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  • Insert data in an object to a database.

    - by paul
    I am facing the following design/implementation dilemma. I have a class Customer which is below with getters and setters. I would like to insert the value of the Customer into a "Customer" table of a database. But Customer has an address which is of type "Address". How do I go about inserting this field into the database?(I am using sqlite3). I thought of writing a separate table "Address(customerId,doorNo,city,state,country,pinCode)". But I am having second thoughts about generating the primary key(customerId) which should be same for both the "customer" and "Address" table. Sqlite3 faq states that I can do "Integer Primary Key" to use the field to generate an auto number. But if I do that in customer table, I would have to retrieve the same Id to be used in Address table. This kinda looks wrong to me :-?. There should be an elegant method to solve this. Any ideas would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance. import java.io.*; import java.sql.*; class Customer { private String id; private String name; private Address address; private Connection connection; private ResultSet resultSet; private PreparedStatement preparedStatement; public void insertToDatabase(){ } } class Address{ private String doorNumber; private String streetName; private String cityName; private String districtName; private String stateName; private String countryName; private long pinCode; }

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  • Why doesn't java.util.Set have get(int index)?

    - by Marty Pitt
    I'm sure there's a good reason, but could someone please explain why the java.util.Set interface lacks get(int Index), or any similar get() method? It seems that sets are great for putting things into, but I can't find an elegant way of retrieving a single item from it. If I know I want the first item, I can use set.iterator().next(), but otherwise it seems I have to cast to an Array to retrieve an item at a specific index? What are the appropriate ways of retrieving data from a set? (other than using an iterator) I'm sure the fact that it's excluded from the API means there's a good reason for not doing this -- could someone please enlighten me? EDIT: Some extremely great answers here, and a few saying "more context". The specific scneario was a dbUnit test, where I could reasonalby assert that the returned set from a query had only 1 item, and I was trying to access that item. However, the question is more valid without the scenario, as it remains more focussed : What's the difference between set & list. Thanks to all for the fantastic answers below.

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  • Trouble implementing Singleton pattern in Tomcat web application due to Class Loader

    - by jwegan
    I'm trying to implement a Singleton in Tomcat 6.24 on Linux with x86_64 OpenJDK 1.6. My application is just a bunch of JSPs and some static content and the JSPs make calls to my Java code. Currently the web.xml just looks like this: <web-app xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-app_2_5.xsd" version="2.5"> <description> App Name </description> <display-name>App Name</display-name> <!-- The Usual Welcome File List --> <welcome-file-list> <welcome-file>pages/index.jsp</welcome-file> </welcome-file-list> </web-app> Before when I was trying to load my Singleton it was getting instantiated twice since the class was getting loaded by two different class loaders (I'm not sure why) and each loader would create an instance of the singleton which is not acceptable for my application. I finally figured out if I exported my code as a jar and put it in $CATALINA_HOME/lib then there was only one instance, but this is not an elegant solution. I've been googling for hours, but I haven't come up with anything yet. I'm wondering if there is some other solution. Currently I'm not precompling my JSPs, could this be part of the problem? Could I write a servlet to ensure the singleton is created? If so how do I do that?

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  • Any danger in calling flash messages html_safe?

    - by PreciousBodilyFluids
    I want a flash message that looks something like: "That confirmation link is invalid or expired. Click here to have a new one generated." Where "click here" is of course a link to another action in the app where a new confirmation link can be generated. Two drawbacks: One, since link_to isn't defined in the controller where the flash message is being set, I have to put the link html in myself. No big deal, but kind of messy. Number two: In order for the link to actually display properly on the page I have to html_safe the flash display function in the view, so now it looks like (using Haml): - flash.each do |name, message| = content_tag :div, message.html_safe This gives me pause. Everything else I html_safe has been HTML I've written myself in helpers and whatnot, but the contents of the flash hash are stored in a cookie client-side, and could conceivably be changed. I've thought through it, and I don't see how this could result in an XSS attack, but XSS isn't something I have a great understanding of anyway. So, two questions: 1. Is there any danger in always html_safe-ing all flash contents like this? 2. The fact that this solution is so messy (breaking MVC by using HTML in the controller, always html_safe-ing all flash contents) make me think I'm going about this wrong. Is there a more elegant, Rails-ish way to do this? I'm using Rails 3.0.0.beta3.

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  • Writing a VM - well formed bytecode?

    - by David Titarenco
    Hi, I'm writing a virtual machine in C just for fun. Lame, I know, but luckily I'm on SO so hopefully no one will make fun :) I wrote a really quick'n'dirty VM that reads lines of (my own) ASM and does stuff. Right now, I only have 3 instructions: add, jmp, end. All is well and it's actually pretty cool being able to feed lines (doing it something like write_line(&prog[1], "jmp", regA, regB, 0); and then running the program: while (machine.code_pointer <= BOUNDS && DONE != true) { run_line(&prog[machine.cp]); } I'm using an opcode lookup table (which may not be efficient but it's elegant) in C and everything seems to be working OK. My question is more of a "best practices" question but I do think there's a correct answer to it. I'm making the VM able to read binary files (storing bytes in unsigned char[]) and execute bytecode. My question is: is it the VM's job to make sure the bytecode is well formed or is it just the compiler's job to make sure the binary file it spits out is well formed? I only ask this because what would happen if someone would edit a binary file and screw stuff up (delete arbitrary parts of it, etc). Clearly, the program would be buggy and probably not functional. Is this even the VM's problem? I'm sure that people much smarter than me have figured out solutions to these problems, I'm just curious what they are!

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  • The perfect web UI framework (with Microsoft stack?) - architecture question?

    - by Igorek
    I'm looking for suggestions for the following issue, and I realize there is really not going to be a perfect answer to my question: I have a UI built in WinForms.NET (v4.0 framework) with WCF back-end and EF4 model objects, that I am looking to port to the web. UI is not huge and is not super complex and is structured well. But it is not a super simple system either. I am looking to pick a technology stack for the web-frontend that will target desktop & partially mobile platforms, provide a good development platform to build on, and facilitate code reuse across UI and back-end tiers... I would rather avoid: custom coding of UI-centric scripts, because they are hard to debug, non-compiled, usually a maintenance nightmare, almost always start to contain business logic, and duplicate some of the logic that back-end tiers have (especially validation) custom-coding for Desktop Web and Mobile Web UI's separately (although I realize that mobile web UI will likely contain fewer of data-entry screens and more reporting screens) non-.NET technology stacks I would love to: target the reporting capabilities of the system toward mobile web browsers not have to write a single line of script (javascript, jquery, etc.) utilize a good collection of controls that produces an elegant UI use .NET for everything The way I see it right now, I need to re-write this app in Silverlight, utilize a 3rd party UI framework like Telerik, and re-do the reports UI again for mobile platforms separately. However, I'm rather concerned about the shelf-life of Silverlight and the needed to deploy a different architecture to deal with mobile platform. Is there an ASP.NET/MVC/Ajax architecture/framework/library that would allow me to get at the power of .NET and without painful (imho) client-side scripting, while providing a decent user experience Thank you

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  • PHP curl timing mismatch

    - by JonoB
    I am running a php script that: queries a local database to retrieve an amount executes a curl statement to update an external database with the above amount + x queries the local database again to insert a new row reflecting that the curl statement has been executed. One of the problems that I am having is that the curl statement takes 2-4 seconds to execute, so I have two different users from the same company running the same script at the same time, the execution time of the curl command can cause a mismatch in what should be updated in the external database. This is the because the curl statement has not yet returned from the first user...so the second user is working off incorrect figures. I am not sure of the best options here, but basically I need to prevent two or more curl statements being run at the same time. I thought of storing a value in the database that indicates that the curl statement is being executed at that time, and prevent any other curl statements being run until its completed. Once the first curl statement has been executed, then the database flag is updated and the next one can run. If this field is 'locked', then I could loop through the code and sleep for (5) seconds, and then check again if the flag has been reset. If after (3) loops, then reset the flag automatically (i've never seen the curl take longer than 5 seconds) and continue processing. Are there any other (more elegant) ways of approaching this?

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  • Relational MySQL - fetched properties?

    - by Kelso.b
    I'm currently using the following PHP code: // Get all subordinates $subords = array(); $supervisorID = $this->session->userdata('supervisor_id'); $result = $this->db->query(sprintf("SELECT * FROM users WHERE supervisor_id=%d AND id!=%d",$supervisorID, $supervisorID)); $user_list_query = 'user_id='.$supervisorID; foreach($result->result() as $user){ $user_list_query .= ' OR user_id='.$user->id; $subords[$user->id] = $user; } // Get Submissions $submissionsResult = $this->db->query(sprintf("SELECT * FROM submissions WHERE %s", $user_list_query)); $submissions = array(); foreach($submissionsResult->result() as $submission){ $entriesResult = $this->db->query(sprintf("SELECT * FROM submittedentries WHERE timestamp=%d", $submission->timestamp)); $entries = array(); foreach($entriesResult->result() as $entries) $entries[] = $entry; $submissions[] = array( 'user' => $subords[$submission->user_id], 'entries' => $entries ); $entriesResult->free_result(); } Basically I'm getting a list of users that are subordinates of a given supervisor_id (every user entry has a supervisor_id field), then grabbing entries belonging to any of those users. I can't help but think there is a more elegant way of doing this, like SELECT FROM tablename where user->supervisor_id=2222 Is there something like this with PHP/MySQL? Should probably learn relational databases properly sometime. :(

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  • Finding character in String in Vector.

    - by SoulBeaver
    Judging from the title, I kinda did my program in a fairly complicated way. BUT! I might as well ask anyway xD This is a simple program I did in response to question 3-3 of Accelerated C++, which is an awesome book in my opinion. I created a vector: vector<string> countEm; That accepts all valid strings. Therefore, I have a vector that contains elements of strings. Next, I created a function int toLowerWords( vector<string> &vec ) { for( int loop = 0; loop < vec.size(); loop++ ) transform( vec[loop].begin(), vec[loop].end(), vec[loop].begin(), ::tolower ); that splits the input into all lowercase characters for easier counting. So far, so good. I created a third and final function to actually count the words, and that's where I'm stuck. int counter( vector<string> &vec ) { for( int loop = 0; loop < vec.size(); loop++ ) for( int secLoop = 0; secLoop < vec[loop].size(); secLoop++ ) { if( vec[loop][secLoop] == ' ' ) That just looks ridiculous. Using a two-dimensional array to call on the characters of the vector until I find a space. Ridiculous. I don't believe that this is an elegant or even viable solution. If it was a viable solution, I would then backtrack from the space and copy all characters I've found in a separate vector and count those. My question then is. How can I dissect a vector of strings into separate words so that I can actually count them? I thought about using strchr, but it didn't give me any epiphanies.

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  • protocol parsing in c

    - by nomad.alien
    I have been playing around with trying to implement some protocol decoders, but each time I run into a "simple" problem and I feel the way I am solving the problem is not optimal and there must be a better way to do things. I'm using C. Currently I'm using some canned data and reading it in as a file, but later on it would be via TCP or UDP. Here's the problem. I'm currently playing with a binary protocol at work. All fields are 8 bits long. The first field(8bits) is the packet type. So I read in the first 8 bits and using a switch/case I call a function to read in the rest of the packet as I then know the size/structure of it. BUT...some of these packets have nested packets inside them, so when I encounter that specific packet I then have to read another 8-16 bytes have another switch/case to see what the next packet type is and on and on. (Luckily the packets are only nested 2 or 3 deep). Only once I have the whole packet decoded can I handle it over to my state machine for processing. I guess this can be a more general question as well. How much data do you have to read at a time from the socket? As much as possible? As much as what is "similar" in the protocol headers? So even though this protocol is fairly basic, my code is a whole bunch of switch/case statements and I do a lot of reading from the file/socket which I feel is not optimal. My main aim is to make this decoder as fast as possible. To the more experienced people out there, is this the way to go or is there a better way which I just haven't figured out yet? Any elegant solution to this problem?

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  • How to remove a specific category on a selected mail in Outlook 2003 with Macro?

    - by szekelya
    Hi, I am trying to transform my Outlook2003 into the closest thing to gmail. I started to use categories, which are pretty similar to labels in gmail. I can assign categories automatically with rules, and I can add categories manually. I have also created "search folders", that show all mails with a given category, if they are not in the Deleted Items or Sent Items folders. This part is almost like the Label views in gmail. Two things are missing basically, which should be done with macros (VBA to be precise) which I'm totally inexperienced with. So hence my questions: -Can someone show me a macro to remove the category "Inbox"? That would act exactly like the Archive button in gmail. In fact I want to assign this macro to a toolbar button and call it Archive. I have a rule that adds the Inbox category to all incoming mail. As I said, I have a search folder displaying all mails categorized as Inbox, and I also have an All Mail search folder, that displays all messages regardless whether they have the Inbox category. Exactly like gmail, just the easy archiving is missing. -Can someone show me a macro that would delete the selected mail/mails and also would remove the Inbox category before deletion? I would replace the default delete button with this macro. (Somewhat less important, as in my search folders I can filter messages that are physically placed in the Deleted Items folder, but it would be more elegant not to have mails categorized as Inbox in the trash. Many thanks in advance, szekelya

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  • Multiple Inheritence with same Base Classes in Python

    - by Jordan Reiter
    I'm trying to wrap my head around multiple inheritance in python. Suppose I have the following base class: class Structure(object): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a structure!" self.components = args And let's say I have two classes that inherit from it: class House(Structure): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a house!" super(House, self).build(*args) class School(Structure): def build(self, type="Elementary", *args): print "I am building a school!" super(School, self).build(*args) Finally, a create a class that uses multiple inheritance: class SchoolHouse(School, House): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a schoolhouse!" super(School, self).build(*args) Then, I create a SchoolHouse object and run build on it: >>> sh = SchoolHouse() >>> sh.build("roof", "walls") I am building a schoolhouse! I am building a house! I am building a structure! So I'm wondering -- what happened to the School class? Is there any way to get Python to run both somehow? I'm wondering specifically because there are a fair number of Django packages out there that provide custom Managers for models. But there doesn't appear to be a way to combine them without writing one or the other of the Managers as inheriting from the other one. It'd be nice to just import both and use both somehow, but looks like it can't be done? Also I guess it'd just help to be pointed to a good primer on multiple inheritance in Python. I have done some work with Mixins before and really enjoy using them. I guess I just wonder if there is any elegant way to combine functionality from two different classes when they inherit from the same base class.

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  • multi-shop orders table and sequential order numbers based on shop

    - by imanc
    Hey, I am looking at building a shop solution that needs to be scalable. Currently it retrieves 1-2000 orders on average per day across multiple country based shops (e.g. uk, us, de, dk, es etc.) but this order could be 10x this amount in two years. I am looking at either using separate country-shop databases to store the orders tables, or looking to combine all into one order table. If all orders exist in one table with a global ID (auto num) and country ID (e.g uk,de,dk etc.), each countries orders would also need to have sequential ordering. So in essence, we'd have to have a global ID and a country order ID, with the country order ID being sequential for countries only, e.g. global ID = 1000, country = UK, country order ID = 1000 global ID = 1001, country = DE, country order ID = 1000 global ID = 1002, country = DE, country order ID = 1001 global ID = 1003, country = DE, country order ID = 1002 global ID = 1004, country = UK, country order ID = 1001 THe global ID would be DB generated and not something I would need to worry about. But I am thinking that I'd have to do a query to get the current country order based ID+1 to find the next sequential number. Two things concern me about this: 1) query times when the table has potentially millions of rows of data and I'm doing a read before a write, 2) the potential for ID number clashes due to simultaneous writes/reads. With a MyISAM table the entire table could be locked whilst the last country order + 1 is retrieved, to prevent ID number clashes. I am wondering if anyone knows of a more elegant solution? Cheers, imanc

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  • Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

    - by bryan
    Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

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  • Silverlight - C# and LINQ - Ordering By Multiple Fields

    - by user70192
    Hello, I have an ObservableCollection of Task objects. Each Task has the following properties: AssignedTo Category Title AssignedDate I'm giving the user an interface to select which of these fields they was to sort by. In some cases, a user may want to sort by up to three of these properties. How do I dynamically build a LINQ statement that will allow me to sort by the selected fields in either ascending or descending order? Currently, I'm trying the following, but it appears to only sort by the last sort applied: var sortedTasks = from task in tasks select task; if (userWantsToSortByAssignedTo == true) { if (sortByAssignedToDescending == true) sortedTasks = sortedTasks.OrderByDescending(t => t.AssignedTo); else sortedTasks = sortedTasks.OrderBy(t => t.AssignedTo); } if (userWantsToSortByCategory == true) { if (sortByCategoryDescending == true) sortedTasks = sortedTasks.OrderByDescending(t => t.Category); else sortedTasks = sortedTasks.OrderBy(t => t.Category); } Is there an elegant way to dynamicaly append order clauses to a LINQ statement?

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  • Java: Generics, Class.isaAssignableFrom, and type casting

    - by bguiz
    This method that uses method-level generics, that parses the values from a custom POJO, JXlistOfKeyValuePairs (which is exactly that). The only thing is that both the keys and values in JXlistOfKeyValuePairs are Strings. This method wants to taken in, in addition to the JXlistOfKeyValuePairs instance, a Class<T> that defines which data type to convert the values to (assume that only Boolean, Integer and Float are possible). It then outputs a HashMap with the specified type for the values in its entries. This is the code that I have got, and it is obviously broken. private <T extends Object> Map<String, T> fromListOfKeyValuePairs(JXlistOfKeyValuePairs jxval, Class<T> clasz) { Map<String, T> val = new HashMap<String, T>(); List<Entry> jxents = jxval.getEntry(); T value; String str; for (Entry jxent : jxents) { str = jxent.getValue(); value = null; if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Float.class)) { value = (T)(Float.parseFloat(str)); } else { logger.warn("Unsupporteded value type encountered in key-value pairs, continuing anyway: " + clasz.getName()); } val.put(jxent.getKey(), value); } return val; } This is the bit that I want to solve: if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } I get: Inconvertible types required: T found: Boolean Also, if possible, I would like to be able to do this with more elegant code, avoiding Class#isAssignableFrom. Any suggestions? Sample method invocation: Map<String, Boolean> foo = fromListOfKeyValuePairs(bar, Boolean.class);

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  • Iterating through Event Log Entry Collection, IndexOutOutOfBoundsException

    - by fjdumont
    Hello, in a service application I am iterating through the Windows application event log to parse Events in order react depanding on the entry message. In the case that the event log is full (Windows usually makes sure there is enough space by deleting old entries - this is configurable in the eventvwr.exe settings), the service always runs into an IndexOutOfBoundsException while iterating through the EventLog.Entries collection. No matter how I iterate (for-loop, using the collections enumerator, copying the collection into an array, ...), I can't seem to get rid of this ´bug´. Currently, I ensure that the log is not full in order to keep the service running by regularly deleting the last few item by parsing the event log file and deleting the last few nodes (Don't beat me up, I couldn't find a better alternative...). How can I iterate through the collection without trying to access already deleted entries? Is there probably a more elegant method? I am only trying to acces the logs written during the last x seconds (even LINQ failed to select those when the log is full - same exception), could this help? Thanks for any advice and hints Frank Edit: I forgot to mention that my assumption is the loops are accessing entries which are being deleted during iteration by Windows. Basically that is why I tried to clone the collection. Is there perhaps a way to lock the collection for a small amount of time for just my application?

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  • How to redirect registry access of a dll loaded by my program

    - by dummzeuch
    I have got a dll that I load in my program which reads and writes its settings to the registry (hkcu). My program changes these settings prior to loading the dll so it uses the settings my program wants it to use which works fine. Unfortunately I need to run several instances of my program with different settings for the dll. Now the approach I have used so far no longer works reliably because it is possible for one instance of the program to overwrite the settings that another instance just wrote before the dll has a chance to read them. I haven't got the source of the dll in question and I cannot ask the programmer who wrote it to change it. One idea I had, was to hook registry access functions and redirect them to a different branch of the registry which is specific to the instance of my program (e.g. use the process id as part of the path). I think this should work but maybe you have got a different / more elegant. In case it matters: I am using Delphi 2007 for my program, the dll is probably written in C or C++.

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  • How to easily map c++ enums to strings

    - by Roddy
    I have a bunch of enum types in some library header files that I'm using, and I want to have a way of converting enum values to user strings - and vice-versa. RTTI won't do it for me, because the 'user strings' need to be a bit more readable than the enumerations. A brute force solution would be a bunch of functions like this, but I feel that's a bit too C-like. enum MyEnum {VAL1, VAL2,VAL3}; String getStringFromEnum(MyEnum e) { switch e { case VAL1: return "Value 1"; case VAL2: return "Value 2"; case VAL1: return "Value 3"; default: throw Exception("Bad MyEnum"); } } I have a gut feeling that there's an elegant solution using templates, but I can't quite get my head round it yet. UPDATE: Thanks for suggestions - I should have made clear that the enums are defined in a third-party library header, so I don't want to have to change the definition of them. My gut feeling now is to avoid templates and do something like this: char * MyGetValue(int v, char *tmp); // implementation is trivial #define ENUM_MAP(type, strings) char * getStringValue(const type &T) \ { \ return MyGetValue((int)T, strings); \ } ; enum eee {AA,BB,CC}; - exists in library header file ; enum fff {DD,GG,HH}; ENUM_MAP(eee,"AA|BB|CC") ENUM_MAP(fff,"DD|GG|HH") // To use... eee e; fff f; std::cout<< getStringValue(e); std::cout<< getStringValue(f);

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  • Checking multiple conditions in Ruby (within Rails, which may not matter)

    - by Ev
    Hello rubyists and railers, I have a method which checks over a params hash to make sure that it contains certain keys, and to make sure that certain values are set within a certain range. This is for an action that responds to a POST query by an iPhone app. Anyway, this method is checking for about 10 different conditions - any of which will result in an HTTP error being returned (I'm still considering this, but possibly a 400: bad request error). My current syntax is basically this (paraphrased): def invalid_submission_params?(params) [check one] or [check two] or [check three] or [check four] etc etc end Where each of the check statements returns true if that particular parameter check results in an invalid parameter set. I call it as a before filter with params[:submission] as the argument. This seems a little ugly (all the strung together or statements). Is there a better way? I have tried using case but can't see a way to make it more elegant. Or, perhaps, is there a rails method that lets me check the incoming params hash for certain conditions before handing control off to my action method?

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  • Why does C# not provide the C++ style 'friend' keyword?

    - by Ash
    The C++ friend keyword allows a class A to designate class B as it's friend. This allows Class B to access the private/protected members of class A. I've never read anything as to why this was left out of C# (and VB.NET). Most answers to this earlier StackOverflow question seem to be saying it is a useful part of C++ and there are good reasons to use it. In my experience I'd have to agree. Another question seems to me to be really asking how to do something similar to friend in a C# application. While the answers generally revolve around nested classes, it doesn't seem quite as elegant as using the friend keyword. The original Design Patterns book uses the friend keyword regularly throughout its examples. So in summary, why is friend missing from C#, and what is the "best practice" way (or ways) of simulating it in C#? (By the way, the "internal" keyword is not the same thing, it allows ALL classes within the entire assembly to access internal members, friend allows you to give access to a class to just one other class.)

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  • What's the idiomatic way of inheriting data access functionality as well as object properties?

    - by Knut Arne Vedaa
    Suppose the following (slightly pseudo-code for brevity): class Basic { String foo; } class SomeExtension extends Basic { String bar; } class OtherExtension extends Basic { String baz; } class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { } } class SomeExtensionService extends BasicService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { } } class OtherExtensionService extends BasicService { OtherExtension getOtherExtension() { } } What would be the most idiomatic, elegant way to implement the get-() service methods with the most possible code reuse? Obviously you could do it like this: class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { Basic basic = new Basic(); basic.setFoo("some kind of foo"); return basic; } } class SomeExtensionService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { SomeExtension someExtension = new SomeExtension; Basic basic = getBasic(); someExtension.setFoo(basic.getFoo()); someExtension.setBar("some kind of bar"); return someExtension; } } But this would be ugly if Basic has a lot of properties, and also you only need one object, as SomeExtension already inherits Basic. However, BasicService can obviously not return a SomeExtension object. You could also have the get methods not create the object themselves, but create it at the outermost level and pass it to the method for filling in the properties, but I find that too imperative. (Please let me know if the question is confusingly formulated.)

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  • Invoking a method overloaded where all arguments implement the same interface

    - by double07
    Hello, My starting point is the following: - I have a method, transform, which I overloaded to behave differently depending on the type of arguments that are passed in (see transform(A a1, A a2) and transform(A a1, B b) in my example below) - All these arguments implement the same interface, X I would like to apply that transform method on various objects all implementing the X interface. What I came up with was to implement transform(X x1, X x2), which checks for the instance of each object before applying the relevant variant of my transform. Though it works, the code seems ugly and I am also concerned of the performance overhead for evaluating these various instanceof and casting. Is that transform the best I can do in Java or is there a more elegant and/or efficient way of achieving the same behavior? Below is a trivial, working example printing out BA. I am looking for examples on how to improve that code. In my real code, I have naturally more implementations of 'transform' and none are trivial like below. public class A implements X { } public class B implements X { } interface X { } public A transform(A a1, A a2) { System.out.print("A"); return a2; } public A transform(A a1, B b) { System.out.print("B"); return a1; } // Isn't there something better than the code below??? public X transform(X x1, X x2) { if ((x1 instanceof A) && (x2 instanceof A)) { return transform((A) x1, (A) x2); } else if ((x1 instanceof A) && (x2 instanceof B)) { return transform((A) x1, (B) x2); } else { throw new RuntimeException("Transform not implemented for " + x1.getClass() + "," + x2.getClass()); } } @Test public void trivial() { X x1 = new A(); X x2 = new B(); X result = transform(x1, x2); transform(x1, result); }

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  • How can I send rich emails using the user's mail client ?

    - by Brann
    I need my .net program to send rich emails (usually containing table data, around 20 columns x 10 rows) using the user's mail infrastructure, allowing him to review/edit the mail before sending it, and storing the mail in his 'sent items' folder. mailto: seems the obvious choice, but unfortunately, it doesn't support neither attachments nor html bodies. It seems some clients support some extra features (e.g. Outlook 97 used to support a &Attach tag, but this is not the case for more recent versions). I could use mailto and try to format the text body to look nice (using tabs, etc), but this isn't really elegant and wouldn't support huge data. using automation seems a very huge task, as I would need to automate dozens of clients (4 or 5 versions of outlook, lotusnotes, thunderbid, etc.) ... This would be a huge task and it's not really my core business ... I could send emails through code and write my own mail form to let the user edit the mail, but this would have a lot of drawbacks : the user would need to manually configure the mail server settings he wouldn't have access to his contact directory the mail wouldn't be sent in his sent items folder This seems a quite common issue, but I haven't found any satisfying solution yet ; does someone knows of a library supporting this (ie containing automation logic for most mainstream email clients?). Or an alternative to mailto ?

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  • PHP: how to access variables inside a function that have been declared outside of it?

    - by Chris
    Please, I am very new and have not been confronted with OOP and all this related stuff, which I guess may be related to this issue (public, private, ...). So, any help and suggestions are very appreciated! :) At the very beginning of each page I include a file that starts the SESSION etc, lets call it session.php. In this file session.php, I include a file that contains a function, let's call it function1.php, because I need the function to be available in session.php. However, later in the main page I also include function2.php which needs to access variables set in session.php, so I additionally tried to include session.php in function2.php. The problem is that an error occurs as function1 will be declared multiple times... Fatal error: Cannot redeclare function1() (previously declared in ... So, what would be a more elegant and clean(er) solution for this? How could you solve it? Basically, I'd need to access variables inside a function that have been included in the main page before... Thank you very much in advance!

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