of my models that works fine. The code is: named_scope :inbox_threads, lambda { |user| { :include => [:deletion_flags, :recipiences], :conditions => ["recipiences.user_id = ? AND deletion_flags.user_id IS NULL", user.id], :group => "msg_threads.id" }} This works fine on my local copy of the app with a MySQL database, but when I push my app to Heroku (which only uses PostgreSQL), I get the following error: ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid (PGError: ERROR: column "msg_threads.subject" must appear in the GROUP BY clause or be used in an aggregate function: SELECT "msg_threads"."id" AS t0_r0, "msg_threads"."subject" AS t0_r1, "msg_threads"."originator_id" AS t0_r2, "msg_thr eads"."created_at" AS t0_r3, "msg_threads"."updated_at" AS t0_r4, "msg_threads"."url_key" AS t0_r5, "deletion_flags"."id" AS t1_r0, "deletion_flags"."user_id" AS t1_r1, "deletion_flags"."msg_thread_id" AS t1_r2, "deletion_flags"."confirmed" AS t1_r3, "deletion_flags"."created_at" AS t1_r4, "deletion_flags"."updated_at" AS t1_r5, "recipiences"."id" AS t2_r0, "recipiences"."user_id" AS t2_r1, "recipiences"."msg_thread_id" AS t2_r2, "recipiences"."created_at" AS t2_r3, "recipien ces"."updated_at" AS t2_r4 FROM "msg_threads" LEFT OUTER JOIN "deletion_flags" ON deletion_flags.msg_thread_id = msg_threads.id LEFT OUTER JOIN "recipiences" ON recipiences.msg_thread_id = msg_threads.id WHERE (recipiences.user_id = 1 AND deletion_flags.user_id IS NULL) GROUP BY msg_threads.id) I'm not as familiar with the working of Postgres, so what would I need to add here to get this working? Thanks!

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  • How to take html markup from a string and escape it to work within a script?

    - by zac
    I am using wordpress as a CMS and trying to allow user fields to be input to populate the info windows in a Google Map script. I am using this to select the id and pull in the content from a custom field : $post_id = 222; $my_post = get_post($post_id); $snip = get_post_meta($post_id, 'custom-field', true); $permalink = get_permalink( $post_id ); $pass_to = '<div class="content">'.$snip.'</div><div class="moreLink"><a href="'.$permalink.'">Find out more » </a></div></div>'; var point = new GLatLng('<?php echo $lat; $lat; ?>','<?php echo $long; $long; ?>'); var marker = createMarker(point,"<?php echo $mapTitle; $mapTitle; ?>", '<?php echo $pass_to; ?>') map.addOverlay(marker); It works fine unless there is any html in the custom-field which breaks the script. I looked at htmlspcialchar and htmlentities but rather than strip everything out I would like to have it escaped so it still works and the html is intact. Any suggestions? I am pretty new to PHP and would really appreciate any pointers.

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  • How to find nearest week day for an arbitrary date?

    - by Stig Brautaset
    Is there a more elegant way than the below to find the nearest day of the week for a given date using JodaTime? I initially thought setCopy() would be it, but this sets the day to the particular day in the same week. Thus, if ld is 2011-11-27 and day is "Monday" the following function returns 2011-11-21, and not 2011-11-28 as I want. // Note that "day" can be _any_ day of the week, not just weekdays. LocalDate getNearestDayOfWeek(LocalDate ld, String day) { return ld.dayOfWeek().setCopy(day); } Below is a work-around I came up with that works for the particular constraints in my current situation, but I'd love to get help find a completely generic solution that works always. LocalDate getNearestDayOfWeek(LocalDate ld, String day) { LocalDate target = ld.dayOfWeek().setCopy(day); if (ld.getDayOfWeek() > DateTimeConstants.SATURDAY) { target = target.plusWeeks(1); } return target; } Looking more into this I came up with this, which seems to be a more correct solution, though it seems awfully complicated: LocalDate getNearestDayOfWeek(LocalDate ld, String day) { LocalDate target = ld.dayOfWeek().setCopy(day); if (target.isBefore(ld)) { LocalDate nextTarget = target.plusWeeks(1); Duration sincePrevious = new Duration(target.toDateMidnight(), ld.toDateMidnight()); Duration untilNext = new Duration(ld.toDateMidnight(), nextTarget.toDateMidnight()); if (sincePrevious.isLongerThan(untilNext)) { target = nextTarget; } } return target; }

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  • How can I stop the iPhone from displaying a transform change until after the screen is redrawn

    - by Ed Marty
    I have found the UIScrollView's zooming mechanism to be clunk and essentially unusable. So instead, I'm rolling my own. I have a UIView that resizes itself with the pinch-zoom, and that's working fine. When the zoom is complete, the view needs to reset its transform and redraw the images. The zoom works essentially in the same way the UIScrollView does. It sets the transform property of the UIView until complete. Then, when the zoom finishes, I want to reset the transform to CGAffineTransformIdentity, resize the frame to be the size it was before, and tell the view to redraw itself at the new size. It all works pretty well, except when I change the transform to identity then redraw the image, there is a slight flicker before the image completely redraws. This is due to the fact that I'm using a subclass of CATiledLayer, since the view can be of arbitrary size. I've overridden the fadeDuration to be zero, but there is still a flicker while the transform is reset before the redraw is finished. Is there any simple way to overcome this without creating another view to draw with then replacing it?

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  • C++ Constructor With Parameters Won't Initialize, Errors C2059 and C2228

    - by Some Girl
    I'm a C# programmer trying to muddle through C++ to create a Windows Forms Application. I have a Windows Form that makes use of a user-created class. Basically I'm trying to use a constructor that takes parameters, but my form won't let me initialize the object with parameter. Here's the code, hopefully somebody can explain the problem to me because I'm completely baffled... Here's my header file: BankAcct.h public ref class BankAcct { private: int money; public: BankAcct(); BankAcct(int); void Deposit(int); void GetBalance(int&); }; And my definition file: BankAcct.cpp #include "StdAfx.h" #include "BankAcct.h" BankAcct::BankAcct() { money = 0; } BankAcct::BankAcct(int startAmt) { money = startAmt; } void BankAcct::Deposit(int depAmt) { money += depAmt; } void BankAcct::GetBalance(int& balance) { balance = money; } And finally my main form. Won't copy the whole thing, of course, but I'm trying to declare the new bank account object, and start it with a balance of say $50. private: BankAcct myAccount(50); //does not work! WHY?? //private: //BankAcct myAccount; //works then in the form constructor my code is this: public: frmBank(void) { InitializeComponent(); int bal; myAccount.GetBalance(bal); lblBankBalance->Text += Convert::ToString(bal); } I've included the BankAcct.h file at the top of my frmBank.h, what else am I doing wrong here? It works great if I use the default constructor (the one that starts the bank balance at zero). I get the following error messages: error C2059: syntax error: 'constant' and error C2228: left of '.GetBalance' must have class/struct/union Thank you for any and all help on this one!!

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  • Mapping relationships from multiple databases in NHibernate

    - by mannish
    I have a multi-database application configured with NHibernate. The entities that correspond to tables from each database are in their own separate assemblies (an assembly per database if you will). I have a need/desire to relate an entity from one database to an entity of another database. Everything up to this point works as I want it to (the application handles multiple session factories, etc.). The relationship I want is many-to-one, but in reality my application only cares about one side of the relationship (for reasons that aren't relevant). The relevant entities are Project and PMProject, where a Project HAS A PMProject. When I map the many-to-one, I get the following error: NHibernate.MappingException: An association from the table PROJECTS refers to an unmapped class: SDMS.PPRM.PMProject The Project mapping itself reads (ignore the funky column naming; it's an Oracle db): <many-to-one name="PMProject" class="SDMS.PPRM.PMProject" column="PM_PROJECT_ID" cascade="none" /> In the class attribute, I'm referencing the appropriate assembly, but I get that error which seems to tell me it simply can't find the mapping file for PMProject. But that file exists (it's set as embedded resource), the session factory instantiation works without fail; so I'm at a loss on how to tell the Project mapping how/where to look for the appropriate mapping. Is there something I'm missing? A better way to go about this? Thanks in advance.

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  • Does playing a Program from VS2005 cause a program to work any different than the .exe file?

    - by Bryan
    There is a program where I work that works fine when running the .exe file but works differently from expected when opened in VS2005 and played from there. I am therefore asking on here if anyone knows of anything that would work in the .exe file but not the debug from VS? I am not able to post the code for the buttons I'm talking about but I'll try to explain the best I can. There is a receiver hooked up to the computer. When the button is pressed on the program, it shows a message and waits for a signal to be received. After the signal is heard the first message box is supposed to close and another is supposed to open. When using the .exe file this happens just fine. However when playing from the program from VS2005 (the same one from which the .exe was made) the second message doesn't come up when it is supposed to and when I can make it come up, the first box doesn't close. There is also a timer involved if that helps. Also, is there a fundamental difference between how the two operate when executing the program? If I need to make anything more clear or give more details please let me know.

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  • Prroblem with ObjectDelete() in Entity Framework 4

    - by Tom
    I got two entities: public class User : Entity { public virtual string Username { get; set; } public virtual string Email { get; set; } public virtual string PasswordHash { get; set; } public virtual List<Photo> Photos { get; set; } } and public class Photo : Entity { public virtual string FileName { get; set; } public virtual string Thumbnail { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } public virtual int UserId { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } } When I try to delete the photo it works fine for the DB (record gets romoved from the table) but it doesnt for the Photos collection in the User entity (I can still see that photo in user.Photos). This is my code. What I'm doing wrong here? Changing entity properties works fine. When I change photo FileName for example it gets updated in DB and in user.Photos. var photo = SelectById(id); Context.DeleteObject(photo); Context.SaveChanges(); var user = GetUser(userName); // the photo I have just deleted is still in user.Photos also tried this but getting same results: var photo = user.Photos.First(); Context.DeleteObject(photo); Context.SaveChanges();

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  • Scroll view to bottom while keyboard is hiding

    - by Manu
    Hi! I'm using a scroll view to move my view and show certain text fields (that otherwise would be hidden) when the keyboard shows. I basically resize the scroll view to make room for the keyboard, and then scroll up the view smoothly with "scrollRectToVisible", which works perfectly. After that, I can scroll and edit the rest of the text fields without lowering the keyboard, which is what I intend. The problem comes when I want to hide the keyboard again. I have been able to lower the keyboard and scroll down the view to its original position without a problem, but I have been unable to make that transition smooth. At the moment I use the following: - (void)keyboardWillHide: (NSNotification *)notif { CGRect topRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, 1, 1); [scrollview scrollRectToVisible:topRect animated:YES]; scrollview.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, scrollviewWidth, scrollviewHeight); } I create a CGRect at the top, which I then move into view with "scrollRectToVisible". That works fine and commences the scrolling right when the keyboard is hiding (I use "keyboardWillHide" and not "keyboardDidHide" because the scroll view frame is still missing its lower part). The problem comes when I resize the scroll view frame back to its original dimensions (which I need to do), because then the scrolling is interrupted and the view drops to the bottom suddenly (as there is nothing else to scroll). This causes a glitch, which is why I cannot complete the transition smoothly. Any ideas on how could I lower the keyboard while scrolling the view down smoothly? Should I be scrolling up a bigger view, instead of resizing it? That way I would not have to restore the scroll view frame dimensions when lowering the keyboard, or would I? Thanks very much in advance!

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  • Increment the number of times an article has been read

    - by r.sendecky
    I have a situation where I need to increase the number of time article has been read. Once someone opens an article it should be reflected in the database by incrementing number of reads by one. Simple. Sending POST request to the server increments the number of reads by one. The article in question is supplied via URL parameter. Doing it manually by typing the URL in a browser works as expected. So server side is not at fault. My problems start with the javascript side of it or rather jquery. I hook the event to the article link. So every time a user clicks on the article link it increments the number of reads like so: $('#list-articles .article-link').click(function(e){ var oid = $(this).parent().parent().attr('data-oid').toString(); //Get the article id $.post( "/articles/viewed/" + oid ); }); Now this does not work! Number is not increased. I don't prevent default action since I need the link to actually open and display the article. Now if I put an alert right after the post like this: $('#list-articles .article-link').click(function(e){ var oid = $(this).parent().parent().attr('data-oid').toString(); //Get the article id $.post( "/articles/viewed/" + oid ); alert(oid); }); This variant works. After I dismiss the alert window, the number is incremented. Why is this so?? How can I fix this to actually work without the alert event present?

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  • UIButton stops responding after going into landscape mode - iPhone

    - by casey
    I've been trying different things the last few days and I've run out of ideas so I'm looking for help. The situation is that I'm displaying my in-app purchasing store view after the user clicks a button. Button pressed, view is displayed. The store shows fine. Inside this view, I have a few labels with descriptions of the product, and then below them I have the price and a Buy button which triggers the in-app purchase. Problem is when I rotate the phone to landscape, that Buy button no longer responds, weird. Works fine in portrait. The behavior in landscape when the I touch the button is nothing. It doesn't appear to press down and be selected or anything, just not responding to my touches. But then when I rotate back to portrait or even upside down portrait, it works fine. Here is the rough structure of my view in IB, all the rotating and layout is setup in IB. I set the autoresizing in IB so that everything looks ok in landscape and the Buy button expands horizontally a little bit. The only layout manipulation I do in my code is after loading, I set the content size of the scroll view. File Owner with view set to the scrollView / scrollView ----/ view --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ uibutton (Buy) After orientation changes I printed out the userInteractionEnabled property of the scrollView and the button, and they were both TRUE at all orientations. Ideas? Or maybe some other way of displaying a buy button that won't be nonfunctional? I've already begun a branch that plays with a toolbar and placing the buy button there, but I can't seem to get the bar to stay in place while scrolling.

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  • Calling a non-activeX DLL in a VB6 application in Vista/Win7

    - by user1490330
    I have a VB6 app that utilizes a non-activeX DLL (non-registering). It's declared via the classic Public Declare Function "Function Name" Lib "Library.DLL" syntax. On my dev machine (XP) it works fine but when I deploy to Vista or Win7 I'm constantly greeted with a Run Time Error 48 - File Not Found for the DLL in question. I have tried copying that DLL to every directory I can think of including every environment path on the test machine and the app path too. These are all 32-bit test environments so it's not a SysWow64 issue. Possibly throwing a wrench into the mix is the fact that the application in question is an Outlook COM Addin. I managed to install VB6 on Win7 and was able to run a tiny sample app that utilizes this DLL (outside of the Outlook process) so I know it works PROVIDED the DLL is located in App path. If I call App.Path from my DLL when I run it on the test environment it shows, to no surprise, my installation directory however the DLL is there. I tried turning off UAC. I tried making the App.Path directory permissions open to everyone, still no dice.

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  • How to use urlencoded urls with the GA tracking code

    - by Fake51
    I've got a site where a booking page has an iframe embedded with the actual booking form. I need to track traffic from the parent site to the child iframe. This should all work just fine with the normal GA code, using javascript like: <script type="text/javascript"> try { var pageTracker = _gat._getTracker("<UA CODE HERE>"); pageTracker._setDomainName("none"); pageTracker._setAllowLinker(true); pageTracker._setAllowHash(false); pageTracker._trackPageview(); } catch(err) {}</script> And then ofcourse using the _getLinkerUrl() function to get a url with the proper parameters. So far so good - this basically works (at least I know the principle works as I've got it working on other pages). However, and this is the problem: the server that serves up the page in the iframe was configured by a complete and utter moron (or, alternatively, created by a complete and utter moron). It chokes on '=' characters, so in order to request the iframe page I need to urlencode the '=' signs - but the GA code seems unable to parse the url when this is done. So the questions: 1. has anyone come across this? 2. does anyone know of any solutions to this problem?

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  • Can't touch UITextField on UIScrollView

    - by Chris B
    Hey guys, I know this has been talked about a lot. I think I've gone thru every question on this site, and still have not been able to get this working. I'm new to developing but I have a good sense of what's going on with all of my code. I definitely don't have a lot of experience though, this is my first iPhone app. I'm making a data entry field that is comprised of multiple UITextFields within a UIScrollView. I'll avoid explaining the other details for now, as it seems its a very basic problem. Without a scrollview, the textfields work perfectly. I can touch the textfield and the keyboard or picker view show up appropriately. When I add the textfields to a scrollview, the scrollview works, but then the text fields don't receive my touches. Here's the key: When 'User Interaction' is ENABLED, the scrollview works but the textfield touches are NOT registered. When 'User Interaction' is DISABLED, the scrollview doesn't work, but the textfield touches ARE registered and the keyboard/picker pops up. From the other posts I have seen people creating subclasses and overriding the touches in a separate implementation. I've seen people using custom content views (subviews?), I've seen some solutions that are now obsolete since the APIs have changed in newer versions of the SDK, and I am just completely stuck. I will leave out my code for now, because maybe there is a solution that someone has without requiring my code. If someone needs to see my code, I will put it up. My app is being written in the 3.1.3 SDK. If anyone has ANY information that could help, it would be so greatly appreciated.

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  • HTML5 audio with PHP script does not work on iPad/Iphone

    - by saulob
    Ok, I'm trying to play an HTML audio code on iPad but does not work. I created one PHP script to send to the MP3 request to the HTML5 audio code mp3_file_player.php?n=mp3file.mp3 The player is here: http://www.avault.com/news/podcast-news/john-romero-podcast-episode-80/ You will see that works on every HTML5 supported browser even on my iPod Touch. But does not work on iPad/iPhone, even on Safari on Mac OSX (I tried on Safari/Windows, worked fine) This is my PHP code: header("X-Powered-By: "); header("Accept-Ranges: bytes"); header("Content-Length: ". (string)(filesize($episode_filename)) .""); header("Content-type: audio/mpeg"); readfile($episode_filename); exit(); Everything works fine, the MP3 has the same headers like reading the mp3 directly. HTTP Headers from direct file access: (Status-Line) HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date Mon, 31 May 2010 20:27:31 GMT Server Apache/2.2.9 Last-Modified Wed, 26 May 2010 13:39:19 GMT Etag "dac0039-41d91f8-4877f669cefc0" Accept-Ranges bytes Content-Length 50656162 Content-Range bytes 18390614-69046775/69046776 Keep-Alive timeout=15, max=100 Connection Keep-Alive Content-Type audio/mpeg HTTP Header from my PHP script: (Status-Line) HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date Mon, 31 May 2010 20:27:08 GMT Server Apache/2.2.9 Accept-Ranges bytes Content-Length 69046776 Keep-Alive timeout=15, max=100 Connection Keep-Alive Content-Type audio/mpeg The only thing different it's the Content-Range, I even tried to add it, but if I use it the player will not work on my Ipod Touch. So I removed. Thank you very much.

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  • Building an 'Activation Key' Generator in JAVA

    - by jax
    I want to develop a Key generator for my phone applications. Currently I am using an external service to do the job but I am a little concerned that the service might go offline one day hence I will be in a bit of a pickle. How authentication works now. Public key stored on the phone. When the user requests a key the 'phone ID' is sent to the "Key Generation Service" and the encrypted key key is returned and stored inside a license file. On the phone I can check if the key is for the current phone by using a method getPhoneId() which I can check with the the current phone and grant or not grant access to features. I like this and it works well, however, I want to create my own "Key Generation Service" from my own website. Requirements: Public and Private Key Encryption:(Bouncy Castle) Written in JAVA Must support getApplicationId() (so that many applications can use the same key generator) and getPhoneId() (to get the phone id out of the encrypted license file) I want to be able to send the ApplicationId and PhoneId to the service for license key generation. Can someone give me some pointers on how to accomplish this? I have dabbled around with some java encryption but am definitely no expert and can't find anything that will help me. A list of the Java classes I would need to instantiate would be helpful.

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  • In Rails, a Sweeper isn't getting called in a Model-only setup

    - by charliepark
    I'm working on a Rails app, where I'm using page caching to store static html output. The caching works fine. I'm having trouble expiring the caches, though. I believe my problem is, in part, because I'm not expiring the cache from my controller. All of the actions necessary for this are being handled within the model. This seems like it should be doable, but all of the references to Model-based cache expiration that I'm finding seem to be out of date, or are otherwise not working. In my environment.rb file, I'm calling config.load_paths += %W( #{RAILS_ROOT}/app/sweepers ) And I have, in the /sweepers folder, a LinkSweeper file: class LinkSweeper < ActionController::Caching::Sweeper observe Link def after_update(link) clear_links_cache(link) end def clear_links_cache(link) # expire_page :controller => 'links', :action => 'show', :md5 => link.md5 expire_page '/l/'+ link.md5 + '.html' end end So ... why isn't it deleting the cached page when I update the model? (Process: using script/console, I'm selecting items from the database and saving them, but their corresponding pages aren't deleting from the cache), and I'm also calling the specific method in the Link model that would normally invoke the sweeper. Neither works. If it matters, the cached file is an md5 hash off a key value in the Links table. The cached page is getting stored as something like /l/45ed4aade64d427...99919cba2bd90f.html. Essentially, it seems as though the Sweeper isn't actually observing the Link. I also read (here) that it might be possible to simply add the sweeper to config.active_record.observers in environment.rb, but that didn't seem to do it (and I wasn't sure if the load_path of app/sweepers in environment.rb obviated that).

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  • How to force client browser to download images from server rather using its cache

    - by anonim.developer
    Assume a simple aspx data entry page in which admin user can upload an image as well as some other data. They are stored in database and the next time admin visits that page to edit record, image data fetched and a preview generated and saved to disk (using GDI+) and the preview is shown in an image control. This procedure works fine for the first time however if the image changes (a new one uploaded) the next time the page is surfed it shows previously uploaded image. I debugged the application and everything works correct. The new image data is in database and new preview is stored in Temp location however the page shows previous one. If I refresh the page it shows the new image preview. I should mention that preview is always saved to disk with one name (id of each record as the name). I think that is because of IE and other browsers use client cache instead of loading images each time a page is surfed. I wonder if there is a way to force the client browser to refresh itself so the newly uploaded image is shown without user intervention. Thanks and appreciation in advance,

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  • Core Data object into an NSDictionary with possible nil objects

    - by Chuck
    I have a core data object that has a bunch of optional values. I'm pushing a table view controller and passing it a reference to the object so I can display its contents in a table view. Because I want the table view displayed a specific way, I am storing the values from the core data object into an array of dictionaries then using the array to populate the table view. This works great, and I got editing and saving working properly. (i'm not using a fetched results controller because I don't have anything to sort on) The issue with my current code is that if one of the items in the object is missing, then I end up trying to put nil into the dictionary, which won't work. I'm looking for a clean way to handle this, I could do the following, but I can't help but feeling like there's a better way. *passedEntry is the core data object handed to the view controller when it is pushed, lets say it contains firstName, lastName, and age, all optional. if ([passedEntry firstName] != nil) { [dictionary setObject:[passedEntry firstName] forKey:@"firstName"] } else { [dictionary setObject:@"" forKey:@"firstName"] } And so on. This works, but it feels kludgy, especially if I end up adding more items to the core data object down the road.

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  • Problem with SQL Server "EXECUTE AS"

    - by Vilx-
    I've got the following setup: There is a SQL Server DB with several tables that have triggers set on them (that collect history data). These triggers are CLR stored procedures with EXECUTE AS 'HistoryUser'. The HistoryUser user is a simple user in the database without a login. It has enough permissions to read from all tables and write to the history table. When I backup the DB and then restore it to another machine (Virtual Machine in this case, but it does not matter), the triggers don't work anymore. In fact, no impersonation for the user works anymore. Even a simple statement such as this exec ('select 3') as user='HistoryUser' produces an error: Cannot execute as the database principal because the principal "HistoryUser" does not exist, this type of principal cannot be impersonated, or you do not have permission. I read in MSDN that this can occur if the DB owner is a domain user, but it isn't. And even if I change it to anything else (their recommended solution) this problem remains. If I create another user without login, I can use it for impersonation just fine. That is, this works just fine: create user TestUser without login go exec ('select 3') as user='TestUser' I do not want to recreate all those triggers, so is there any way how I can make the existing HistoryUser work? Bump: Sorry, but this is kinda urgent...

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  • What is the difference between .get() and .fetch(1)

    - by AutomatedTester
    I have written an app and part of it is uses a URL parser to get certain data in a ReST type manner. So if you put /foo/bar as the path it will find all the bar items and if you put /foo it will return all items below foo So my app has a query like data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).get() Which works brilliantly. Now I want to send this to the UI using templates {% for datum in data %} <div class="content"> <h2>{{ datum.title }}</h2> {{ datum.content }} </div> {% endfor %} When I do this I get data is not iterable error. So I updated the Django to {% for datum in data.all %} which now appears to pull more data than I was giving it somehow. It shows all data in the datastore which is not ideal. So I removed the .all from the Django and changed the datastore query to data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).fetch(1) which now works as I intended. In the documentation it says The db.get() function fetches an entity from the datastore for a Key (or list of Keys). So my question is why can I iterate over a query when it returns with fetch() but can't with get(). Where has my understanding gone wrong?

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  • Why does this threading approach not work?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I have a wierd problem with threading in an ASP.NET application. For some reason, when I run the code in the request thread, everything works as expected. But when I run it in a separate thread, nothing happens. This is verified by calling the below handler with the three flags "on", "off" and "larma" respectively - in the two first cases everything works, but in the latter nothing happens. What am I doing wrong here? In the web project I have a generic handler with the following code: If task = "on" Then Alarm.StartaLarm(personId) context.Response.Write("Larmet är PÅ") ElseIf task = "off" Then Alarm.StoppaLarm(personId) context.Response.Write("Larmet är AV") ElseIf task = "larma" Then Alarm.Larma(personId) context.Response.Write("Larmar... (stängs av automagiskt)") Else context.Response.Write("inget hände - task: " & task) End If The Alarm class has the following methods: Private Shared Sub Larma_Thread(ByVal personId As Integer) StartaLarm(personId) Thread.Sleep(1000 * 30) StoppaLarm(personId) End Sub Public Shared Sub StartaLarm(ByVal personId As Integer) SandSMS(True, personId) End Sub Public Shared Sub StoppaLarm(ByVal personId As Integer) SandSMS(False, personId) End Sub Public Shared Sub SandSMS(ByVal setOn As Boolean, ByVal personId As Integer) ... End Sub

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  • JQuery: Live <a> tag partially working second time around.

    - by BPotocki
    I have the following jquery code: $("a[id*='Add_']").live('click', function() { //Get parentID to add to. var parentID = $(this).attr('id').substring(4); //Get div. var div = $("#CreateList"); //Ajax call to refresh "CreateList" div with new XML. div.load("/AddUnit?ParentID=" + parentID); }); Basically, contained within the div is a nested unordered list with several "Add_#" links. Clicking the links uses an ajax call to recreate the list with a new node. It clears all the add links, but they are added again by the ajax call. This is why I used the .live method so newly added "Add_#" links still have the binding. This works in most cases. If I click "Add_1", the div refreshes with the new info. If I then click "Add_2", it works again as expected. The problem I'm having happens when I click "Add_1", then the page refreshes (and creates a new "Add_1" link), then I click the re-rendered "Add_1" again. It's the same link, but it was refreshed during the ajax call. When I do that, the javascript function still gets called, but the .load method doesn't work. Any ideas why this might be happening? Thanks.

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  • WPF & Linq To SQL binding ComboBox to foreign key

    - by ZeroDelta
    I'm having trouble binding a ComboBox to a foreign key in WPF using Linq To SQL. It works fine when displaying records, but if I change the selection on the ComboBox, that change does not seem to affect the property to which it is bound. My SQL Server Compact file has three tables: Players (PK is PlayerID), Events (PK is EventID), and Matches (PK is MatchID). Matches has FKs for the the other two, so that a match is associated with a player and an event. My window for editing a match uses a ComboBox to select the Event, and the ItemsSource is set to the result of a LINQ query to pull all of the Events. And of course the user should be able to select the Event based on EventName, not EventID. Here's the XAML: <ComboBox x:Name="cboEvent" DisplayMemberPath="EventName" SelectedValuePath="EventID" SelectedValue="{Binding Path=EventID, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> And some code-behind from the Loaded event handler: var evt = from ev in db.Events orderby ev.EventName select ev; cboEvent.ItemsSource = evt.ToList(); var mtch = from m in db.Matches where m.PlayerID == ((Player)playerView.CurrentItem).PlayerID select m; matchView = (CollectionView)CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(mtch); this.DataContext = matchView; When displaying matches, this works fine--I can navigate from one match to the next and the EventName is shown correctly. However, if I select a new Event via this ComboBox, the CurrentItem of the CollectionView doesn't seem to change. I feel like I'm missing something stupid! Note: the Player is selected via a ListBox, and that selection filters the matches displayed--this seems to be working fine, so I didn't include that code. That is the reason for the "PlayerID" reference in the LINQ query

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  • Get active window title in X

    - by dutt
    I'm trying to get the title of the active window. The application is a background task so if the user has Eclipse open the function returns "Eclipse - blabla", so it's not getting the window title of my own window. I'm developing this in Python 2.6 using PyQt4. My current solution, borrowed and slightly modified from an old answer here at SO, looks like this: def get_active_window_title(): title = '' root_check = '' root = Popen(['xprop', '-root'], stdout=PIPE) if root.stdout != root_check: root_check = root.stdout for i in root.stdout: if '_NET_ACTIVE_WINDOW(WINDOW):' in i: id_ = i.split()[4] id_w = Popen(['xprop', '-id', id_], stdout=PIPE) for j in id_w.stdout: if 'WM_ICON_NAME(STRING)' in j: if title != j.split()[2]: return j.split("= ")[1].strip(' \n\"') It works for most windows, but not all. For example it can't find my kopete chat windows, or the name of the application i'm currently developing. My next try looks like this: def get_active_window_title(self): screen = wnck.screen_get_default() if screen == None: return "Could not get screen" window = screen.get_active_window() if window == None: return "Could not get window" title = window.get_name() return title; But for some reason window is always None. Does somebody have a better way of getting the current window title, or how to modify one of my ways, that works for all windows? Edit: In case anybody is wondering this is the way I found that seems to work for all windows. def get_active_window_title(self): root_check = '' root = Popen(['xprop', '-root'], stdout=PIPE) if root.stdout != root_check: root_check = root.stdout for i in root.stdout: if '_NET_ACTIVE_WINDOW(WINDOW):' in i: id_ = i.split()[4] id_w = Popen(['xprop', '-id', id_], stdout=PIPE) id_w.wait() buff = [] for j in id_w.stdout: buff.append(j) for line in buff: match = re.match("WM_NAME\((?P<type>.+)\) = (?P<name>.+)", line) if match != None: type = match.group("type") if type == "STRING" or type == "COMPOUND_TEXT": return match.group("name") return "Active window not found"

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