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  • What's all this fuss about?

    - by atch
    Hi guys, At the beginning I want to state that it is not my intention to upset anyone who uses/like language other than C++. I'm saying that due to the fact that on one forum everytime when I've tried to ask questions of similiar nature I was almost always accused of trying to create a raw. Ok that's having done this is my question: I don't understand why java/c# creators thought/think that having something like vm and having source code compiled to bytecode instead of native code is in a long run any advantage. And why having function compiled for a first time when they are invoked is any advantege? And what's the story about write once run everywhere? When I think about the business of having something written once and it can run everywhere - well in theory this is all well. But I know for a fact that in practice it doesn't look that well at all. It is rather like write once test everywhere. And why would I preffer something to be compiled on runtime instead of compiletime. If I would have to wait even one hour longer for program to be installed once and for all and all the compilation would be done and nothing would be compiled after that I would preffer that. And I don't really know how it works in the real world (I'm a student never worked in IT business) but for example if I have working program written in C++ for Windows and I have wish to move it to another platform wouldn't I have to take my source code and compile it on desired machine? So in other words isn't that rather problem of having compiler which will compile source code on different machines (as far as I'm concerned there is just one C++ and source code will look identical in every machine). And last but not least if you think about it how many programs they are which are really word porting? I personnally can think of 3 maybe four.

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  • Server reporting incorrect mime type for css files

    - by Becky
    We have a VPS server that we host our websites on. I have written a CMS using CodeIgniter. On one of the interfaces, I am attempting to upload a css file to the system. This worked correctly when we had it hosted on shared hosting. Since we've moved it to the VPS, I am getting an "incorrect filetype" error. It all comes down to the fact that the server is reporting a mime type of text/x-c for the css file rather than text/css. I logged in via shell and ran the following command on an existing valid css file (to make sure it wasn't an issue with either CodeIgniter or with php). file --brief --mime 'filename.css' 2>&1 The server gave me the following in response to my command: text/x-c; charset=us-ascii My question ... is there some sort of server setting that I need to tweak to get the server to correctly identify the css file as text/css? Do I just have to add a mime type for the css files to the server? I found the mime types file (etc/mime.types), and it just hase video types and a couple other that I have no idea what they are. There is nothing in there for css or images or html files. Unless I'm looking in the wrong spot. I'm not a server person, so I'm hoping someone can help me out. Some server specs: Apache/2.2.22 (Unix) php 5.3.13 Server API = CGI/FastCGI the fileinfo php extension appears to be disabled

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  • Which itch does a gravatar scratch?

    - by WizardOfOdds
    This is a very serious question: I've seen lots of threads here about gravatars but I couldn't find and answer to this question: what computer identification/authentication (?) problem, if any, are gravatars supposed to solve? Neither the Wikipedia entry nor the official website are very useful. The official website mentions a "globally unique" picture. Unique in what sense? As far as I can see it's only the hash that is unique: two persons can have two pictures looking very similar if not identical. Note that this question is not about which problems do gravatars unarguably cause (like leaking 10% of the stackoverflow.com accounts email addresses like discussed here : "gravatars can leak email adresses" ) but about which authentication (?) problems, if any, are gravatars supposed to solve? Is the goal just to have a cool/funny/cute icon and save bandwith by having it stored on a remote website or is there more to it, like serving a real authentication purpose which I'd be completely missing? Note that I've got nothing against them and find them rather cool, but I'm just having a hard time figuring out what their purpose is and if I should care or not about them in the webapps I'm developping.

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  • How Do You Get the bufspec While Using Vimdiff Through Git

    - by Elizabeth Buckwalter
    I've read Vimdiff and Viewing differences with Vimdiff plus doing various google searches using things like "vimdiff multiple", "vimdiff git", "vimdiff commands" etc. When using do or diffg I get the error "More than two buffers in diff mode, don't know which one to use". When using diffg v:fname_in I get "No matching buffer for v:fname_in". From the vimdiff documentation: :[range]diffg[et] [bufspec] Modify the current buffer to undo difference with another buffer. If [bufspec] is given, that buffer is used. If [bufspec] refers to the current buffer then nothing happens. Otherwise this only works if there is one other buffer in diff mode. and more: When 'diffexpr' is not empty, Vim evaluates to obtain a diff file in the format mentioned. These variables are set to the file names used: v:fname_in original file v:fname_new new version of the same file v:fname_out resulting diff file So, I need to get the name of bufspec, but the default variables (fname_in, fname_new, and fname_out) aren't set. I ran the command git mergetool on a linux box through a terminal. [Edit] A partial solution that bred more questions. I used the "filename" at the bottom of the buffer. It's only a half answer, because occasionally I get a file does not exist error. I believe it's consistently the remote version of the file that "does not exist". I suspect this has something to do with git and indexing. How do you get the bufspec value consistently while using vimdiff through git-mergetool?

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  • VB.net Debug sqldatareader - immediate window

    - by ScaryJones
    Scenario is this; I've a sqldatareader query that seems to be returning nothing when I try to convert the sqldatareader to a datatable using datatable.load. So I debug into it, I grab the verbose SQL query before it goes into the sqldatareader, just to make sure it's formatted correctly. I copy and paste this into SQL server to run it and see if it returns anything. It does, one row. I go back to visual studio and let the program continue, I create a datatable and try to load the sqldatareader but it just returns an empty reader. I'm baffled as to what's going on. I'll copy a version of the code (not the exact SQL query I'm using but close) here: Dim cn As New SqlConnection cn.ConnectionString = <connection string details here> cn.Open() Dim sqlQuery As String = "select * from Products where productid = 5" Dim cm As New SqlCommand(sqlQuery, cn) Dim dr As SqlDataReader = cm.ExecuteReader() Dim dt as new DataTable dt.load(dr) dt should have contents but it's empty. If I copy that SQL query into sql server and run it I get a row of results. Any ideas what I'm doing wrong? ######### UPDATE ############ I've now noticed that it seems to be returning one less row than I get with each SQL query. So, if I run the SQL myself and get 1 row then the datatable seems to have 0 rows. If the query returns 4 rows, the datatable has 3!! Very strange, any ideas anyone?

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  • HttpWebRequest does has empty response requesting a search from Bing

    - by Jarrod Maxwell
    I have the following code that sends a HttpWebRequest to Bing. When I request the url below though it returns what appears to be an empty response when it should be returning a list of results. var response = string.Empty; var httpWebRequest = WebRequest.Create("http://www.bing.com/search?q=stackoverflow&count=100") as HttpWebRequest; httpWebRequest.Method = WebRequestMethods.Http.Get; httpWebRequest.Headers.Add("Accept-Language", "en-US"); httpWebRequest.UserAgent = "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Win32)"; httpWebRequest.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.AcceptEncoding, "gzip,deflate"); using (var httpWebResponse = httpWebRequest.GetResponse() as HttpWebResponse) { Stream stream = null; using (stream = httpWebResponse.GetResponseStream()) { if (httpWebResponse.ContentEncoding.ToLower().Contains("gzip")) stream = new GZipStream(stream, CompressionMode.Decompress); else if (httpWebResponse.ContentEncoding.ToLower().Contains("deflate")) stream = new DeflateStream(stream, CompressionMode.Decompress); var streamReader = new StreamReader(stream, Encoding.UTF8); response = streamReader.ReadToEnd(); } } Its pretty standard code for requesting and receiving a web page. Any ideas why the response is empty? Thanks in advance. EDIT I left off a query string parameter in the url. I also had &count=100 which I have now corrected. It seems to work for values of 50 and below but returns nothing when larger. This works ok when in the browser, but not for this web request. It makes me think the issue is that the response is large and HttpWebResponse is not handling that for me the way I have it set up. Just a guess though.

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  • ASP MVC Ajax Controller pattern?

    - by Kevin Won
    My MVC app tends to have a lot of ajax calls (via JQuery.get()). It's sort of bugging me that my controller is littered with many tiny methods that get called via ajax. It seems to me to be sort of breaking the MVC pattern a bit--the controller is now being more of a data access component then a URI router. I refactored so that I have my 'true' controller for a page just performing standard routing responses (returing ActionResponse objects). So a call to /home/ will obviously kick up the HomeController class that will respond in the canonical controller fashion by returning a plain-jane View. I then moved my ajax stuff into a new controller class whose name I'm prefacing with 'Ajax'. So, for example, my page might have three different sections of functionality (say shopping cart or user account). I have an ajax controller for each of these (AjaxCartController, AjaxAccountController). There is really nothing different about moving the ajax call stuff into its own class--it's just to keep things cleaner. on client side obviously the JQuery would then use this new controller thusly: //jquery pseudocode call to specific controller that just handles ajax calls $.get('AjaxAccount/Details'.... (1) is there a better pattern in MVC for responding to ajax calls? (2) It seems to me that the MVC model is a bit leaky when it comes to ajax--it's not really 'controlling' stuff. It just happens to be the best and least painful way of handling ajax calls (or am I ignorant)? In other words, the 'Controller' abstraction doesn't seem to play nice with Ajax (at least from a patterns perspective). Is there something I'm missing?

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  • Can YAML have inheritance?

    - by Jason
    This question involves a lot of symfony but it should be easy enough for someone to follow who only knows YAML and not symfony. My symfony models come from a three-step process: First, I create the tables in MySQL. Second, I run a symfony command (symfony doctrine:build-schema) to convert my table structure into a YAML file. Third, I run another symfony command (symfony doctrine:build-model) to convert the YAML file into PHP code. Here's the problem: there are some tables in the database that I don't want to end up in my symfony code. For example, let's say I have two tables: one called my_table and another called wordpress. The YAML file I end up with might look like this: MyTable: connection: doctrine tableName: my_table Wordpress: connection: doctrine tableName: wordpress That's great except the wordpress table has nothing to do with my symfony models. The result is that every single time I make a change to my database and generate this YAML file, I have to manually remove wordpress. It's annoying! I'd like to be able to create a file called baseConfig.php or something that looks like this: $config = array( 'MyTable' => array( 'connection' => 'doctrine', 'tableName' => 'my_table', ), 'Wordpress' => array( 'connection' => 'doctrine', 'tableName' => 'wordpress', ), ); And then I could have a separate file called config.php or something where I could make modifications to the base config: unset($config['Wordpress']); So my question is: is there any way to convert YAML into executable PHP code (as opposed to load YAML INTO PHP code like what sfYaml::load() does) to achieve this sort of thing? Or is there maybe some other way to achieve YAML inheritance? Thanks, Jason

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  • How does 'lazy' work?

    - by Matt Fenwick
    What is the difference between these two functions? I see that lazy is intended to be lazy, but I don't understand how that is accomplished. -- | Identity function. id :: a -> a id x = x -- | The call '(lazy e)' means the same as 'e', but 'lazy' has a -- magical strictness property: it is lazy in its first argument, -- even though its semantics is strict. lazy :: a -> a lazy x = x -- Implementation note: its strictness and unfolding are over-ridden -- by the definition in MkId.lhs; in both cases to nothing at all. -- That way, 'lazy' does not get inlined, and the strictness analyser -- sees it as lazy. Then the worker/wrapper phase inlines it. -- Result: happiness Tracking down the note in MkId.lhs (hopefully this is the right note and version, sorry if it's not): Note [lazyId magic] ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ lazy :: forall a?. a? -> a? (i.e. works for unboxed types too) Used to lazify pseq: pseq a b = a `seq` lazy b Also, no strictness: by being a built-in Id, all the info about lazyId comes from here, not from GHC.Base.hi. This is important, because the strictness analyser will spot it as strict! Also no unfolding in lazyId: it gets "inlined" by a HACK in CorePrep. It's very important to do this inlining after unfoldings are exposed in the interface file. Otherwise, the unfolding for (say) pseq in the interface file will not mention 'lazy', so if we inline 'pseq' we'll totally miss the very thing that 'lazy' was there for in the first place. See Trac #3259 for a real world example. lazyId is defined in GHC.Base, so we don't have to inline it. If it appears un-applied, we'll end up just calling it. I don't understand that because it refers to lazyId instead of lazy. How does lazy work?

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  • image Gallery in iPhone

    - by Arun Thakkar
    Hello EveryOne!! Hope You all are fine and also in Your best of moods!! I need You Guys help.. I need to Create an Image Gallery!! That may be use Concept of Scrolling and Paging together. When i Click on Button, It will open new view in landscape mode. This View is for my Image Gallery.. It Shows 5 Images 1) - Centered Large Image With its description on Bottom. 2) - Next Coming image on left side, This image is slightly tilled at some angle, Without any description at bottom. 3)next to next coming image on left to 2nd image. 4) - previous image on right side, This image is slightly tilled at some angle, Without any description at bottom. 5)Previous to Previous image on right of 4th image And All images are scrollable.. like When i scroll 2nd image, it Will move to Center and show its description and image Which is already centered move to previous image. Sorry for my Confused English, I have also given link Bellow. kindly Check it. Click here For Showing image. I Tried for Basic code of paging and scrolling but unluckily nothing helpful. Kindly share your knowledge as well as Guide me to develop such image gallery. Looking forwards. Thanks, Regards, Arun Thakkar

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  • Code Golf: Tic Tac Toe

    - by Aistina
    Post your shortest code, by character count, to check if a player has won, and if so, which. Assume you have an integer array in a variable b (board), which holds the Tic Tac Toe board, and the moves of the players where: 0 = nothing set 1 = player 1 (X) 2 = player 2 (O) So, given the array b = [ 1, 2, 1, 0, 1, 2, 1, 0, 2 ] would represent the board X|O|X -+-+- |X|O -+-+- X| |O For that situation, your code should output 1 to indicate player 1 has won. If no-one has won you can output 0 or false. My own (Ruby) solution will be up soon. Edit: Sorry, forgot to mark it as community wiki. You can assume the input is well formed and does not have to be error checked. Update: Please post your solution in the form of a function. Most people have done this already, but some haven't, which isn't entirely fair. The board is supplied to your function as the parameter. The result should be returned by the function. The function can have a name of your choosing.

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  • Ideas for networking project

    - by Chris Thompson
    Hi all, I'm a graduating senior in computer science taking a computer networks class and I'm trying to figure out my final project. I normally am not at a loss for ideas but be it senioritis or straight burn out, I've got nothing. I've done some fun stuff in the past, but I just can't seem to come up with a good idea. Given the mass of brilliance on this site, I figured it would be a good place to request some suggestions. To give you an idea of scope, it's due in about a month and I would consider myself proficient with mobile architectures like Android (although I have no iPhone experience) along with Java, C++, etc. If you can suggest an idea, I'd be happy to make it work in whatever language I know. Like I said, I'm a senior and will be graduating so I'd rather not take on something that would kill me... Also, I'd be happy to make it open source if it's an idea you'd always wanted to work on but didn't have the time to start. Thanks in advance for the help! Chris Edit 1: Thanks so much for the suggestions everyone! Unfortunately I've actually already written a chat client (for a network security class) and I think I'd run into some honor code issues if I did that again, although that's always a great option. I like the game idea and that's actually something I've never attempted before (in any capacity) although given that, I'm a little scared about time...

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  • Sharepoint.OpenDocuments Control Compatible with Forms Authentication?

    - by Richard Collette
    We are using the Sharepoint.OpenDocuments.EditDocument2 ActiveX control and method. The method is being called from JavaScript in an IE6 client on a Windows XP SP3 client (fully patched). The server is running IIS6 on Windows Server 2003 SP1 Fronting the IIS server is Tivoli Access Manager (TAM) which proxies access to the web applications sitting behind it. Similar to forms authentication, it creates a session cookie for authentication purposes, that must be present for the HTTP request to reach the IIS server. In front of TAM is an F5/BigIP load balancer and SSL encryption offloader, which enforces that incoming requests use the HTTPS protocol. What is happening is that HTTP requests issued by this control do not contain any session cookies that were present in the browser. It drops the ASP.NET session cookie, the ASP.NET forms authentication cookie and the TAM cookie Because the TAM cookie is missing the request is redirected to the TAM login page, which then shows up via HTML conversion in Word or Excel. The API documentation at http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms440037.aspx mentions nothing about security or appropriate usage scenarios for this control. Should these controls work in an ASP.Net Forms Authentication scenario or are they only supported with Windows Authentication. If Forms Authentication is supposed to function, how do we get the control to include the necessary session cookies in its requests?

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  • Proper use of HTTP status codes in a "validation" server

    - by Romulo A. Ceccon
    Among the data my application sends to a third-party SOA server are complex XMLs. The server owner does provide the XML schemas (.xsd) and, since the server rejects invalid XMLs with a meaningless message, I need to validate them locally before sending. I could use a stand-alone XML schema validator but they are slow, mainly because of the time required to parse the schema files. So I wrote my own schema validator (in Java, if that matters) in the form of an HTTP Server which caches the already parsed schemas. The problem is: many things can go wrong in the course of the validation process. Other than unexpected exceptions and successful validation: the server may not find the schema file specified the file specified may not be a valid schema file the XML is invalid against the schema file Since it's an HTTP Server I'd like to provide the client with meaningful status codes. Should the server answer with a 400 error (Bad request) for all the above cases? Or they have nothing to do with HTTP and it should answer 200 with a message in the body? Any other suggestion? Update: the main application is written in Ruby, which doesn't have a good xml schema validation library, so a separate validation server is not over-engineering.

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  • Creating a mouse drag done observable with Reactive Extensions

    - by juharr
    I have the following var leftMouseDown = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(displayCanvas, "MouseLeftButtonDown"); var leftMouseUp = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(displayCanvas, "MouseLeftButtonUp"); var mouseMove = Observable.FromEvent<MouseEventArgs>(displayCanvas, "MouseMove"); var leftMouseDragging = from down in leftMouseDown let startPoint = down.EventArgs.GetPosition(displayCanvas) from move in mouseMove.TakeUntil(leftMouseUp) let endPoint = move.EventArgs.GetPosition(displayCanvas) select new { Start = startPoint, End = endPoint }; which when I subscribe to it will give me the start point of the drag and the current end point. Now I need to do something once the drag is done. I was unsuccessful in attempting to do this completely with RX and ended up doing leftMouseDragging.Subscribe(value=> { dragging = true; //Some other code }); leftMouseUp.Subscribe(e=> { if(dragging) { MessageBox.Show("Just finished dragging"); dragging = false; } }); This works fine until I do a right mouse button drag. Then when I click the left mouse button I get the message box. If I only do a left button drag I get the message box, and then clicking the left mouse button doesn't produce the box. I'd like to do this without the external state, but if nothing else I'd at least like for it to work properly. FYI: I tried making dragging volatile and using a lock, but that didn't work. EDIT It turns out my problem was with a right click context menu. Once I got rid of that my above code worked. So, now my problem is how to I get to have the context menu and still have my code work. I assume the Context menu was handling the left mouse click and that somehow caused my code to not work, but I'm still puzzling it out.

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  • log4net creates log file but does not write to it (windows service in C#)

    - by user1825172
    I am trying to use basic logging for a windows service. I added the reference to log4net I added the following in AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator(Watch = true)] I added the following to my App.config: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler,log4net, Version=1.2.10.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=1b44e1d426115821" requirePermission="false" /> </configSections> <!-- Log4net Logging Setup --> <log4net> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender,log4net"> <file value="c:\\CGSD\\log\\logfile.txt" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <lockingModel type="log4net.Appender.FileAppender+MinimalLock" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="%date [%thread] %level %logger - %message%newline" /> </layout> <filter type="log4net.Filter.LevelRangeFilter"> <levelMin value="INFO" /> <levelMax value="FATAL" /> </filter> </appender> <root> <level value="ALL"/> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender"/> </root> </log4net> </configuration> I have the following code in my service: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(); log4net.ILog log = log4net.LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Program)); log.Debug("test"); the file c:\CGSD\log\logfile.txt is created but nothing is ever written to it. i've been thru the forums all day trying to trac this one down, but if i overlooked an already posted solution i apologize. thx!

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  • Asp.net MVC 2, MvcContrib, and a base controller with redirect actions

    - by jeriley
    I've got a base controller that takes a couple generics, nothing overly fancy. public class SystemBaseController<TForm, TFormViewModel> : Controller where TForm : class, IForm where TFormViewModel : class, IViewModel ok, no big deal. I have a method "CompleteForm" that takes in the viewModel, looks kinda like this ... public ActionResult CompleteForm(TFormViewModel viewModel) { //does some stuff return this.RedirectToAction(c => c.FormInfo(viewModel)); } Problem is, the controller that inherits this, like so public class SalesFormController : SystemBaseController<SalesForm, SalesViewModel> { } I end up getting a error from MvcContrib - Controller name must end in 'Controller' at this point ... public RedirectToRouteResult(Expression<Action<T>> expression) : this(expression, expr => Microsoft.Web.Mvc.Internal.ExpressionHelper.GetRouteValuesFromExpression(expr)) {} The expression that's passed in is correct (SystemBaseController blahblah) but I'm not sure why its 1.) saying there's no controller at the end, and 2.) if I pull out everything into the controller (out of the base), works just fine. Do I need to write or setup some kind of action filter of my own or what am I missing?

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  • How to set "Run this program as an administrator" programatically.

    - by Patrick
    I'm having a problem with good ol' bdeadmin.exe in Vista. First, let's get the predictable responses out of the way: "You should not require your application to be elevated." This one does. C'est la vie. "You need to embed a manifest file." It is already compiled, it is many years old, the company that created it has no intention of doing it again, and it is installed from a Merge Module (MSM file). "BDE is obsolete, you should be using dbExpress" One and a half million lines of code. 'Nuff said. "Drop a manifest file next to the EXE." Tried that, did nothing. As a test, that same manifest file was able to make several other EXE files require elevation, just not the one I wanted. Something in there is preventing the external manifest from being read. "Create a shortcut and set SLDF_RUNAS_USER." Can't do that, it's a Control Panel applet. The only thing that worked was setting "Run this program as an administrator" under the Compatibility tab of its Properties window. I shouldn't have to tell users to do this. Bad for business. I need to have the installer do this. The MSM file uses a static path. Any ideas?

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  • geocoder.getFromLocationName returns only null

    - by test
    Hello, I am going out of my mind for the last 2 days with an IllegalArgumentException error i receive in android code when trying to get a coordinates out of an address, or even reverse, get address out of longitude and latitude. this is the code, but i cannot see an error. is a standard code snippet that is easily found on a google search. public GeoPoint determineLatLngFromAddress(Context appContext, String strAddress) { Geocoder geocoder = new Geocoder(appContext, Locale.getDefault()); GeoPoint g = null; try { System.out.println("str addres: " + strAddress); List<Address> addresses = geocoder.getFromLocationName(strAddress, 5); if (addresses.size() > 0) { g = new GeoPoint((int) (addresses.get(0).getLatitude() * 1E6), (int) (addresses.get(0).getLongitude() * 1E6)); } } catch (Exception e) { throw new IllegalArgumentException("locationName == null"); } return g; } These are the permissions from manifest.xml file: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_FINE_LOCATION" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_COARSE_LOCATION" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_MOCK_LOCATION" /> I do have the Google Api key declared too: <uses-library android:name="com.google.android.maps" /> From the code snippet above, geo coder is not null, neither is the address or appContext, and i stumble here: geocoder.getFromLocationName(strAddress, 5); I did a lot of google searching and found nothing that worked, and the most important info i found is this: ""The Geocoder class requires a backend service that is not included in the core android framework." Sooo, i am confuzed now. What do I have to call, import, add, use in code.... to make this work? I am using Google Api2.2, Api level 8. If somebody has found a solution for this, or a pointer for documentation, something that i didn't discover, please let us know. Thank you for your time.

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  • Convert.ToDateTime causes FormatException on afternoon date/time values

    - by Sam
    We have an application parsing date/time values in the following format: 2009-10-10 09:19:12.124 2009-10-10 12:13:14.852 2009-10-10 13:00:00 2009-10-10 15:23:32.022 One particular server all of the sudden (today) started failing to parse any times 13:00:00 or later. This particular client has five servers and only one has the problem. We have dozens of other clients with a total of hundreds of servers without the problem. System.FormatException: String was not recognized as a valid DateTime. at System.DateTimeParse.Parse(String s, DateTimeFormatInfo dtfi, DateTimeStyles styles) at System.DateTime.Parse(String s, IFormatProvider provider) at System.Convert.ToDateTime(String value, IFormatProvider provider) at System.String.System.IConvertible.ToDateTime(IFormatProvider provider) at System.Convert.ToDateTime(Object value) I ran a test using DateTime.Parse(s, CultureInfo.CurrentCulture) comapred to DateTime.Parse(s, CultureInfo.InvariantCulture) and the problem only shows up with CurrentCulture. However, CurrentCulture is "en-US" just like all the other servers and there's nothing different that I can find in regional or language settings. Has anyone seen this before? Suggestions related to what I can look into? EDIT: Thank you for the answers so far. However, I'm looking for suggestions on what configuration to look into that could have caused this to suddenly change behavior and stop working when it's worked for years and works on hundreds of other servers. I've already changed it for the next version, but I'm looking for a configuration change to fix this in the interim for the current installation.

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  • Format date from SQLCE to display in DataGridView

    - by Ruben Trancoso
    hi folks, I have a DataGridView bound to a table from a .sdf database through a BindSource. The date column display dates like "d/M/yyyy HH:mm:ss". e.: "27/2/1971 00:00:00". I want to make it display just "27/02/1971" in its place. I tried to apply DataGridViewCellStyle {format=dd/MM/yyyy} but nothing happens, event with other pre-built formats. On the the other side, there's a Form with a MasketTextBox with a "dd/MM/yyyy" mask to its input that is bound to the same column and uses a Parse and a Format event handler before display and send it to the db. Binding dataNascimentoBinding = new Binding("Text", this.source, "Nascimento", true); dataNascimentoBinding.Format += new ConvertEventHandler(Util.formatDateConvertEventHandler); dataNascimentoBinding.Parse += new ConvertEventHandler(Util.parseDateConvertEventHandler); this.dataNascimentoTxt.DataBindings.Add(dataNascimentoBinding); public static string convertDateString2DateString(string dateString, string inputFormat, string outputFormat ) { DateTime date = DateTime.ParseExact(dateString, inputFormat, DateTimeFormatInfo.InvariantInfo); return String.Format("{0:" + outputFormat + "}", date); } public static void formatDateConvertEventHandler(object sender, ConvertEventArgs e) { if (e.DesiredType != typeof(string)) return; if (e.Value.GetType() != typeof(string)) return; String dateString = (string)e.Value; e.Value = convertDateString2DateString(dateString, "d/M/yyyy HH:mm:ss", "dd/MM/yyyy"); } public static void parseDateConvertEventHandler(object sender, ConvertEventArgs e) { if (e.DesiredType != typeof(string)) return; if (e.Value.GetType() != typeof(string)) return; string value = (string)e.Value; try { e.Value = DateTime.ParseExact(value, "dd/MM/yyyy", DateTimeFormatInfo.InvariantInfo); } catch { return; } } Like you can see by the code it was expexted that Date coming from SQL would be a DateTime value as is its column, but my eventHandler is receiving a string instead. Likewise, the result date for parse should be a datetime but its a string also. I'm puzzled dealing with this datetime column.

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  • C# Static constructors design problem - need to specify parameter

    - by Neil Dobson
    I have a re-occurring design problem with certain classes which require one-off initialization with a parameter such as the name of an external resource such as a config file. For example, I have a corelib project which provides application-wide logging, configuration and general helper methods. This object could use a static constructor to initialize itself but it need access to a config file which it can't find itself. I can see a couple of solutions, but both of these don't seem quite right: 1) Use a constructor with a parameter. But then each object which requires corelib functionality should also know the name of the config file, so this has to be passed around the application. Also if I implemented corelib as a singleton I would also have to pass the config file as a parameter to the GetInstance method, which I believe is also not right. 2) Create a static property or method to pass through the config file or other external parameter. I have sort of used the latter method and created a Load method which initializes an inner class which it passes through the config file in the constructor. Then this inner class is exposed through a public property MyCoreLib. public static class CoreLib { private static MyCoreLib myCoreLib; public static void Load(string configFile) { myCoreLib = new MyCoreLib(configFile); } public static MyCoreLib MyCoreLib { get { return myCoreLib; } } public class MyCoreLib { private string configFile; public MyCoreLib(string configFile) { this.configFile = configFile; } public void DoSomething() { } } } I'm still not happy though. The inner class is not initialized until you call the load method, so that needs to be considered anywhere the MyCoreLib is accessed. Also there is nothing to stop someone calling the load method again. Any other patterns or ideas how to accomplish this?

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  • iText PDFReader Extremely Slow To Open

    - by Wbmstrmjb
    I have some code that combines a few pages of acro forms (with acrofields in tact) and then at the end writes some JS to the entire document. It is the PdfReader in the function adding the JS that is taking extremely long to instantiate (about 12 seconds for a 1MB file). Here is the code (pretty simple): public static byte[] AddJavascript(byte[] document, string js) { PdfReader reader = new PdfReader(new RandomAccessFileOrArray(document), null); MemoryStream msOutput = new MemoryStream(); PdfStamper stamper = new PdfStamper(reader, msOutput); PdfWriter writer = stamper.Writer; writer.AddJavaScript(js); stamper.Close(); reader.Close(); byte[] withJS = msOutput.GetBuffer(); return withJS; } I have benchmarked the above and the line that is slow is the first one. I have tried reading it from a file instead of memory and tried using a MemoryStream instead of the RandomAccessFileOrArray. Nothing makes it any faster. If I add JS to a single page document, it is very fast. So my thought is that the code that combines the pages is somehow making the PDF slow to read for the PdfReader. Here is the combine code: public static byte[] CombineFiles(List<byte[]> sourceFiles) { MemoryStream output = new MemoryStream(); PdfCopyFields copier = new PdfCopyFields(output); try { output.Position = 0; foreach (var fileBytes in sourceFiles) { PdfReader fileReader = new PdfReader(fileBytes); copier.AddDocument(fileReader); } } catch (Exception exception) { //throw } finally { copier.Close(); } byte[] concat = output.GetBuffer(); return concat; } I am using PdfCopyFields because I need to preserve the form fields and so cannot use the PdfCopy or PdfSmartCopy. This combine code is very fast (few ms) and produces working documents. The AddJS code above is called after it and the PdfReader open is the slow piece. Any ideas?

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  • Unable to set variables in bash script in Mac OSX

    - by cohortq
    Hello! I am attempting to automate moving files from a folder to a new folder automatically every night using a bash script run from applescript on a schedule. I am attempting to write a bash script on Mac OSX, and it keeps failing. In short this is what I have (all my ECHOs are for error checking): !/bin/bash folder = "ABC" useracct = 'test' day = date "+%d" month = date "+%B" year = date "+%Y" folderToBeMoved = "/users/$useracct/Documents/Archive/Primetime.eyetv" newfoldername = "/Volumes/Media/Network/$folder/$month$day$year" ECHO "Network is $network" $network ECHO "day is $day" ECHO "Month is $month" ECHO "YEAR is $year" ECHO "source is $folderToBeMoved" ECHO "dest is $newfoldername" mkdir $newfoldername cp -R $folderToBeMoved $newfoldername if [-f $newfoldername/Primetime.eyetv]; then rm $folderToBeMoved; fi Now my first problem is that I cannot set variables at all. Even literal ones where I just make it equal some literal. All my echos come out blank. I cannot grab the day, month, or year either,it comes out blank as well. I get an error saying that -f is not found. I get an error saying there is an unexpected end of file. I made the file and did a chmod u+x scriptname.sh I'm not sure why nothing is working at all. I am very new to this bash script on OSX, and only have experience with windows vbscript. Any help would be great, thanks!

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  • Python beginner having trouble running code

    - by Protean
    For some reason this code will not seem to run in the interpreter. When I hit F5 nothing happens, not even the debugger seems to recognize it. I assume it has something to do with the class, as when removed the interpreter seems to recognize the rest of the code. Please tell me what I am doing wrong. Edit: I have restarted the interpreter multiple times, any other piece of code I try to load runs fine, just this one is having trouble. print ('Why won't this work?') class sorting_class: def __init__(self): self.order = ['a', 'b', 'c', 'd'] self.globali = 0 self.orderi = 0 self.sortedlist = [] def sort(self, array): carry, leave = [] for arrayi in array: print ('run', arrayi) if self.order[self.orderi] == arrayi[self.globali]: carry.append(arrayi) else: if self.globali != 0: leave.append(arrayi) return carry, leave def srt(self, array): globalii = 0 carry, leave = my.sort(array) while len(self.sortedlist) != len(array): if len(self.carry) == 1: self.sortedlist.append(carry) arrayt = leave self.globali = 1 self.orderi = 0 carry, leave = my.sort(arrayt) elif len(self.carry) == 0: if len(self.leave) != 0: arrayt = leave self.globali = 1 self.orderi += 1 my.sort(arrayt) else: self.arrayt globalii += 1 self.orderi = globalii self.globali = 0 my.sort(arrayt) self.orderi = 0 else: arrayt = carry carry = [] self.globali += 1 carry, leave += my.sort(arrayt) my = sorting_class() x = ['ac', 'bc' ,'ab', 'da'] my.srt(x)

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