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  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

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  • How to track auto-generated id's in select-insert statement

    - by k rey
    I have two tables detail and head. The detail table will be written first. Later, the head table will be written. The head is a summary of the detail table. I would like to keep a reference from the detail to the head table. I have a solution but it is not elegant and requires duplicating the joins and filters that were used during summation. I am looking for a better solution. The below is an example of what I currently have. In this example, I have simplified the table structure. In the real world, the summation is very complex. -- Preparation create table #detail ( detail_id int identity(1,1) , code char(4) , amount money , head_id int null ); create table #head ( head_id int identity(1,1) , code char(4) , subtotal money ); insert into #detail ( code, amount ) values ( 'A', 5 ); insert into #detail ( code, amount ) values ( 'A', 5 ); insert into #detail ( code, amount ) values ( 'B', 2 ); insert into #detail ( code, amount ) values ( 'B', 2 ); -- I would like to somehow simplify the following two queries insert into #head ( code, subtotal ) select code, sum(amount) from #detail group by code update #detail set head_id = h.head_id from #detail d inner join #head h on d.code = h.code -- This is the desired end result select * from #detail Desired end result of detail table: detail_id code amount head_id 1 A 5.00 1 2 A 5.00 1 3 B 2.00 2 4 B 2.00 2

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  • template specialization of a auto_ptr<T>

    - by Chris Kaminski
    Maybe I'm overcomplicating things, but then again, I do sort of like clean interfaces. Let's say I want a specialization of auto_ptr for an fstream - I want a default fstream for the generic case, but allow a replacement pointer? tempate <> class auto_ptr<fstream> static fstream myfStream; fstream* ptr; public: auto_ptr() { // set ptr to &myfStream; } reset(fstream* newPtr) { // free old ptr if not the static one. ptr = newPtr }; } Would you consider something different or more elegant? And how would you keep something like the above from propagating outside this particular compilation unit? [The actual template is a boost::scoped_ptr.] EDIT: It's a contrived example. Ignore the fstream - it's about providing a default instance of object for an auto_ptr. I may not want to provide a specialized instance, but would like to keep the auto_ptr semantics for this static default object. class UserClass { public: auto_ptr<fstream> ptr; UserClass() { } } I may not provide an dynamic object at construction time - I still want it to have a meaningful default. Since I'm not looking at ownership-transfer semantics, it really shouldn't matter that my pointer class is pointing to a statically allocated object, no?

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  • Details View and integration with TinyMCE <%@ Page validateRequest="false" %>

    - by GibboK
    I use TinyMCE in a DetailView in in EDIT MODE. I would like to know if there is a solution which can prevent Request Validation to trigger an error WITHOUT USING <%@ Page validateRequest="false" %> for my page. The only way I found out at the moment is to encode TextBox used by TinyMCE using option: "xml" tinyMCE.init({ encoding: "xml", In this way Request Validation does not trigger error but at the time to read the data in the TextBox the result it is Encoded. I also tried to Decode on PageLoad the content of the TextBox using this code myTextBox.Text = HttpUtility.HtmlDecode(myTextBox.Text) But the result is not as expected, so I can visualize it just Encoded text. Any Ideas? Thanks UPDATE I found a solution to my problem. I added in _DataBound event for the DetailsView this code TextBox myContentAuthor = (TextBox)uxAuthorListDetailsView.FindControl("uxContentAuthorInput"); myContentAuthor.Text = HttpUtility.HtmlDecode(myContentAuthor.Text); So on DataBound event, (should work even on post back) the content will be decodene for textbox tinymce. Here how should work: 01 - TinyMCE ESCAPE data inserted in textbox using function encoding: "xml", 02 - Data has been stored as ESCAPED 03 - To read the data and add its content to a TextBox where apply TinyMCE use in DATABOUND EVENT for DetailView and HttpUtility.HtmlDecode (so it will look decoded) 04 - You can modify content in the textbox in edit mode. On post back TinyMCE will encoded again using encoding: "xml" an so on Hope guys can help some one else. But please give me your comment on this solution thanks! Mybe you come up with more elegant solution! :-)

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  • How do I send floats in window messages.

    - by yngvedh
    Hi, What is the best way to send a float in a windows message using c++ casting operators? The reason I ask is that the approach which first occurred to me did not work. For the record I'm using the standard win32 function to send messages: PostWindowMessage(UINT nMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam) What does not work: Using static_cast<WPARAM>() does not work since WPARAM is typedef'ed to UINT_PTR and will do a numeric conversion from float to int, effectively truncating the value of the float. Using reinterpret_cast<WPARAM>() does not work since it is meant for use with pointers and fails with a compilation error. I can think of two workarounds at the moment: Using reinterpret_cast in conjunction with the address of operator: float f = 42.0f; ::PostWindowMessage(WM_SOME_MESSAGE, *reinterpret_cast<WPARAM*>(&f), 0); Using an union: union { WPARAM wParam, float f }; f = 42.0f; ::PostWindowMessage(WM_SOME_MESSAGE, wParam, 0); Which of these are preffered? Are there any other more elegant way of accomplishing this?

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  • Extending the method pool of a concrete class which is derived by an interface

    - by CelGene
    Hello, I had created an interface to abstract a part of the source for a later extension. But what if I want to extend the derived classes with some special methods? So I have the interface here: class virtualFoo { public: virtual ~virtualFoo() { } virtual void create() = 0; virtual void initialize() = 0; }; and one derived class with an extra method: class concreteFoo : public virtualFoo { public: concreteFoo() { } ~concreteFoo() { } virtual void create() { } virtual void initialize() { } void ownMethod() { } }; So I try to create an Instance of concreteFoo and try to call ownMethod like this: void main() { virtualFoo* ptr = new concreteFoo(); concreteFoo* ptr2 = dynamic_cast(ptr); if(NULL != ptr2) ptr2->ownMethod(); } It works but is not really the elegant way. If I would try to use ptr-ownMethod(); directly the compiler complains that this method is not part of virtualFoo. Is there a chance to do this without using dynamic_cast? Thanks in advance!

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  • Elegantly determine if more than one boolean is "true"

    - by Ola Tuvesson
    I have a set of five boolean values. If more than one of these are true I want to excecute a particular function. What is the most elegant way you can think of that would allow me to check this condition in a single if() statement? Target language is C# but I'm interested in solutions in other languages as well (as long as we're not talking about specific built-in functions). One interesting option is to store the booleans in a byte, do a right shift and compare with the original byte. Something like if(myByte && (myByte 1)) But this would require converting the separate booleans to a byte (via a bitArray?) and that seems a bit (pun intended) clumsy... [edit]Sorry, that should have been if(myByte & (myByte - 1)) [/edit] Note: This is of course very close to the classical "population count", "sideways addition" or "Hamming weight" programming problem - but not quite the same. I don't need to know how many of the bits are set, only if it is more than one. My hope is that there is a much simpler way to accomplish this.

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  • Best way to get a random number from 1 to 50 which ISN'T x

    - by Cocorico
    Hi guys! So this is probably programming 101 stuff, but I have a problem: I have 2 numbers which are between 0 and 49. Let's call them x and y. Now I want to get a couple of other numbers which are not x or y, but are also between 0 and 49 (I am using Objective C but this is more of a general theory question I think?). Method I thought of is: int a; int b; int c; do { a = arc4random() % 49; } while ((a == x) || (a == y)); do { b = arc4random() % 49; } while ((b == x) || (b == y) || (b == a)); do { c = arc4random() % 49; } while ((c == x) || (c == y) || (c == a) || (c == b)); But it seem kind of bad to me, I don't know, I am just trying to learn to be a better programmer, what would be the most elegant sweet way to do this for best practices? Thanks!

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  • Providing less than operator for one element of a pair

    - by Koszalek Opalek
    What would be the most elegant way too fix the following code: #include <vector> #include <map> #include <set> using namespace std; typedef map< int, int > row_t; typedef vector< row_t > board_t; typedef row_t::iterator area_t; bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; int main( int argc, char* argv[] ) { int row_num; area_t it; set< pair< int, area_t > > queue; queue.insert( make_pair( row_num, it ) ); // does not compile }; One way to fix it is moving the definition of less< to namespace std (I know, you are not supposed to do it.) namespace std { bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; }; Another obvious solution is defining less than< for pair< int, area_t but I'd like to avoid that and be able to define the operator only for the one element of the pair where it is not defined.

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  • How can I define a verb in J that applies a different verb alternately to each atom in a list?

    - by Gregory Higley
    Imagine I've defined the following name in J: m =: >: i. 2 4 5 This looks like the following: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 I want to create a monadic verb of rank 1 that applies to each list in this list of lists. It will double (+:) or add 1 (>:) to each alternate item in the list. If we were to apply this verb to the first row, we'd get 2 3 6 5 10. It's fairly easy to get a list of booleans which alternate with each item, e.g., 0 1 $~{:$ m gives us 0 1 0 1 0. I thought, aha! I'll use something like +:`>: @. followed by some expression, but I could never quite get it to work. Any suggestions? UPDATE The following appears to work, but perhaps it can be refactored into something more elegant by a J pro. poop =: monad define (($ y) $ 0 1 $~{:$ y) ((]+:)`(]:) @. [)"0 y )

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  • How do you work around memcached's key/value limitations?

    - by mjy
    Memcached has length limitations for keys (250?) and values (roughtly 1MB), as well as some (to my knowledge) not very well defined character restrictions for keys. What is the best way to work around those in your opinion? I use the Perl API Cache::Memcached. What I do currently is store a special string for the main key's value if the original value was too big ("parts:<number") and in that case, I store <number parts with keys named 1+<main key, 2+<main key etc.. This seems "OK" (but messy) for some cases, not so good for others and it has the intrinsic problem that some of the parts might be missing at any time (so space is wasted for keeping the others and time is wasted reading them). As for the key limitations, one could probably implement hashing and store the full key (to work around collisions) in the value, but I haven't needed to do this yet. Has anyone come up with a more elegant way, or even a Perl API that handles arbitrary data sizes (and key values) transparently? Has anyone hacked the memcached server to support arbitrary keys/values?

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  • Effective books for learning the intricacies of business application development?

    - by OffApps Cory
    I am a self taught "developer". I use the term loosely because I only know enough to make myself dangerous. I have no theory background, and I only pick up things to get this little tool to work or make that control do what I want. That said, I am looking for some reading material that explains some of the theory behind application development especially from a business standpoint. Really I need to understand what all of these terms that float around really talk about. Business Logic Layer, UI abstraction level and all that. Anyone got a reading list that they feel helped them understand this stuff? I know how to code stuff up so that it works. It is not pretty mostly because I don't know the elegant way of doing it, and it is not planned out very well (I also don't know how to plan an application). Any help would be appreciated. I have read a number of books on what I thought was the subject, but they all seem to rehash basic coding and what-not. This doesn't have to be specific to VB.NET or WPF (or Entity Framework) but anything with those items would be quite helpful.

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  • regexp target last main li in list

    - by veilig
    I need to target the starting tag of the last top level LI in a list that may or may-not contain sublists in various positions - without using CSS or Javascript. Is there a simple/elegant regexp that can help with this? I'm no guru w/ them, but it appears the need for greedy/non-greedy selectors when I'm selecting all the middle text (.*) / (.+) changes as nested lists are added and moved around in the list - and this is throwing me off. $pattern = '/^(<ul>.*)<li>(.+<\/li><\/ul>)$/'; $replacement = '$1<li id="lastLi">$3'; Perhaps there is an easier approach?? converting to XML to target the LI and then convert back? ie: Single Element <ul> <li>TARGET</li> </ul> Multiple Elements <ul> <li>foo</li> <li>TARGET</li> </ul> Nested Lists before end <ul> <li> foo <ul> <li>bar</li> </ul> <li> <li>TARGET</li> </ul> Nested List at end <ul> <li>foo</li> <li> TARGET <ul> <li>bar</li> </ul> </li> </ul>

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  • Validate a XDocument against schema without the ValidationEventHandler (for use in a HTTP handler)

    - by Vaibhav Garg
    Hi everyone, (I am new to Schema validation) Regarding the following method, System.Xml.Schema.Extensions.Validate( ByVal source As System.Xml.Linq.XDocument, ByVal schemas As System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaSet, ByVal validationEventHandler As System.Xml.Schema.ValidationEventHandler, ByVal addSchemaInfo As Boolean) I am using it as follows inside a IHttpHandler - Try Dim xsd As XmlReader = XmlReader.Create(context.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/MySchema.xsd")) Dim schemas As New XmlSchemaSet() : schemas.Add("myNameSpace", xsd) : xsd.Close() myXDoxumentOdj.Validate(schemas, Function(s As Object, e As ValidationEventArgs) SchemaError(s, e, context), True) Catch ex1 As Threading.ThreadAbortException 'manage schema error' Return Catch ex As Exception 'manage other errors' End Try The handler- Function SchemaError(ByVal s As Object, ByVal e As ValidationEventArgs, ByVal c As HttpContext) As Object If c Is Nothing Then c = HttpContext.Current If c IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(e.Message) HttpContext.Current.Response.End() End If Return New Object() End Function This is working fine for me at present but looks very weak. I do get errors when I feed it bad XML. But i want to implement it in a more elegant way. This looks like it would break for large XML etc. Is there some way to validate without the handler so that I get the document validated in one go and then deal with errors? To me it looks Async such that the call to Validate() would pass and some non deterministic time later the handler would get called with the result/errors. Is that right? Thanks and sorry for any goofy mistakes :).

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  • Abstracting the interpretation of MVC checkboxes values received by the FormsCollection object

    - by Simon_Weaver
    In ASP.NET MVC a checkbox is generated by the HtmlHelper code here: <%= Html.CheckBox("List_" + mailingList.Key, true) %> as this HTML: <input id="List_NEW_PRODUCTS" name="List_NEW_PRODUCTS" type="checkbox" value="true" /> <input name="List_NEW_PRODUCTS" type="hidden" value="false" /> In case you're wondering why is there an extra hidden field? - then read this. Its definitely a solution that makes you first think 'hmmmmm' but then you realize its a pretty elegant one. The problem I have is when I'm trying to parse the data on the backend. Well its not so much of a problem as a concern if anything in future were to change in the framework. If I'm using the built in binding everything is great - its all done for me. But in my case I'm dynamically generating checkboxes with unknown names and no corresponding properties in my model. So i end up having to write code like this : if (forms["List_RETAIL_NOTIFICATION"] == "true,false") { } or this: if (forms.GetValues("List_RETAIL_NOTIFICATION")[0] == "true") { } Both of which i still look at and cringe - especially since theres no guarantee this will always be the return value. I'm wondering if theres a way to access the layer of abstraction used by the model binders - or if I'm stuck with my controller 'knowing' this much about HTTP POST hacks. Yes I'm maybe being a little picky - but perhaps theres a better clever way using the model binders that I can employ to read dynamically created checkbox parameters. In addition i was hoping this this post might help others searcheing for : "true,false". Even though I knew why it does this I just forgot and it took me a little while to realize 'duh'. FYI: I tried another few things, and this is what I found : forms["List_RETAIL_NOTIFICATION"] evaluates to "true,false" forms.GetValues("List_RETAIL_NOTIFICATION")[0] evaluates to "true" (forms.GetValue("List_RETAIL_NOTIFICATION").RawValue as string[])[0] evaluates to "true" forms.GetValues("List_RETAIL_NOTIFICATION").FirstOrDefault() evaluates to "true"

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  • Django filters - Using an AllValuesFilter (with a LinkWidget) on a ManyToManyField

    - by magnetix
    This is my first Stack Overflow question, so please let me know if I do anything wrong. I wish to create an AllValues filter on a ManyToMany field using the wonderful django-filters application. Basically, I want to create a filter that looks like it does in the Admin, so I also want to use the LinkWidget too. Unfortunately, I get an error (Invalid field name: 'operator') if I try this the standard way: # Models class Organisation(models.Model): name = models.CharField() ... class Sign(models.Model): name = models.CharField() operator = models.ManyToManyField('Organisation', blank=True) ... # Filter class SignFilter(LinkOrderFilterSet): operator = django_filters.AllValuesFilter(widget=django_filters.widgets.LinkWidget) class Meta: model = Sign fields = ['operator'] I got around this by creating my own filter with the many to many relationship hard coded: # Models class Organisation(models.Model): name = models.CharField() ... class Sign(models.Model): name = models.CharField() operator = models.ManyToManyField('Organisation', blank=True) ... # Filter class MyFilter(django_filters.ChoiceFilter): @property def field(self): cd = {} for row in self.model.objects.all(): orgs = row.operator.select_related().values() for org in orgs: cd[org['id']] = org['name'] choices = zip(cd.keys(), cd.values()) list.sort(choices, key=lambda x:(x[1], x[0])) self.extra['choices'] = choices return super(AllValuesFilter, self).field class SignFilter(LinkOrderFilterSet): operator = MyFilter(widget=django_filters.widgets.LinkWidget) I am new to Python and Django. Can someone think of a more generic/elegant way of doing this?

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  • How to define default values optional fields in play framework forms?

    - by natalinobusa
    I am implementing a web api using the scala 2.0.2 play framework. I would like to extract and validate a number of get parameters. And for this I am using a play "form" which allows me to define optional fields. Problem: For those optional fields, I need to define a default value if the parameter is not passed. The code is intended to parse correctly these three use cases: /test?top=abc (error, abc is not an integer) /test?top=123 (valid, top is 123) /test (valid, top is 42 (default value)) I have come up with the following code: def test = Action { implicit request => case class CData(top:Int) val p = Form( mapping( "top" -> optional(number) )((top) => CData($top.getOrElse(42))) ((cdata:CData) => Some(Some(cdata.top))) ).bindFromRequest() Ok("all done.") } The code works, but it's definitely not elegant. There is a lot of boiler plate going on just to set up a default value for a missing request parameter. Can anyone suggest a cleaner and more coincise solution?

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  • How to find nearest week day for an arbitrary date?

    - by Stig Brautaset
    Is there a more elegant way than the below to find the nearest day of the week for a given date using JodaTime? I initially thought setCopy() would be it, but this sets the day to the particular day in the same week. Thus, if ld is 2011-11-27 and day is "Monday" the following function returns 2011-11-21, and not 2011-11-28 as I want. // Note that "day" can be _any_ day of the week, not just weekdays. LocalDate getNearestDayOfWeek(LocalDate ld, String day) { return ld.dayOfWeek().setCopy(day); } Below is a work-around I came up with that works for the particular constraints in my current situation, but I'd love to get help find a completely generic solution that works always. LocalDate getNearestDayOfWeek(LocalDate ld, String day) { LocalDate target = ld.dayOfWeek().setCopy(day); if (ld.getDayOfWeek() > DateTimeConstants.SATURDAY) { target = target.plusWeeks(1); } return target; } Looking more into this I came up with this, which seems to be a more correct solution, though it seems awfully complicated: LocalDate getNearestDayOfWeek(LocalDate ld, String day) { LocalDate target = ld.dayOfWeek().setCopy(day); if (target.isBefore(ld)) { LocalDate nextTarget = target.plusWeeks(1); Duration sincePrevious = new Duration(target.toDateMidnight(), ld.toDateMidnight()); Duration untilNext = new Duration(ld.toDateMidnight(), nextTarget.toDateMidnight()); if (sincePrevious.isLongerThan(untilNext)) { target = nextTarget; } } return target; }

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  • Ruby shortest way to write rnd hex

    - by Whirlwin
    Hi. What I have is a method used to generate random hex values. E.g 666 or FF7 However, I don't think it looks simple/elegant at all.. What I want is to make it more simple which perhaps will make my code shorter as well, but I don't know how. That is why I need tips or hints Here is my code so far: def random_values random_values = Array.new letters = ['A','B','C','D','E','F'] for i in 1..15 if i <= 9 random_values << i else random_values << letters[i-10] end end return random_values.shuffle[0].to_s + random_values.shuffle[0].to_s + random_values.shuffle[0].to_s end As you probably see, I do not generate random numbers. I just shuffle the array containing the values I want, meaning all the numbers in the array are unique, which is not needed, but was the easiest solution for me when I wrote the code. I am most concerned about the return line.. If only it was possible to write like: return 3.times { random_values.shuffle[0] } or return random_values.shuffle[0].to_s *3 Thanks in advance!

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  • How to filter node list based on the contents of another node list

    - by ~otakuj462
    Hi, I'd like to use XSLT to filter a node list based on the contents of another node list. Specifically, I'd like to filter a node list such that elements with identical id attributes are eliminated from the resulting node list. Priority should be given to one of the two node lists. The way I originally imagined implementing this was to do something like this: <xsl:variable name="filteredList1" select="$list1[not($list2[@id_from_list1 = @id_from_list2])]"/> The problem is that the context node changes in the predicate for $list2, so I don't have access to attribute @id_from_list1. Due to these scoping constraints, it's not clear to me how I would be able to refer to an attribute from the outer node list using nested predicates in this fashion. To get around the issue of the context node, I've tried to create a solution involving a for-each loop, like the following: <xsl:variable name="filteredList1"> <xsl:for-each select="$list1"> <xsl:variable name="id_from_list1" select="@id_from_list1"/> <xsl:if test="not($list2[@id_from_list2 = $id_from_list1])"> <xsl:copy-of select="."/> </xsl:if> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:variable> But this doesn't work correctly. It's also not clear to me how it fails... Using the above technique, filteredList1 has a length of 1, but appears to be empty. It's strange behaviour, and anyhow, I feel there must be a more elegant approach. I'd appreciate any guidance anyone can offer. Thanks.

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  • Access VBA question: Change the query being referenced by a function, depending on context

    - by Tara Amatista
    I have a custom function in Access2007 that hinges on grabbing data out of a specific query. It opens Outlook, creates a new email and populates the fields with specific addresses and data taken from the query ("DecisionEmail"). Now I want to make a different query ("RequestEmail") and have it populate the email with that data. So all I have to do is change this line: Set MailList = db.OpenRecordset("DecisionEmail") and that's where I get stumped. This is my desired result: If the user is on Form_Decision and clicks the button "Send email", "DecisionEmail" will get plugged into the function and that data will appear in the email. If the user on Form_SendRequest and clicks the button "Send email", "RequestEmail" will instead get plugged in. The reason that these are different queries is because they contain very different information that is smudged about in different ways. However, since it's just one little thing that needs to change in the function code, I don't think a brand new function is a good idea. My last resort would be to make a brand new function and use the Conditions field in the Macro interface to choose between them, but I have a feeling there's a more elegant solution possible. I have a vague notion of setting the query names as variables and using an If statement but I just don't have the mental vocabulary for thinking through this.

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  • Validating parameters according to a fixed reference

    - by James P.
    The following method is for setting the transfer type of an FTP connection. Basically, I'd like to validate the character input (see comments). Is this going overboard? Is there a more elegant approach? How do you approach parameter validation in general? Any comments are welcome. public void setTransferType(Character typeCharacter, Character optionalSecondCharacter) throws NumberFormatException, IOException { // http://www.nsftools.com/tips/RawFTP.htm#TYPE // Syntax: TYPE type-character [second-type-character] // // Sets the type of file to be transferred. type-character can be any // of: // // * A - ASCII text // * E - EBCDIC text // * I - image (binary data) // * L - local format // // For A and E, the second-type-character specifies how the text should // be interpreted. It can be: // // * N - Non-print (not destined for printing). This is the default if // second-type-character is omitted. // * T - Telnet format control (<CR>, <FF>, etc.) // * C - ASA Carriage Control // // For L, the second-type-character specifies the number of bits per // byte on the local system, and may not be omitted. final Set<Character> acceptedTypeCharacters = new HashSet<Character>(Arrays.asList( new Character[] {'A','E','I','L'} )); final Set<Character> acceptedOptionalSecondCharacters = new HashSet<Character>(Arrays.asList( new Character[] {'N','T','C'} )); if( acceptedTypeCharacters.contains(typeCharacter) ) { if( new Character('A').equals( typeCharacter ) || new Character('E').equals( typeCharacter ) ){ if( acceptedOptionalSecondCharacters.contains(optionalSecondCharacter) ) { executeCommand("TYPE " + typeCharacter + " " + optionalSecondCharacter ); } } else { executeCommand("TYPE " + typeCharacter ); } } }

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  • Is this text wrapping technique possible in CSS and jQuery?

    - by alex
    I have built a sliding text thing for a website. http://www.solomonadventures.com/~new/adventure-tours/seafari-tours/ The background contains the menu (on the right hand side), and when it originally loads, I have placed an element to make the text look like it is wrapping around the menu. Now, I have a sliding text thing I was asked to implement. The buttons to use it are currently in the top left corner. My question is, when I slide the content down, am I able to somehow make the text still wrap around it? This is all I have thought of so far (all with trade offs) Make the text appear beneath the menu - no need to wrap Make the text as narrow to the beginning of the menu - no need to wrap Manually place placeholders in the text that make it line break so it appears to wrap - not elegant (site uses a CMS too) Is there any jQuery selector I could write that would allow me to select the paragraph from top (once slid to the top) or the top most text node (so I could do an after() to place a new placeholder element to force it to wrap?) Any other solutions? Many thanks.

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  • jquery for ruby on rails

    - by Cezar
    Hello, I am tying to use this code http://gist.github.com/110410 to dump Prototype in favor of jQuery but I do have a problem. This is my HTML (a link_to generated link): <a onclick="var f = document.createElement('form'); f.style.display = 'none'; this.parentNode.appendChild(f); f.method = 'POST'; f.action = this.href;var s = document.createElement('input'); s.setAttribute('type', 'hidden'); s.setAttribute('name', 'authenticity_token'); s.setAttribute('value', 'Mi6RcR6YDyvg2uNwGrpbeIJutSHa2fYboU37wSDE7AU='); f.appendChild(s);f.submit();return false;" class="post add_to_cart " href="/line_items?product_id=547">Add to cart</a> Issue: Everything works as it should except that the page does a reload. I suspect that the submit gets thru which causes a page reload. Is there an elegant way to prevent that ? return false; doesn't seem to cut it in this case.

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  • Passing models between controllers in MVC4

    - by wtfsven
    I'm in the middle of my first foray into web development with MVC4, and I've run into a problem that I just know is one of the core issues in web development in general, but can't seem to wrap my mind around it. So I have two models: Employee and Company. Employee has a Company, therefore /Employee/Create contains a field that is either a dropdown list for selecting an existing Company, or an ActionLink to /Company/Create if none exists. But here's the issue: If a user has to create a Company, I need to preserve the existing Employee model across both Views--over to /Company/Create, then back to /Employee/Create. So my first approach was to pass the Employee model to /Company/Create with a @Html.ActionLink("Add...", "Create", "Organization", Model , null), but then when I get to Company's Create(Employee emp), all of emp's values are null. The second problem is that if I try to come back to /Employee/Create, I'd be passing back an Employee, which would resolve to the POST Action. Basically, the whole idea is to save the state of the /Employee/Create page, jump over to /Company/Create to create a Company record, then back to /Employee/Create to finish creating the Employee. I know there is a well understood solution to this because , but I can't seem to phase it well enough to get a good Google result out of it. I've though about using Session, but it seems like doing so would be a bit of a kludge. I'd really like an elegant solution to this.

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