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  • differences between dependencymanagement and dependencies of maven

    - by hguser
    Hi: What is the differences between dependencymanagement and dependencies? I have seen the docs at apache maven web site.However I got nothing. It seems that a dependency defined under the DependencyManagement can be used in its child modules without sepcify the version.For example: A parent project(Pro-par) define a dependency under the dependencyManagement: <dependencyManagement> <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>junit</groupId> <artifactId>junit</artifactId> <version>3.8</version> </dependency> </dependencies> </dependencyManagement> Then at the child of Pro-par, I can use the junit : <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>junit</groupId> <artifactId>junit</artifactId> </dependency> </dependencies> However I wonder if it is necessary to define the junit at the parent pom? Why not define it directly at the needed module?

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  • Altering URLs and mapping - path_prefix? - Ruby on Rails...

    - by bgadoci
    Ok, so I am working on a blog application of sorts. Thus far, it allows for a user to sign up for their own account, create posts, tags, comments, etc. I have just implemented the ability to use www.myapp.com/brandon to set @user to find by username and therefore correctly display the users information at each url. So when you go to www.myapp.com/brandon you see all Brandon's posts, tags, and comments associated with those posts, etc. Works great. I implementing this URL mapping through the routes.rb file by adding the following: map.username_link '/:username', :controller => 'posts', :action => 'index' And then just setting the @user variable in the PostController and corresponding views to find_by_username. Now the issue is this. Once at www.myapp.com/brandon when you click on a post title, it sends to myapp.com/posts/id without the username in the URL which blows up my view because nothing is being set for the @user variable. How do I tell Rails to create the link reading www.myapp.com/brandon/posts/id vs www.myapp.com/posts/id and then map that action? I am assuming this will involve some code in the view, and then adding another line in the routes.rb file, map.subdomain_link '/:username/posts/:id', :controller => 'posts', :action => 'show' and adding the @user variable to the PostController#show action, but not totally sure if this is even the right approach. UPDATE: I have been reading about :path_prefix and seems like it might be what I am looking for. I have tried to implement simply by adding map.resources :posts, :path_prefix => '/:user_username/:post_id' to the routes.rb file but not working (even after server restart). I am sure this is not correct but wanted to let you know what I have tried.

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  • How can I effectively test against the Windows API?

    - by Billy ONeal
    I'm still having issues justifying TDD to myself. As I have mentioned in other questions, 90% of the code I write does absolutely nothing but Call some Windows API functions and Print out the data returned from said functions. The time spent coming up with the fake data that the code needs to process under TDD is incredible -- I literally spend 5 times as much time coming up with the example data as I would spend just writing application code. Part of this problem is that often I'm programming against APIs with which I have little experience, which forces me to write small applications that show me how the real API behaves so that I can write effective fakes/mocks on top of that API. Writing implementation first is the opposite of TDD, but in this case it is unavoidable: I do not know how the real API behaves, so how on earth am I going to be able to create a fake implementation of the API without playing with it? I have read several books on the subject, including Kent Beck's Test Driven Development, By Example, and Michael Feathers' Working Effectively with Legacy Code, which seem to be gospel for TDD fanatics. Feathers' book comes close in the way it describes breaking out dependencies, but even then, the examples provided have one thing in common: The program under test obtains input from other parts of the program under test. My programs do not follow that pattern. Instead, the only input to the program itself is the system upon which it runs. How can one effectively employ TDD on such a project?

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  • JsonParseException on Valid JSON

    - by user2909602
    I am having an issue calling a RESTful service from my client code. I have written the RESTful service using CXF/Jackson, deployed to localhost, and tested using RESTClient successfully. Below is a snippet of the service code: @POST @Produces("application/json") @Consumes("application/json") @Path("/set/mood") public Response setMood(MoodMeter mm) { this.getMmDAO().insert(mm); return Response.ok().entity(mm).build(); } The model class and dao work successfully and the service itself works fine using RESTClient. However, when I attempt to call this service from Java Script, I get the error below on the server side: Caused by: org.codehaus.jackson.JsonParseException: Unexpected character ('m' (code 109)): expected a valid value (number, String, array, object, 'true', 'false' or 'null') I have copied the client side code below. To make sure it has nothing to do with the JSON data itself, I used a valid JSON string (which works using RESTClient, JSON.parse() method, and JSONLint) in the vars 'json' (string) and 'jsonData' (JSON). Below is the Java Script code: var json = '{"mood_value":8,"mood_comments":"new comments","user_id":5,"point":{"latitude":37.292929,"longitude":38.0323323},"created_dtm":1381546869260}'; var jsonData = JSON.parse(json); $.ajax({ url: 'http://localhost:8080/moodmeter/app/service/set/mood', dataType: 'json', data: jsonData, type: "POST", contentType: "application/json" }); I've seen the JsonParseException a number of times on other threads, but in this case the JSON itself appears to be valid (and tested). Any thoughts are appreciated.

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  • How to show errors using JSON when an update fails in Rails 2.3.5 with jQuery

    - by Fortuity
    I've got in-place editing on a page in my app (using Rails 2.3.5 and jQuery). I want to know how to display an error on the page when the update fails. I'm using ajax (an XMLHttpRequest) to save an update to a Comment object. The controller has an update method like this: def update @comment = Comment.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| # if @comment.update_attributes!(params[:comment]) if false #deliberately forcing a fail here to see what happens format.json { render :nothing => true } else format.json { render :json => @comment.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end In Firebug, I can see the server returns a "422" (an appropriate validation error status code). But it's a response to an XMLHttpRequest so there is no redirect to an error page. I think I actually want to do this: format.json { render :json => @comment.errors} and trigger some Javascript function that iterates through (and displays) any errors. I'm using a rails plugin http://github.com/janv/rest_in_place/ to implement the in-place editing. It doesn't appear to have any callback function to handle a failure. What are my options? Can I write some Javascript to respond to a failure condition without hacking the plugin? Do I have to hack the rest_in_place plugin to handle a failure condition? Is there a better plugin (for Rails or jQuery) that handles in-place editing, including failure conditions?

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  • Can't get past "A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detected..." error

    - by joshb
    I'm doing my first ASP.NET MVC2 project and I can't get past the "A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detected..." error when trying to submit a form. I've done this in MVC1 using the ValidateInputAttribute and I've read about the breaking change in .NET 4 that requires setting the request validation mode in the web.config. Basically I'm doing exactly what is outlined in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2019843/a-potentially-dangerous-request-form-value-in-mvc-2-asp-net-4-0. Nothing's working though so I must be missing something. Here's my code: Web.config <configuration> <system.web> <httpHandlers> <add path="*" verb="*" type="System.Web.HttpNotFoundHandler"/> </httpHandlers> <httpRuntime requestValidationMode="2.0" /> <pages validateRequest="true" pageParserFilterType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewTypeParserFilter, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" pageBaseType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" userControlBaseType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"> <controls> <add assembly="System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" namespace="System.Web.Mvc" tagPrefix="mvc" /> </controls> </pages> </system.web> <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false" /> <handlers> <remove name="BlockViewHandler"/> <add name="BlockViewHandler" path="*" verb="*" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.HttpNotFoundHandler" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> </configuration> Controller action [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [ValidateInput(false)] public ActionResult Edit(Page pageToEdit) { // do stuff.... } Any ideas on what I'm doing wrong here?

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  • SQL Full-Text Indexing Issue

    - by Phil
    UPDATE: I have figured out a way using a form of dynamic sql to fix this problem, thanks anyway for any help. Hi, there is something that I need to accomplish with the use of Full-Text Indexing. This is it: The fact of the matter is when I run a query (with a stored procedure) that looks like (with a parameter (@name) that was obviously defined above (not shown here), this parameter is sent to the stored procedure by an asp.net page, from user input): SELECT Name FROMdbo.UsersTable WHERE FREETEXT(Name, @name) Well, the fact of the matter is that a query like this will return values if, say the parameter @name's value is Joe, and say, there are 10 records of names with Joe in them, but if @name's value is just Jo, then it returns nothing, and this is the problem. Say that there are other records in this table that have Jo in them, like for example, Jole, or John. So the real question is, how do I get it to return values that are not full words, or phrases, but just from part of the word/phrase (like I said above)? Like FREETEXT(Name, @name*), which is not allowed to be used as a query, but, you get the idea. Is there a way to accomplish this? I'm sure there must be, I need to figure this out. Thanks for any help.

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  • jQuery: loading reCaptcha into a div via ajax

    - by abdullah kahraman
    Hello, I want to create a form that has a div with id "captcha". When the user enters a wrong password, following code is generated in "login.php" $myCaptcha=recaptcha_get_html($publickey, $error); $xml="<captcha><![CDATA[".$myCaptcha ."]]></captcha>"; echo $xml; recaptcha_get_html($publickey, $error); generates this: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.google.com/recaptcha/api/challenge?k=xxxx"></script> <noscript> <iframe src="http://www.google.com/recaptcha/api/noscript?k=xxxx" height="300" width="500" frameborder="0"></iframe><br/> <textarea name="recaptcha_challenge_field" rows="3" cols="40"></textarea> <input type="hidden" name="recaptcha_response_field" value="manual_challenge"/> </noscript> I want to get this code with $.post() and insert it into div "captcha". Doing something like this: $.post("login.php", {requestCaptcha:"yes"}, function(returned){ $("#captcha").html($(returned).text(),"xml"); }); In IE, it does nothing. In Chrome, it clears up whole page and there is only the called reCaptcha script working like a charm. Any ideas?

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  • Accessing a com object's vtable in c#

    - by Martin Booth
    I'm attempting to access a com object's vtable in memory and getting nowhere. From what I have read, the first 4 bytes in memory of a com object should be a pointer to the vtableptr, which in turn is a pointer to the vtable. Although I'm not sure I expect to find my test method at slot 7 in this com object I have tried them all and nothing looks like the address of my function. If anyone can make the necessary changes to this sample to get it to work (the aim is just to try and invoke the Test method on the Tester class by accessing the com object's vtable and locating the method in whichever row it turns up) I would be very grateful. I know it is rare that anyone would need to do this, but please accept I do need to do something quite similar and have considered the alternatives Thanks in advance [ComVisible(true)] public class Tester { public void Test() { MessageBox.Show("Here"); } } public delegate void TestDelegate(); private void main() { Tester t = new Tester(); GCHandle objectHandle = GCHandle.Alloc(t); IntPtr objectPtr = GCHandle.ToIntPtr(objectHandle); IntPtr vTable = (IntPtr)Marshal.ReadInt32(objectPtr); IntPtr vTablePtr = (IntPtr)Marshal.ReadInt32(vTable); IntPtr functionPtr = (IntPtr)Marshal.ReadInt32(vTablePtr, 7 * 4); // 7 may be incorrect but i have tried many different values TestDelegate func = (TestDelegate)Marshal.GetDelegateForFunctionPointer(functionPtr, typeof(TestDelegate)); func(); objectHandle.Free(); }

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  • Has anyone used Rational Team Concert (RTC)?

    - by FryGuy
    The company I work for is currently evaluating replacements for SourceSafe, and for various reasons, I think RTC will be chosen. I'm a little scared that we're going to end up with a solution that isn't the best for us in our situation. I've tried researching a little bit about what it is, but all I have been able to find are marketing things, but nothing about how it actually works (any of the paradigms it uses, etc). Our team is around 8 developers and 2 QA people on a single project (and 4-5 more people that would be using it for their independent project). It seems like RTC is targetted for larger teams, but our team is relatively small. Does anyone has experience using RTC in a smaller team? The project that would be using it is a .NET/WPF application, so we would be using primarily Visual Studio. Is the Visual Studio integration any good, or are we stuck having to have Eclipse open on top of Visual Studio? Personally, I have been using Bazaar as my personal source control (and checking out/into sourcesafe from a branch), as well as on personal projects. Does RTC incorporate features of "third generation" version control systems, such as first class branching/merging and changesets rather than file changes, and good visualization of where changes come from? Also, what are the general pros and cons for it?

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  • Issue with IHttpHandler and relative URLs

    - by vtortola
    Hi, I've developed a IHttpHandler class and I've configured it as verb="*" path="*", so I'm handling all the request with it in an attempt of create my own REST implementation for a test web site that generates the html dynamically. So, when a request for a .css file arrives, I've to do something like context.Response.WriteFile(Server.MapPath(url)) ... same for pictures and so on, I have to response everything myself. My main issue, is when I put relative URLs in the anchors; for example, I have main page with a link like this <a href="page1">Go to Page 1</a> , and in Page 1 I have another link <a href="page2">Go to Page 2</a>. Page 1 and 2 are supposed to be at the same level (http://host/page1 and http://host/page2, but when I click in Go to Page 2, I got this url in the handler: ~/page1/~/page2 ... what is a pain, because I have to do an url = url.SubString(url.LastIndexOf('~')) for clean it, although I feel that there is nothing wrong and this behavior is totally normal. Right now, I can cope with it, but I think that in the future this is gonna bring me some headache. I've tried to set all the links with absolute URLs using the information of context.Request.Url, but it's also a pain :D, so I'd like to know if there is a nicer way to do these kind of things. Don't hesitate in giving me pretty obvious responses because I'm pretty new in web development and probably I'm skipping something basic about URLs, Http and so on. Thanks in advance and kind regards.

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  • Texture2D problem

    - by Anders Karlsson
    I have a problem that is driving me crazy, I want to write a number of texts on the screen using Texture2D however I only seem to be able to write the first one. If I individually write one of the labels it works but not if I write all of them, only the first label is displayed. Let me show some code: -(void)drawText:(NSString*)theString AtX:(float)X Y:(float)Y withFont:(UIFont*)aFont { // set color glColor4f(1, 0, 0, 1.0); // Enable modes needed for drawing glEnableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); Texture2D* textTexture = [[Texture2D alloc] initWithString:theString dimensions:viewSize // 320x480 alignment:UITextAlignmentLeft font:aFont]; glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); [textTexture drawInRect:CGRectMake(X,Y,1,1)]; glDisableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); [textTexture release]; } When I call this drawText once it seems to display the text properly, but if I call it a second time nothing seems to be displayed. Somebody has an idea what it could be? The states like GL_BLEND and GL_TEXTURE_2D have been enabled in the view setup function. In the Texture2D the dimensions are 512x512 as I pass the whole screen to function. If I don't pass that the text gets enlarged and fuzzy. I am a bit uncertain about that parameter. TIA for any help.

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  • Custom view with nib as subview doesn't seem to be loading

    - by Ben Collins
    I've created a custom view that loads its content from a nib, like this: /* PricingDataView.h */ #import <UIKit/UIKIt.h> @interface PricingDataView : UIView { UIView *contentView; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIView *contentView; @end /* PricingDataView.m */ #import "PricingDataView.h" @implementation PricingDataView @synthesize contentView; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if ((self = [super initWithFrame:frame])) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"PricingDataView" owner:self options:nil]; [contentView setFrame:frame]; [self addSubview:contentView]; } return self; } /* ... */ In the nib file I set PricingDataView as the type of the File's Owner, and connected the contentView outlet in IB. I placed a regular UIView from the Interface Library onto the full-sized view shown to the user, and then changed it's class name to PricingDataView. It all builds, but at runtime, nothing is rendered where my custom view is supposed to be. I put breakpoints in PricingDataView.initWithFrame, but they don't hit, so I know I'm missing something that would cause the view to be initialized. What I'm curious about is that int the process of loading my other views from nibs, all the initialization happens for me, but not with this one. Why?

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  • Custom ConfigurationSection: CallbackValidator called with empty string

    - by Paolo Tedesco
    I am writing a custom configuration section, and I would like to validate a configuration property with a callback, like in this example: using System; using System.Configuration; class CustomSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("stringValue", IsRequired = false)] [CallbackValidator(Type = typeof(CustomSection), CallbackMethodName = "ValidateString")] public string StringValue { get { return (string)this["stringValue"]; } set { this["stringValue"] = value; } } public static void ValidateString(object value) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty((string)value)) { throw new ArgumentException("string must not be empty."); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { CustomSection cfg = (CustomSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("customSection"); Console.WriteLine(cfg.StringValue); } } And my App.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="customSection" type="CustomSection, config-section"/> </configSections> <customSection stringValue="lorem ipsum"/> </configuration> My problem is that when the ValidateString function is called, the value parameter is always an empty string, and therefore the validation fails. If i just remove the validator, the string value is correctly initialized to the value in the configuration file. What am I missing? EDIT I discovered that actually the validation function is being called twice: the first time with the default value of the property, which is an empty string if nothing is specified, the second time with the real value read from the configuration file. Is there a way to modify this behavior?

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  • Setting ivar in objective-c from child view in the iPhone

    - by Ivan
    Hi there! Maybe a FAQ at this website. I have a TableViewController that holds a form. In that form I have two fields (each in it's own cell): one to select who paid (single selection), and another to select people expense is paid for (multiple selection). Both fields open a new TableViewController included in an UINavigationController. Single select field (Paid By) holds an object Membership Multiple select field (Paid For) holds an object NSMutableArray Both vars are being sent to the new controller identically the same way: mySingleSelectController.crSelectedMember = self.crPaidByMember; myMultipleSelectController.crSelectedMembers = self.crSelectedMembers; From Paid for controller I use didSelectAtIndexPath method to set a mutable array of Memberships for whom is paid: if ([[tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath] accessoryType] == UITableViewCellAccessoryCheckmark) { [self.crSelectedMembers removeObject:[self.crGroupMembers objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; //... } else { [self.crSelectedMembers addObject:[self.crGroupMembers objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; //... } So far everything goes well. An mutable array (crSelectedMembers) is perfectly set from child view. But... I have trouble setting Membership object. From Paid By controller I use didSelectAtIndexPath to set Membership: [self setCrSelectedMember:[crGroupMembers objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; By NSlogging crSelectedMember I get the right selected member in self, but in parent view, to which ivar is pointed, nothing is changed. Am I doing something wrong? Cause I CAN call the method of crSelectedMembers, but I can't change the value of crSelectedMember.

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  • JSONP request using jquery $.getJSON not working on well formed JSON.

    - by Antti
    I'm not sure is it possible now from the url I am trying. Please see this url: http://www.heiaheia.com/voimakaksikko/stats.json It always serves the same padding function "voimakaksikkoStats". It is well formed JSON, but I have not been able to load it from remote server. Does it need some work from the server side or can it be loaded with javascript? I think the problems gotta to have something to with that callback function... JQuery is not requirement, but it would be nice. This (callback=voimakaksikkoStats) returns nothing (firebug - net - response), and alert doesn't fire: $.getJSON("http://www.heiaheia.com/voimakaksikko/stats.json?callback=voimakaksikkoStats", function(data){ alert(data); }) but this (callback=?): $.getJSON("http://www.heiaheia.com/voimakaksikko/stats.json?callback=?", function(data){ alert(data); }) returns: voimakaksikkoStats({"Top5Sports":[],"Top5Tests":{"8":"No-exercise ennuste","1":"Painoindeksi","2":"Vy\u00f6t\u00e4r\u00f6n ymp\u00e4rys","10":"Cooperin testi","4":"Etunojapunnerrus"},"Top5CitiesByTests":[],"Top5CitiesByExercises":[],"ExercisesLogged":0,"Top5CitiesByUsers":[""],"TestsTaken":22,"RegisteredUsers":1}); But I cannot access it... In both examples the alert never fires. Can someone help?

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  • program "is not up to date" execution error in wedit lcc-win32

    - by Rowhawn
    I'm attempting to compile a simple hello world program in c with lcc-win32/wedit, and i'm a little unfamiliar with windows c programming. #include int main(void){ printf("hellow\n"); return 0; } When I compile the program the console output is Wedit output window build: Tue Jun 15 09:13:17 2010 c:\lcc\lib\lcccrt0.obj .text: undefined reference to '_RtlUnwind@16' c:\lcc\lib\lcccrt0.obj .text: undefined reference to '_signal' c:\lcc\lib\lcccrt0.obj .text: undefined reference to '_raise' c:\lcc\lib\lcccrt0.obj .text: undefined reference to '_exit' asctoq.obj .text: undefined reference to '_strnicmp' defaulttrap.obj .text: undefined reference to 'imp_iob' defaulttrap.obj .text: undefined reference to '_fwrite' defaulttrap.obj .text: undefined reference to '_itoa' defaulttrap.obj .text: undefined reference to '_strcat' defaulttrap.obj .text: undefined reference to '_MessageBoxA@16' defaulttrap.obj .text: undefined reference to '_abort' powlasm.obj .text: undefined reference to '_pow' qfloat.obj .text: undefined reference to '_memset' qfloat.obj .text: undefined reference to '_strchr' qfloat.obj .text: undefined reference to '_memmove' strlcpy.obj .text: undefined reference to '_memcpy' xprintf.obj .text: undefined reference to '_localeconv' xprintf.obj .text: undefined reference to '_strtol' xprintf.obj .text: undefined reference to '_wcslen' xprintf.obj .text: undefined reference to '_wctomb' xprintf.obj .text: undefined reference to '_fputc' search Compilation + link time:0.1 sec, Return code: 60 when I attempt to execute the program within wedit i get a dialog box that says "hello.exe is not up-to-date. Rebuild?" If I click yes, nothing happens. If I click no, a dos window pops up saying "C:\lcc\projects\lcc2\hello.exe" Return code -1 Execution time 0.001 seconds Press any key to continue... This continues to happen no matter how many times i compile/rebuild. Any ideas?

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  • Passing viewmodel to actionresult creates new viewmodel

    - by Jonas Bohez
    I am using a viewmodel, which i then when to send to an actionresult to use (the modified viewmodel) But in the controller, i lose the list and objects in my viewmodel. This is my view: @using PigeonFancier.Models @model PigeonFancier.Models.InschrijvingModel @using (Html.BeginForm("UpdateInschrijvingen","Melker",Model)) { <div> <fieldset> <table> @foreach (var item in Model.inschrijvingLijst) { <tr> <td>@Html.DisplayFor(model => item.Duif.Naam)</td> <td> @Html.CheckBoxFor(model => item.isGeselecteerd)</td> </tr> } </table> <input type="submit" value="Wijzigen"/> </fieldset> </div> } This is my controller, which does nothing at the moment until i can get the full viewmodel back from the view. public ActionResult UpdateInschrijvingen(InschrijvingModel inschrijvingsModel) { // inschrijvingsModel is not null, but it creates a new model before it comes here with //Use the model for some updates return RedirectToAction("Inschrijven", new { vluchtId = inschrijvingsModel.vlucht.VluchtId }); } This is the model with the List and some other objects who become null because it creates a new model when it comes back from the view to the actionresult public class InschrijvingModel { public Vlucht vlucht; public Duivenmelker duivenmelker; public List<CheckBoxModel> inschrijvingLijst { get; set; } public InschrijvingModel() { // Without this i get, No parameterless constructor defined exception. // So it uses this when it comes back from the view to make a new model } public InschrijvingModel(Duivenmelker m, Vlucht vl) { inschrijvingLijst = new List<CheckBoxModel>(); vlucht = vl; duivenmelker = m; foreach (var i in m.Duiven) { inschrijvingLijst.Add(new CheckBoxModel(){Duif = i, isGeselecteerd = i.IsIngeschrevenOpVlucht(vl)}); } } What is going wrong and how should i fix this problem please? Thanks

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  • ropemacs USAGE tutorial

    - by Headcrab
    There are many sites with instructions on installing ropemacs, but so far I couldn't find any with instructions on how to use it after it's already installed. I have it installed, or at least it seems so, Emacs has "Rope" menu in it's top menu bar. Now what? So far I could use only "Show documentation" (C-c d by default). An attempt to use code assist (which is auto-complete, I presume?) only causes Emacs to ask about "Rope project root folder" (what's that?) in the minibuffer and then showing nothing. So, once ropemacs is installed, what are the steps to see it in action on some simple python scripts? Something like "if you have this script in your emacs and put the blinking square here and press this, it does that" would be an answer. (I've been thinking if I should ask this or not for some time, because nobody else seem to have the same problem, so I thought asking this question will make me look somewhat retarded. But, after all, it's usually better to ask it and and look like a retard than not to ask it and do like a retard...)

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  • py2app, pyObjc & macports compilation errors

    - by Neewok
    Hi, I'm currently writing a small python app that embeds cherrypy and django using py2app. It worked well until I tried to include pyobjc in my project, since my app needed a small GUI (which consists of a small icon in the top menu bar + a drop down menu). I can run my python script without any problem (I'm using python 2.6 with macports), but I can't launch the application bundle generated by py2app. A dialog box appears with the following message: ImportError: dlopen(/Users/denis/tlon/standalone/mac/dist/django_cherry.app/Contents/Resources/lib/python2.6/lib-dynload/CoreFoundation/_inlines.so, 2): no suitable image found. Did find: /Users/denis/tlon/standalone/mac/dist/django_cherry.app/Contents/Resources/lib/python2.6/lib-dynload/CoreFoundation/_inlines.so: mach-o, but wrong architecture I did a quick : sudo port -u install py26-pyobjc +universal but for some reason macports tries to build openssl, with which compilation fails each time. It seems the problem is related to zLib - this is what appears in the logs : :info:build ld: warning: in /opt/local/lib/libz.dylib, file is not of required architecture ...And here is the output of file /opt/local/lib/libz.dylib : /opt/local/lib/libz.dylib: Mach-O universal binary with 2 architectures /opt/local/lib/libz.dylib (for architecture x86_64): Mach-O 64-bit dynamically linked shared library x86_64 /opt/local/lib/libz.dylib (for architecture i386): Mach-O dynamically linked shared library i386 Nothing looks wrong to me. I'm a bit stuck here. I don't even understand what openssl has to do with pyObjc, but it looks like I can't go anywhere if I don't manage to compile it. Macports really suck sometimes :/ EDIT I manage to fix Macports issue, but not py2app one. If I get it right, py2app try to create a 32-bits app, while Core Foundation files on Snow Leopard are for 64 bits architectures. Damn. Either I build this on Leopard, either I have to find a way to create a 64bit app with py2app, but then Snow Leopard only.

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  • How do I use a dependency on a Perl module installed in a non-standard location?

    - by Kinopiko
    I need to install two Perl modules on a web host. Let's call them A::B and X::Y. X::Y depends on A::B (needs A::B to run). Both of them use Module::Install. I have successfully installed A::B into a non-system location using perl Makefile.PL PREFIX=/non/system/location make; make test; make install Now I want to install X::Y, so I try the same thing perl Makefile.PL PREFIX=/non/system/location The output is $ perl Makefile.PL PREFIX=/non/system/location/ Cannot determine perl version info from lib/X/Y.pm *** Module::AutoInstall version 1.03 *** Checking for Perl dependencies... [Core Features] - Test::More ...loaded. (0.94) - ExtUtils::MakeMaker ...loaded. (6.54 >= 6.11) - File::ShareDir ...loaded. (1.00) - A::B ...missing. ==> Auto-install the 1 mandatory module(s) from CPAN? [y] It can't seem to find A::B in the system, although it is installed, and when it tries to auto-install the module from CPAN, it tries to write it into the system directory (ignoring PREFIX). I have tried using variables like PERL_LIB and LIB on the command line, after PREFIX=..., but nothing I have done seems to work. I can do make and make install successfully, but I can't do make test because of this problem. Any suggestions? I found some advice at http://servers.digitaldaze.com/extensions/perl/modules.html to use an environment variable PERL5LIB, but this also doesn't seem to work: export PERL5LIB=/non/system/location/lib/perl5/ didn't solve the problem.

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  • Vanilla WPF application hangs on one customer's machine

    - by Heinzi
    At a customer, one of our WPF applications started to hang. When trying to reproduce the problem with a minimal working example, I discovered that even the most basic (non-trivial) WPF application will hang on that machine. Example A: Create a new C# WPF project in Visual Studio 2008. Change nothing, compile it and run it on the customer's machine. It will run. Example B: Take Example A, and add a TextBlock to the main form Window1: <Window ...> <Grid> <TextBlock>Test</TextBlock> </Grid> </Window> Compile the application and run it on the customer's machine. It will hang: The title bar and the window border is visible, the inside is transparent and the window does not react to anything (cannot be moved or closed). The application must be shut down using the task manager. Obviously, this customer's WPF is broken. Is this a known issue, i.e., has anyone encountered it before and already knows how to solve it (e.g. reinstall .net 3.5 SP1, etc.)? The development machine is W7SP1, the customer's machine is XP (probably SP3, didn't check).

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  • glitchy stuttery iphone game loop

    - by Adam
    This is a problem I've been trying to solve for a few days now, and I've looked at the various solutions on stackoverflow and nothing has really seemed to work for me. I'm making an iPhone game with OpenGLES graphics and accelerometer input, at this point it's very simple, but the rendering is already pretty bad... it stutters and seems to jump back or forward in time. It doesn't happen a lot, but it happens enough to be a problem. I mean, who wants to play a game where a bullet gets magically transported into the player, and then it's game over? No one. I've tried using NSTimer for the game loop, I've tried using a separate thread (with a frame rate and continuously) I've tried using different frame rates, from 30FPS to 60FPS (It seems to have a max frame rate around 45FPS, but no problems at 30FPS) I've tried using timeIntervalSince1970 and CFGetAbsoluteTime to measure loop time, with no noticeable diffence Anyone have any ideas on what is the best way to get this looking better? One of the posts I've read suggested running the simulation at a fixed frame rate and then just render as fast as possible, does that seem like a good idea?

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  • WCF 3.5 - Remove SVC Extension - Special Case

    - by Brandon
    I have several RESTful endpoints like such: System.Security.Role.svc System.Security.User.svc etc. This is meant to be a namespace so our RESTful URL's would look like: /rest/{class namespace}/{actions} I have tried a few examples to get the SVC extension removed when my endpoint has multiple periods in it, however, nothing seems to work. I have tested with the WCF REST Contrib package (http://wcfrestcontrib.codeplex.com/), this example (http://www.west-wind.com/weblog/posts/570695.aspx), and another StackOverflow post (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/355165/how-to-remove-thie-svc-extension-in-restful-wcf-service). This works great when my endpoint is something like this: Echo.svc It will properly remove the SVC extension. Any ideas on how to handle endpoints with multiple periods in the endpoint name? EDIT: After some further testing, I found out that it is failing because whenever you do: string path = HttpContext.Current.Request.AppRelativeCurrentExecutionFilePath; If the endpoint contains multiple periods, it strips off everything after the endpoint causing all of the standard IHttpModule's to fail. Example: If I call http://localhost/services/Echo/test, my relative app file path has a returned value of: ~/echo/test However, if I make a call as http://localhost/services/System.Security.User/test, then my relative app file path has a returned value of: ~/system.security.user I am missing the '/test' on the end in that situation.

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  • Bash Array Problem

    - by Deepak Prasanna
    I wrote a bash script which tries to find a process and run the process if it had stopped. This is the script. #!/bin/bash process=thin path=/home/deepak/abc/ initiate=thin start -d process_id=`ps -ef | pgrep $process | wc -m` if [ "$process_id" -gt "0" ]; then echo "The process process is running!!" else cd $path $initiate echo "Oops the process has stopped" fi This worked fine and I thought of using arrays so that i can form a loop use this script to check multiple processes. So I modified my script like this #!/bin/bash process[1]=thin path[1]=/home/deepak/abc/ initiate[1]=thin start -d process_id=`ps -ef | pgrep $process[1] | wc -m` if [ "$process_id" -gt "0" ]; then echo "Hurray the process ${process[1]} is running!!" else cd ${path[1]} ${initiate[1]} echo "Oops the process has stopped" echo "Continue your coffee, the process has been stated again! ;)" fi I get this error if i run this script. DontWorry.sh: 2: process[1]=thin: not found DontWorry.sh: 3: path[1]=/home/deepak/abc/: not found DontWorry.sh: 4: initiate[1]=thin start -d: not found I googled to find any solution for this, most them insisted to use "#!/bin/bash" instead of "#!/bin/sh". I tried both but nothing worked. What am i missing?

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