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  • How to make write operation idempotent?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I'm reading article about recently release Gizzard sharding framework by twitter(http://engineering.twitter.com/2010/04/introducing-gizzard-framework-for.html). It mentions that all write operations must be idempotent to make sure high reliability. According to wikipedia, "Idempotent operations are operations that can be applied multiple times without changing the result." But, IMHO, in Gazzard case, idempotent write operation should be operations that sequence doesn't matter. Now, my question is: How to make write operation idempotent? The only thing I can image is to have a version number attached to each write. For example, in blog system. Each blog must have a $blog_id and $content. In application level, we always write a blog content like this write($blog_id, $content, $version). The $version is determined to be unique in application level. So, if application first try to set one blog to "Hello world" and second want it to be "Goodbye", the write is idempotent. We have such two write operations: write($blog_id, "Hello world", 1); write($blog_id, "Goodbye", 2); These two operations are supposed to changed two different records in DB. So, no matter how many times and what sequence these two operations executed, the results are same. This is just my understanding. Please correct me if I'm wrong.

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  • IE ignores added onclick attribute

    - by user357034
    The Jquery code below works ok with firefox, Safari, Opera but not with IE. I kinda know why this isn't working in IE after reading a lot about it but I do not know how to fix it. My understanding (I think) is that this method will assign a attribute of "onclick" in IE rather than an event method. Therefore it will not fire in IE and the href fires instead which in this case is "#" which is exactly what is happening. What is the correct way of adding the onclick event. <a id="product_photo_zoom_url" href="/PhotoGallery.asp?ProductCode=9857%2D116%2D003" title="9857-116-003 Ignition box"><img id="product_photo" src="/v/vspfiles/photos/9857-116-003-2T.jpg" border="0" alt="9857-116-003 Ignition box" /></a> <br /><a id="product_photo_zoom_url2" href="/PhotoGallery.asp?ProductCode=9857%2D116%2D003" title="9857-116-003 Ignition box"> <img src="/v/vspfiles/templates/100/images/buttons/btn_largerphoto.gif" border="0"></a> var global_URL_Encode_Current_ProductCode; var global_Config_ProductPhotosFolder; var global_Current_ProductCode; var titleattr = $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr("title"); var picurl='tb_show(titleattr, \'/PhotoDetails.asp?ShowDESC=N&ProductCode=\' + global_URL_Encode_Current_ProductCode + \'&TB_iframe=true&height=600&width=520\');return false;' $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr('onclick', picurl); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr('href', '#'); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url2").attr('onclick', picurl); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url2").attr('href', '#');

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  • What is the difference between .get() and .fetch(1)

    - by AutomatedTester
    I have written an app and part of it is uses a URL parser to get certain data in a ReST type manner. So if you put /foo/bar as the path it will find all the bar items and if you put /foo it will return all items below foo So my app has a query like data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).get() Which works brilliantly. Now I want to send this to the UI using templates {% for datum in data %} <div class="content"> <h2>{{ datum.title }}</h2> {{ datum.content }} </div> {% endfor %} When I do this I get data is not iterable error. So I updated the Django to {% for datum in data.all %} which now appears to pull more data than I was giving it somehow. It shows all data in the datastore which is not ideal. So I removed the .all from the Django and changed the datastore query to data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).fetch(1) which now works as I intended. In the documentation it says The db.get() function fetches an entity from the datastore for a Key (or list of Keys). So my question is why can I iterate over a query when it returns with fetch() but can't with get(). Where has my understanding gone wrong?

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  • Reduce durability in MySQL for performance

    - by Paul Prescod
    My site occasionally has fairly predictable bursts of traffic that increase the throughput by 100 times more than normal. For example, we are going to be featured on a television show, and I expect in the hour after the show, I'll get more than 100 times more traffic than normal. My understanding is that MySQL (InnoDB) generally keeps my data in a bunch of different places: RAM Buffers commitlog binary log actual tables All of the above places on my DB slave This is too much "durability" given that I'm on an EC2 node and most of the stuff goes across the same network pipe (file systems are network attached). Plus the drives are just slow. The data is not high value and I'd rather take a small chance of a few minutes of data loss rather than have a high probability of an outage when the crowd arrives. During these traffic bursts I would like to do all of that I/O only if I can afford it. I'd like to just keep as much in RAM as possible (I have a fair chunk of RAM compared to the data size that would be touched over an hour). If buffers get scarce, or the I/O channel is not too overloaded, then sure, I'd like things to go to the commitlog or binary log to be sent to the slave. If, and only if, the I/O channel is not overloaded, I'd like to write back to the actual tables. In other words, I'd like MySQL/InnoDB to use a "write back" cache algorithm rather than a "write through" cache algorithm. Can I convince it to do that? If this is not possible, I am interested in general MySQL write-performance optimization tips. Most of the docs are about optimizing read performance, but when I get a crowd of users, I am creating accounts for all of them, so that's a write-heavy workload.

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  • NHibernate: What are child sessions and why and when should I use them?

    - by stefando
    In the comments for the ayende's blog about the auditing in NHibernate there is a mention about the need to use a child session:session.GetSession(EntityMode.Poco). As far as I understand it, it has something to do with the order of the SQL operation which session.Flush will emit. (For example: If I wanted to perform some delete operation in the pre-insert event but the session was already done with deleting operations, I would need some way to inject them in.) However I did not find documentation about this feature and behavior. Questions: Is my understanding of child sessions correct? How and in which scenarios should I use them? Are they documented somewhere? Could they be used for session "scoping"? (For example: I open the master session which will hold some data and then I create 2 child-sessions from the master one. I'd expect that the two child-scopes will be separated but the will share objects from the master session cache. Is this the case?) Are they first class citizens in NHibernate or are they just hack to support some edge-case scenarios? Thanks in advance for any info.

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  • Ruby: counters, counting and incrementing

    - by Shyam
    Hi, If you have seen my previous questions, you'd already know I am a big nuby when it comes to Ruby. So, I discovered this website which is intended for C programming, but I thought whatever one can do in C, must be possible in Ruby (and more readable too). The challenge is to print out a bunch of numbers. I discovered this nifty method .upto() and I used a block (and actually understanding its purpose). However, in IRb, I got some unexpected behavior. class MyCounter def run 1.upto(10) { |x| print x.to_s + " " } end end irb(main):033:0> q = MyCounter.new => #<MyCounter:0x5dca0> irb(main):034:0> q.run 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 => 1 I have no idea where the = 1 comes from :S Should I do this otherwise? I am expecting to have this result: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Thank you for your answers, comments and feedback!

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  • VB.NET Two different approaches to generic cross-threaded operations; which is better?

    - by BASnappl
    VB.NET 2010, .NET 4 Hello, I recently read about using SynchronizationContext objects to control the execution thread for some code. I have been using a generic subroutine to handle (possibly) cross-thread calls for things like updating UI controls that utilizes Invoke. I'm an amateur and have a hard time understanding the pros and cons of any particular approach. I am looking for some insight on which approach might be preferable and why. Update: This question is motivated, in part, by statements such as the following from the MSDN page on Control.InvokeRequired. An even better solution is to use the SynchronizationContext returned by SynchronizationContext rather than a control for cross-thread marshaling. Method 1: Public Sub InvokeControl(Of T As Control)(ByVal Control As T, ByVal Action As Action(Of T)) If Control.InvokeRequired Then Control.Invoke(New Action(Of T, Action(Of T))(AddressOf InvokeControl), New Object() {Control, Action}) Else Action(Control) End If End Sub Method 2: Public Sub UIAction(Of T As Control)(ByVal Control As T, ByVal Action As Action(Of Control)) SyncContext.Send(New Threading.SendOrPostCallback(Sub() Action(Control)), Nothing) End Sub Where SyncContext is a Threading.SynchronizationContext object defined in the constructor of my UI form: Public Sub New() InitializeComponent() SyncContext = WindowsFormsSynchronizationContext.Current End Sub Then, if I wanted to update a control (e.g., Label1) on the UI form, I would do: InvokeControl(Label1, Sub(x) x.Text = "hello") or UIAction(Label1, Sub(x) x.Text = "hello") So, what do y'all think? Is one way preferred or does it depend on the context? If you have the time, verbosity would be appreciated! Thanks in advance, Brian

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  • Setting up padding for websites in mobile devices

    - by ambrelasweb
    I had finished this website a while ago but something happened to it and I've now spent all day fixing it and getting it back from scratch as my backup wasn't correctly done. I don't quite understand what it's doing as I've done this technique on many other websites with no troubles, maybe I've looked at this website too long? Here is the website. I'm wanting to put some space on the left and right hand side, however I dont just have one container as I was needing the dark grey bar at 100% of the screen and always under the banner no matter where it was. So there are 4 "containing" divs that I want to have the space. I've placed soem CSS3 media queries in but now I'm getting a gap to the right. I was thinking it was because my background mages are going all the way across but they set at 100% so I'm just not understanding whats going on. It's somethign simple, I'm not seeing it right now.. This is what I have for the media queries /* Smartphones (portrait and landscape) ----------- */ @media only screen and (min-device-width : 320px) and (max-device-width : 480px) { #header, #banner, #main, #footer-widget-area { padding: 0 2em 0 2em; } } This is what t looks like on my iPhone Any advice is helpful and appreciated.

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  • Uncommitted reads in SSIS

    - by OldBoy
    I'm trying to debug some legacy Integration Services code, and really want some confirmation on what I think the problem is: We have a very large data task inside a control flow container. This control flow container is set up with TransactionOption = supported - i.e. it will 'inherit' transactions from parent containers, but none are set up here. Inside the data flow there is a call to a stored proc that writes to a table with pseudo code something like: "If a record doesn't exist that matches these parameters then write it" Now, the issue is that there are three records being passed into this proc all with the same parameters, so logically the first record doesn't find a match and a record is created. The second record (with the same parameters) also doesn't find a match and another record is created. My understanding is that the first 'record' passed to the proc in the dataflow is uncommitted and therefore can't be 'read' by the second call. The upshot being that all three records create a row, when logically only the first should. In this scenario am I right in thinking that it is the uncommitted transaction that stops the second call from seeing the first? Even setting the isolation level on the container doesn't help because it's not being wrapped in a transaction anyway.... Hope that makes sense, and any advice gratefully received. Work-arounds confer god-like status on you.

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  • MSMQ - Message Queue Abstraction and Pattern

    - by Maxim Gershkovich
    Hi All, Let me define the problem first and why a messagequeue has been chosen. I have a datalayer that will be transactional and EXTREMELY insert heavy and rather then attempt to deal with these issues when they occur I am hoping to implement my application from the ground up with this in mind. I have decided to tackle this problem by using the Microsoft Message Queue and perform inserts as time permits asynchronously. However I quickly ran into a problem. Certain inserts that I perform may need to be recalled (ie: retrieved) immediately (imagine this is for POS system and what happens if you need to recall the last transaction - one that still hasn’t been inserted). The way I decided to tackle this problem is by abstracting the MessageQueue and combining it in my data access layer thereby creating the illusion of a single set of data being returned to the user of the datalayer (I have considered the other issues that occur in such a scenario (ie: essentially dirty reads and such) and have concluded for my purposes I can control these issues). However this is where things get a little nasty... I’ve worked out how to get the messages back and such (trivial enough problem) but where I am stuck is; how do I create a generic (or at least somewhat generic) way of querying my message queue? One where I can minimize the duplication between the SQL queries and MessageQueue queries. I have considered using LINQ (but have very limited understanding of the technology) and have also attempted an implementation with Predicates which so far is pretty smelly. Are there any patterns for such a problem that I can utilize? Am I going about this the wrong way? Does anyone have an of their own ideas about how I can tackle this problem? Does anyone even understand what I am talking about? :-) Any and ALL input would be highly appreciated and seriously considered… Thanks again.

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  • Is there a recommended way to communicate scientific/engineering programming to C developers?

    - by ggkmath
    Hi, I have a lot of MATLAB code that needs to get ported to C (execution speed is critical for this work) as part of a back-end process for a web application. When I attempt to outsource this code to a C developer, I assume (correct me if I'm wrong) few C developers also understand MATLAB code (things like indexing and memory management are different, etc.). I wonder if there are any C developers out there that can recommend a procedure for me to follow to best communicate what the code does? For example, should I provide the MATLAB code and explain what it's doing line by line? Or, should I just provide the math/algorithm, explain it in plain English, and let the C developer implement it with this understanding in his/her own way (e.g. can I assume the developer understands how to work with complex math (i.e. imaginary numbers), how to generate histograms, perform an FFT, etc.)? Or, is there a better method? I expect I'm not the first to need to do this, so I wonder if any C developers out there ran into this situation and can share any conventional wisdom how they'd like this task to be transferred? Thanks in advance for any comments.

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  • emacs: How to intelligently handle buffer-modified when setting text properties?

    - by Cheeso
    The documentation on Text Properties says: Since text properties are considered part of the contents of the buffer (or string), and can affect how a buffer looks on the screen, any change in buffer text properties marks the buffer as modified. First, I don't understand that policy. Can anyone explain? The text props are not actually saved in the file, when the buffer is saved. So why mark the buffer as modified? For me, buffer-modified indicates "some changes have not yet been saved." but understanding the policy is just for my own amusement. More importantly, is there an already-established way that, in code, I can change syntax text properties on the text in a buffer, while keeping the buffer-modified flag set to whatever it was, prior to those changes? I'm thinking of something like save-excursion. It would be pretty easy to write, but this seems like a common case and I'd like to use the standard function, if possible. For more on the scenario - I have a mode that does a full text scan and sets syntax-tabe properties on the text. After opening a buffer, the scan runs, but it results in a buffer with buffer-modified set to t . As always, thanks.

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  • Preventing ActiveRecord save() on an instance

    - by Craig Walker
    I have an ActiveRecord model object Foo; it represents a standard database row. I want to be able to display modified versions of instances of this object. I'd like to reuse the class itself, as it already has all the hooks & aspects I'll need. (For example: I already have a view that displays the appropriate attributes). Basically I want to clone the model instance, modify some of its properties, and feed it back to the caller (view, test, etc). I do not want these attribute modifications getting back into the database. However, I do want to include the id attribute in the cloned version, as it makes dealing with the route-helpers much easier. Thus, I plan on calling ActiveRecord::Base.clone(), manually setting the ID of the cloned instance, and then making the appropriate attribute changes to the new instance. This has me worried though; one save() on the modified instance and my original data will get clobbered. So, I'm looking to lock down the new instance so that it won't hurt anything else. I'm already planning on calling freeze() (on the understanding that this prevents further modification to the object, though the documentation isn't terribly clear). However, I don't see any obvious way to prevent a save(). What would be the best approach to achieving this?

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  • Why does an authorized OAuth request token need to be exchanged for an access token?

    - by Joe Shaw
    I'm wondering what the reasons are for OAuth to require a round-trip to the data provider to exchange an authorized request token for an access token. My understanding of the OAuth workflow is: Requesting site (consumer) gets a request token from the data provider site (service provider). Requesting site asks the data provider site to authenticate the user, passing in a callback. Once the user has been authenticated and authorized the requesting site, the user is directed back to the requesting site (consumer) via the callback provided which passes back the now-authorized request token and a verification code. The requesting site exchanges the request token for an access token. The requesting site uses the access token to get data from the data provider site. Assuming I got that right, why couldn't the callback simply provide the access token to the requesting site directly in step 3, eliminating step 4? Why is the request to exchange the request token for the access token necessary? Does it exist solely for consumers that require users to enter the verification code manually, with the thought that it would be shorter and simpler than the access token itself?

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  • Grails target folder doesn't appear to be on application's classpath

    - by Kobi
    I have a grails project with some additional java source files under src/java folder. When compiling/running the server, the files under that directory get compiled into the project's target folder, together with all other groovy/grails classes. So far so good. However, when I try to load one of the java source files (from src/java) using reflection (Class.forName to be exact), a ClassNotFoundException gets thrown. What is peculiar about the whole thing is that if I copy that same class from project's target/ folder into the following location (on windows): <myuser>\.grails\1.2.2\projects\<MyProjectName>\resources then no exception gets thrown and the corresponding class is loaded fine. This seems to indicate to me that the integrated grails server only looks at classes within the user's dynamically generated project folder, and not the actual project's target folder. Is my understanding correct? Is there a way to force grails to copy certain classfiles from target/ folder into the resources folder within the user dir? Is there a different way to load the classfiles using reflection? I was looking at using the grailsApplication's classloader but that didn't seem to work either. Any tips would be more than welcome. Thanks a lot in advance!

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  • How to set gravity (or margins) of ImageView using code?

    - by mastojun
    Hi. I want to add ImageView to FrameLayout with Gravity or margins. but FramLayout and ImageView has no method about that(Actually, I can't found that). Reason that selects Framelayout is to put ImageView on ImageView. Help me plz. It is emergency for me to find solution. thx. Bellow is my code which help understanding my question. FrameLayout imageFrame = new FrameLayout(mContext); imageFrame.setLayoutParams(new GridView.LayoutParams(158, 158)); ImageView frame = new ImageView(mContext); frame = new ImageView(mContext); frame.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams(158, 158)); frame.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.CENTER_CROP); frame.setImageResource(R.drawable.image_frame_n); ImageView image = new ImageView(mContext); image.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams(148, 148)); image.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.CENTER_CROP); image.setImageResource(mThumbIds[position]); // image is needed to have a margin or gravity to be positioned at center imageFrame.addView(image); imageFrame.addView(frame);

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  • The way cores, processes, and threads work exactly?

    - by unknownthreat
    I need a bit of an advice for understanding how this whole procedure work exactly. If I am incorrect in any part described below, please correct me. In a single core CPU, it runs each process in the OS, jumping around from one process to another to utilize the best of itself. A process can also have many threads, in which the CPU core runs through these threads when it is running on the respective process. Now, on a multiple core CPU, Do the cores run in every process together, or can the cores run separately in different processes at one particular point of time? For instance, you have program A running two threads, can a duo core CPU run both threads of this program? I think the answer should be yes if we are using something like OpenMP. But while the cores are running in this OpenMP-embedded process, can one of the core simply switch to other process? For programs that are created for single core, when running at 100%, why the CPU utilization of each core are distributed? (ex. A duo core CPU of 80% and 20%. The utilization percentage of all cores always add up to 100% for this case.) Do the cores try help each other run each thread of each process in some ways? Frankly, I'm not sure how this works exactly. Any advice is appreciated.

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  • C# performance varying due to memory

    - by user1107474
    Hope this is a valid post here, its a combination of C# issues and hardware. I am benchmarking our server because we have found problems with the performance of our quant library (written in C#). I have simulated the same performance issues with some simple C# code- performing very heavy memory-usage. The code below is in a function which is spawned from a threadpool, up to a maximum of 32 threads (because our server has 4x CPUs x 8 cores each). This is all on .Net 3.5 The problem is that we are getting wildly differing performance. I run the below function 1000 times. The average time taken for the code to run could be, say, 3.5s, but the fastest will only be 1.2s and the slowest will be 7s- for the exact same function! I have graphed the memory usage against the timings and there doesnt appear to be any correlation with the GC kicking in. One thing I did notice is that when running in a single thread the timings are identical and there is no wild deviation. I have also tested CPU-bound algorithms and the timings are identical too. This has made us wonder if the memory bus just cannot cope. I was wondering could this be another .net or C# problem, or is it something related to our hardware? Would this be the same experience if I had used C++, or Java?? We are using 4x Intel x7550 with 32GB ram. Is there any way around this problem in general? Stopwatch watch = new Stopwatch(); watch.Start(); List<byte> list1 = new List<byte>(); List<byte> list2 = new List<byte>(); List<byte> list3 = new List<byte>(); int Size1 = 10000000; int Size2 = 2 * Size1; int Size3 = Size1; for (int i = 0; i < Size1; i++) { list1.Add(57); } for (int i = 0; i < Size2; i = i + 2) { list2.Add(56); } for (int i = 0; i < Size3; i++) { byte temp = list1.ElementAt(i); byte temp2 = list2.ElementAt(i); list3.Add(temp); list2[i] = temp; list1[i] = temp2; } watch.Stop(); (the code is just meant to stress out the memory) I would include the threadpool code, but we used a non-standard threadpool library. EDIT: I have reduced "size1" to 100000, which basically doesn't use much memory and I still get a lot of jitter. This suggests it's not the amount of memory being transferred, but the frequency of memory grabs?

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  • Scalability 101: How can I design a scalable web application using PHP?

    - by Legend
    I am building a web-application and have a couple of quick questions. From what I learnt, one should not worry about scalability when initially building the app and should only start worrying when the traffic increases. However, this being my first web-application, I am not quite sure if I should take an approach where I design things in an ad-hoc manner and later "fix" them. I have been reading stories about how people start off with an app that gets millions of users in a week or two. Not that I will face the same situation but I can't help but wonder, how do these people do it? Currently, I bought a shared hosting account on Lunarpages and that got me started in building and testing the application. However, I am interested in learning how to build the same application in a scalable-manner using the cloud, for instance, Amazon's EC2. From my understanding, I can see a couple of components: There is a load balancer that first receives requests and then decides where to route each request This request is then handled by a server replica that then processes the request and updates (if required) the database and sends back the response to the client If a similar request comes in, then a caching mechanism like memcached kicks into picture and returns objects from the cache A blackbox that handles database replication Specifically, I am trying to do the following: Setting up a load balancer (my homework revealed that HAProxy is one such load balancer) Setting up replication so that databases can be synchronized Using memcached Configuring Apache to work with multiple web servers Partitioning application to use Amazon EC2 and Amazon S3 (my application is something that will need great deal of storage) Finally, how can I avoid burning myself when using Amazon services? Because this is just a learning phase, I can probably do with 2-3 servers with a simple load balancer and replication but until I want to avoid paying loads of money accidentally. I am able to find resources on individual topics but am unable to find something that starts off from the big picture. Can someone please help me get started?

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  • do the Python libraries have a natural dependence on the global namespace?

    - by msw
    I first ran into this when trying to determine the relative performance of two generators: t = timeit.repeat('g.get()', setup='g = my_generator()') So I dug into the timeit module and found that the setup and statement are evaluated with their own private, initially empty namespaces so naturally the binding of g never becomes accessible to the g.get() statement. The obvious solution is to wrap them into a class, thus adding to the global namespace. I bumped into this again when attempting, in another project, to use the multiprocessing module to divide a task among workers. I even bundled everything nicely into a class but unfortunately the call pool.apply_async(runmc, arg) fails with a PicklingError because buried inside the work object that runmc instantiates is (effectively) an assignment: self.predicate = lambda x, y: x > y so the whole object can't be (understandably) pickled and whereas: def foo(x, y): return x > y pickle.dumps(foo) is fine, the sequence bar = lambda x, y: x > y yields True from callable(bar) and from type(bar), but it Can't pickle <function <lambda> at 0xb759b764>: it's not found as __main__.<lambda>. I've given only code fragments because I can easily fix these cases by merely pulling them out into module or object level defs. The bug here appears to be in my understanding of the semantics of namespace use in general. If the nature of the language requires that I create more def statements I'll happily do so; I fear that I'm missing an essential concept though. Why is there such a strong reliance on the global namespace? Or, what am I failing to understand? Namespaces are one honking great idea -- let's do more of those!

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  • help on developing enterprise level software solutions

    - by wefwgeweg
    there is a specific niche which I would like to target by providing a complete enterprise level software solution.... the problem is, where do i begin ? meaning, i come from writing just desktop software on VB/ASP .net/PHP/mysql and suddenly unfamiliar terms popup like Oracle, SAP Business Information Warehouse, J2EE.... obviously, something is pointing towards Java, is it common for software suites, or solutions to be developed 100% on Java technology and standards? Are there any other platform to build enterprise level software on ? i am still lacking understanding what exactly is "Enterprise level" ? what is sufficient condition to call a software that sells for $199 and then suddenly it's $19,999 for "enterprise" package. I dont understand why there is such a huge discrepancy between "standard" and "enterprise" versions of software. Is it just attempting to bag large corporations on a spending spree ? so why does one choose to develop so called "enterprise" softwares ? is it because of the large inflated price tag you can justify with ? i would also like some more enterpreneural resources on starting your own enterprise software company in a niche.... Thank you for reading, i am still trying to find the right questions.

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  • Problems with i18n using django translation on App-Engine with Korean and Hindi

    - by Greg
    I've got a setup based on the post here, and it works perfectly. Adding more languages to the mix, it recognises them fine, except for Korean (ko) and Hindi (hi). Chinese/Japanese/Hebrew are all fine, so nothing to do with encodings/charsets I don't think. Taking a look into the django code inside the app-engine SDK, I notice that all the languages that I'm using except for ko and hi are ones that ship with django - in the default settings.py and inside the locale folder they are missing. If I copy one of the locale folders inside the /usr/local/google_appengine/lib/django[...]/conf/locale and rename it to be 'ko', then it starts working in my app, but I won't be able to replicate this modification when I deploy to app-engine, so need a bit of help understanding what I might be doing wrong. my settings.py is definitely being taken into account, as if I remove languages from there then they stop working (as they should). If I copied the django modules into my app, under 'lib' there say, could I use those instead of the ones app-engine tries to use, maybe? I'm brand new to python/django/app-engine, and developing on a Mac with Leopard, if that makes any difference. I have the latest app-engine SDK as of tuesday.

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  • How would a user stay logged in to a REST-based website?

    - by unforgiven3
    A year or so ago I asked this question: Can you help me understand this? “Common REST Mistakes: Sessions are irrelevant”. My question was essentially this: Okay, I get that HTTP authentication is done automatically on every message - but how? Is the username/password sent with every request? Doesn't that just increase attack surface area? I feel like I'm missing part of the puzzle. The answers I received made perfect sense in the context of a mobile (iPhone, Android, WP7) app - when talking to a REST service, the app would just send user credentials along with each request. That worked great for me. But now, I would like to better understand how one would secure a REST-like website, like StackOverflow itself or something like Reddit. How would things work if it was a user logged in via a web browser instead of logged in via an iPhone app? What happens when a user logs in? Are the credentials saved in the browser somehow? How would the browser know what credentials to send with subsequent REST requests? What if it's a JavaScript call to a webservice? How would the JavaScript call include user credentials? I'll be quite frank: my understanding of security when it comes to websites is pretty limited. I enjoyed working with REST services from an app perspective, but now I want to try and build a website that is based on REST principles, and I'm finding myself to be pretty lost. If there is anything in the above question that is unclear that you'd like me to clarify, please leave a comment and I'll address it.

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  • iPhone scrolling the view up when keyboard is open

    - by Rob
    I understand that this problem is incredibly common and I have read through quite a few answers but am having trouble understanding how the code works. This works: -(void)textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField *)sender { if ([sender isEqual:txtLeaveAddyLine1]) { //move the main view, so that the keyboard does not hide it. if (self.view.frame.origin.y >= 0) { [self setViewMovedUp:YES]; } } } In this example, txtLeaveAddy is the very first UITextField that is hidden by the keyboard and it works like a charm. As I cycle through the text fields on the screen it scrolls up when the user enters into that txtLeaveAddyLine1 field. However, when I try to add the fields below the txtLeaveAddyLine1 field - nothing happens. For example: -(void)textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField *)sender { if ([sender isEqual:txtLeaveAddyLine1]) { //move the main view, so that the keyboard does not hide it. if (self.view.frame.origin.y >= 0) { [self setViewMovedUp:YES]; } } if ([sender isEqual:txtLeaveAddyLine2]) { //move the main view, so that the keyboard does not hide it. if (self.view.frame.origin.y >= 0) { [self setViewMovedUp:YES]; } } } Am I not using this function correctly?

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  • typedef a functions prototype

    - by bitmask
    I have a series of functions with the same prototype, say int func1(int a, int b) { // ... } int func2(int a, int b) { // ... } // ... Now, I want to simplify their definition and declaration. Of course I could use a macro like that: #define SP_FUNC(name) int name(int a, int b) But I'd like to keep it in C, so I tried to use the storage specifier typedef for this: typedef int SpFunc(int a, int b); This seems to work fine for the declaration: SpFunc func1; // compiles but not for the definition: SpFunc func1 { // ... } which gives me the following error: error: expected '=', ',', ';', 'asm' or '__attribute__' before '{' token Is there a way to do this correctly or is it impossible? To my understanding of C this should work, but it doesn't. Why? Note, gcc understands what I am trying to do, because, if I write SpFunc func1 = { /* ... */ } it tells me error: function 'func1' is initialized like a variable Which means that gcc understands that SpFunc is a function type.

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