Search Results

Search found 16162 results on 647 pages for 'property attribute'.

Page 573/647 | < Previous Page | 569 570 571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580  | Next Page >

  • How can I improve the performance of LinqToSql queries that use EntitySet properties?

    - by DanM
    I'm using LinqToSql to query a small, simple SQL Server CE database. I've noticed that any operations involving sub-properties are disappointingly slow. For example, if I have a Customer table that is referenced by an Order table, LinqToSql will automatically create an EntitySet<Order> property. This is a nice convenience, allowing me to do things like Customer.Order.Where(o => o.ProductName = "Stopwatch"), but for some reason, SQL Server CE hangs up pretty bad when I try to do stuff like this. One of my queries, which isn't really that complicated takes 3-4 seconds to complete. I can get the speed up to acceptable, even fast, if I just grab the two tables individually and convert them to List<Customer> and List<Order>, then join then manually with my own query, but this is throwing out a lot of what makes LinqToSql so appealing. So, I'm wondering if I can somehow get the whole database into RAM and just query that way, then occasionally save it. Is this possible? How? If not, is there anything else I can do to boost the performance besides resorting to doing all the joins manually? Note: My database in its initial state is about 250K and I don't expect it to grow to more than 1-2Mb. So, loading the data into RAM certainly wouldn't be a problem from a memory point of view. Update Here are the table definitions for the example I used in my question: create table Order ( Id int identity(1, 1) primary key, ProductName ntext null ) create table Customer ( Id int identity(1, 1) primary key, OrderId int null references Order (Id) )

    Read the article

  • Does anchor href of an image make it download?

    - by matthewsteiner
    So I was using yslow for firefox and my page weight was way high. My page has a main product image and then maybe 10 thumbnails. If you click a thumbnail, the image opens up in a popup done through jquery. The problem is, yslow is listing even the targets of the thumbnails as part of the page weight, so I guess for some reason the images are downloading. For example, I have: <a class="group nyroModal" rel="lightbox-group" href="/upload/topview.jpg"> <img alt="thumbnail" src="/upload/thumb/t_topview.jpg" /> </a> Would this normal html cause the "upload/topview.jpg" to automatically download? Or is it the jquery plugin "nyroModal"? I'd rather the images didn't preload, that'd waste a lot of bandwidth. So my question is, does a browser automatically try to download image files that are in the href property of anchors, or is the plugin most likely causing this? Thanks for any direction you can give me.

    Read the article

  • JavaScript window object element properties

    - by Timothy
    A coworker showed me the following code and asked me why it worked. <span id="myspan">Do you like my hat?</span> <script type="text/javascript"> var spanElement = document.getElementById("myspan"); alert("Here I am! " + spanElement.innerHTML + "\n" + myspan.innerHTML); </script> I explained that a property is attached to the window object with the name of the element's id when the browser parses the document which then contains a reference to the appropriate dom node. It's sort of as if window.myspan = document.getElementById("myspan") is called behind the scenes as the page is being rendered. The ensuing discussion we had raised a few of questions: The window object and most of the DOM are not part of the official JavaScript/ECMA standards, but is the above behavior documented in any other official literature, perhaps browser-related? The above works in a browser (at least the main contenders) because there is a window object, but fails in something like rhino. Is writing code that relys on this considered bad practice because it makes too many assumptions about the execution environment? Are there any browsers in which the above would fail, or is this considered standard behavior across the board? Does anyone here know the answers to those questions and would be willing to enlighten me? I tried a quick internet search, but I admit I'm not sure how to even properly phrase the query. Pointers to references and documentation are welcome.

    Read the article

  • Assign different colors to individual array elements

    - by rk.
    Say I have the array, arr1. I want to print this array (i.e. just display the numbers) but, I want to color the numbers based on their values. If arr1[i]<15, green, if arr1[i]20, red, else orange. Something to this effect. var arr1 = [ 5,10,13,19,21,25,22,18,15,13,11,12,15,20,18,17,16,18,23,25,25,22,18,15,13,11,12,15,20,18]; Here is what I tried doing: for(var i=0; i<arr1.length;i++){ if(arr1[i]<15){ var temp = $(this).css("color","green"); $this.text(temp); } else if(arr1[i]>20){ var temp = $(this).css("color","red"); $this.text(temp); } else { var temp = $(this).css("color","orange"); $this.text(temp); } } I tried changing the css property of individual elements and them adding them to the div, but it did not work for me. Can someone suggest how should I go about doing this?

    Read the article

  • NSTimer as a timeout mechanism

    - by alexantd
    I'm pretty sure this is really simple, and I'm just missing something obvious. I have an app that needs to download data from a web service for display in a UITableView, and I want to display a UIAlertView if the operation takes more than X seconds to complete. So this is what I've got (simplified for brevity): MyViewController.h @interface MyViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSTimer *timer; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSTimer *timer; MyViewController.m @implementation MyViewController @synthesize timer; - (void)viewDidLoad { timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:20 target:self selector:@selector(initializationTimedOut:) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime]; [timer invalidate]; } - (void)doSomethingThatTakesALongTime { sleep(30); // for testing only // web service calls etc. go here } - (void)initializationTimedOut:(NSTimer *)theTimer { // show the alert view } My problem is that I'm expecting the [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime] call to block while the timer keeps counting, and I'm thinking that if it finishes before the timer is done counting down, it will return control of the thread to viewDidLoad where [timer invalidate] will proceed to cancel the timer. Obviously my understanding of how timers/threads work is flawed here because the way the code is written, the timer never goes off. However, if I remove the [timer invalidate], it does.

    Read the article

  • How to add jsf components in javascript?

    - by Guru
    Is it possible to add JSF Components using javascript? In my case , on change of a select option , i need to display a different combination of input controls (like text box(s)). I thought i could use a element and innerHTML property to display the dynamic controls.But it seems to not work!!! <h:selectOneMenu id="browseType" class="TextBlackNormal" value="#{adminBean.browseType}" onchange="showDynamicBox(this);" valueChangeListener="#{adminBean.theValueChanged}"> <f:selectItems value="#{adminBean.browseTypeList}" /> </h:selectOneMenu> &#160;&#160;&#160;</td> <td> <div id="dynamicBox" style="display:block"><h:inputText class="TextBlackNormal" size="32" name="browseValue" id="browseValue" value="#{adminBean.browseValue}" /></div> </td> javascript code : ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ function showDynamicBox(selectObjj) { //alert('showDynamicBox ' +showDynamicBox); if(selectObjj.options[selectObjj.selectedIndex].value=='IBD/Office/IP' || selectObjj.options[selectObjj.selectedIndex].value=='APA#' ) { alert('just about to change'); document.getElementById("dynamicBox").innerHTML='<h:inputText class="TextBlackNormal" size="3" name="val1" id="val1" /> <h:inputText class="TextBlackNormal" size="3" name="val2" id="val2" /> <h:inputText class="TextBlackNormal" size="3" name="val3" id="val3" /> '; alert(' --> ' +document.getElementById("dynamicBox").innerHTML); }else{ alert('back to pavillion'); document.getElementById("dynamicBox").innerHTML='<h:inputText class="TextBlackNormal" size="32" name="browseValue" id="browseValue" value="#{adminBean.browseValue}" />'; } }

    Read the article

  • Spring MessageSource not being used during validation

    - by Jeremy
    I can't get my messages in messages.properties to be used during Spring validation of my form backing objects. app-config.xml: <bean id="messageSource" class="org.springframework.context.support.ResourceBundleMessageSource"> <property name="basename" value="messages" /> </bean> WEB-INF/classes/messages.properties: NotEmpty=This field should not be empty. Form Backing Object: ... @NotEmpty @Size(min=6, max=25) private String password; ... When I loop through all errors in the BindingResult and output the ObjectError's toString I get this: Field error in object 'settingsForm' on field 'password': rejected value []; codes [NotEmpty.settingsForm.password,NotEmpty.password,NotEmpty.java.lang.String,NotEmpty]; arguments [org.springframework.context.support.DefaultMessageSourceResolvable: codes [settingsForm.password,password]; arguments []; default message [password]]; default message [may not be empty] As you can see the default message is "may not be empty" instead of my message "This field should not be empty". I do get my correct message if I inject the messageSource into a controller and output this: messageSource.getMessage("NotEmpty", new Object [] {"password"}, "default empty message", null); So why isn't the validation using my messages.properties? I'm running Spring 3.1.1. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Why does this program take up so much memory?

    - by Adrian
    I am learning Objective-C. I am trying to release all of the memory that I use. So, I wrote a program to test if I am doing it right: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #define DEFAULT_NAME @"Unknown" @interface Person : NSObject { NSString *name; } @property (copy) NSString * name; @end @implementation Person @synthesize name; - (void) dealloc { [name release]; [super dealloc]; } - (id) init { if (self = [super init]) { name = DEFAULT_NAME; } return self; } @end int main (int argc, const char * argv[]) { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; Person *person = [[Person alloc] init]; NSString *str; int i; for (i = 0; i < 1e9; i++) { str = [NSString stringWithCString: "Name" encoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding]; person.name = str; [str release]; } [person release]; [pool drain]; return 0; } I am using a mac with snow leopard. To test how much memory this is using, I open Activity Monitor at the same time that it is running. After a couple of seconds, it is using gigabytes of memory. What can I do to make it not use so much?

    Read the article

  • Can this extension method be improved?

    - by Newbie
    I have the following extension method public static class ListExtensions { public static IEnumerable<T> Search<T>(this ICollection<T> collection, string stringToSearch) { foreach (T t in collection) { Type k = t.GetType(); PropertyInfo pi = k.GetProperty("Name"); if (pi.GetValue(t, null).Equals(stringToSearch)) { yield return t; } } } } What it does is by using reflection, it finds the name property and then filteres the record from the collection based on the matching string. This method is being called as List<FactorClass> listFC = new List<FactorClass>(); listFC.Add(new FactorClass { Name = "BKP", FactorValue="Book to price",IsGlobal =false }); listFC.Add(new FactorClass { Name = "YLD", FactorValue = "Dividend yield", IsGlobal = false }); listFC.Add(new FactorClass { Name = "EPM", FactorValue = "emp", IsGlobal = false }); listFC.Add(new FactorClass { Name = "SE", FactorValue = "something else", IsGlobal = false }); List<FactorClass> listFC1 = listFC.Search("BKP").ToList(); It is working fine. But a closer look into the extension method will reveal that Type k = t.GetType(); PropertyInfo pi = k.GetProperty("Name"); is actually inside a foreach loop which is actually not needed. I think we can take it outside the loop. But how? PLease help. (C#3.0)

    Read the article

  • How are you using C++0x today? [closed]

    - by Roger Pate
    This is a question in two parts, the first is the most important and concerns now: Are you following the design and evolution of C++0x? What blogs, newsgroups, committee papers, and other resources do you follow? Even where you're not using any new features, how have they affected your current choices? What new features are you using now, either in production or otherwise? The second part is a follow-up, concerning the new standard once it is final: Do you expect to use it immediately? What are you doing to prepare for C++0x, other than as listed for the previous questions? Obviously, compiler support must be there, but there's still co-workers, ancillary tools, and other factors to consider. What will most affect your adoption? Edit: The original really was too argumentative; however, I'm still interested in the underlying question, so I've tried to clean it up and hopefully make it acceptable. This seems a much better avenue than duplicating—even though some answers responded to the argumentative tone, they still apply to the extent that they addressed the questions, and all answers are community property to be cleaned up as appropriate, too.

    Read the article

  • .NET ValidationRule problem

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

    Read the article

  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

    Read the article

  • CSS "Cover" - No scroll bars?

    - by Lynda
    I am using the cover property to create a background image that fills the background and resizes with the browser. But I run into one issue, the page has a lot of content and no scroll bars appear for me to scroll down! Here is the code I am using: body{ background: url(path.jpg) no-repeat center center fixed; -webkit-background-size: cover; -moz-background-size: cover; -o-background-size: cover; /* Cover for IE 7/8 */ filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.AlphaImageLoader(src='path.jpg', sizingMethod='scale'); -ms-filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.AlphaImageLoader(src='path.jpg', sizingMethod='scale'); /* End Cover for IE 7/8 */ background-size: cover; background-color: transparent !important; position:fixed; top: 0; left: 0; width: 100%; height:100%; max-width:2500px; max-height:1500px; z-index:1; } If I remove position:fixed; I get the scroll bars back but the background image disappears. What is the best way to tackle this and have both scroll bars and the background cover image? Note: I am using jQuery and would use a JS answer if it works (though I prefer a CSS only answer.)

    Read the article

  • How do I update the UI during an event using ASP.NET?

    - by Phil Hale
    I'm a bit stuck with a problem. I feel like the solution should be fairly straight forward but I'm completely out of ideas for some reason. Here's the problem. I've got a user control with a couple of buttons. Think of them as 'On' and 'Off'. When either button is clicked an async method is called. If the method is successful an event is fired. Within the event I want to update the enabled property of the two buttons so that only a single button is clickable at any one time. The problem is that any changes I make to the properties are not shown on screen because the postback is already complete. I tried wrapping the buttons in an UpdatePanel but I get an "Update method can only be called on UpdatePanel with ID 'xxxx' before Render' error. I understand why the problem occurs but I can't think of a solution. Help! Ideally what I'd like to do is simply call a method within the event that will update the UI, but I don't know if that's possible.

    Read the article

  • Problem when use compiled .A with simulator mode

    - by Paska
    Hi all, i have a lib .a that run only in device mode. My sdk vers is 4.2 with xcode 3.2.x. In simulator, compile correctle with no warning and no errors, but in run mode (simulator) it crash with this error: Detected an attempt to call a symbol in system libraries that is not present on the iPhone: strtod$UNIX2003 called from function pj_init in image MyAPP. If you are encountering this problem running a simulator binary within gdb, make sure you 'set start-with-shell off' first Program received signal: “SIGABRT”. I try to clean, rebuild and set "set start-with-shell off" from terminal in this way: cd ~ echo '' >> .gdbinit echo 'set start-with-shell 0' >> .gdbinit Restarted all, but nothing. The problem don't wont to resolve! Is there any tag or property that i forgotted to set in the options? In other linker flag is there only "-ObjC". It's very important to solve this issue... any idea please? thanks, A EDIT: It's my lib, compiled in simulator mode! EDIT: It run only with Simulator 4.1. Don't work with iphone 4.0, 4.2 and ipad 3.2 (all simulator).

    Read the article

  • Dealing with multiple generics in a method call

    - by thaBadDawg
    I've been dealing a lot lately with abstract classes that use generics. This is all good and fine because I get a lot of utility out of these classes but now it's making for some rather ugly code down the line. For example: abstract class ClassBase<T> { T Property { get; set; } } class MyClass : ClassBase<string> { OtherClass PropertyDetail { get; set; } } This implementation isn't all that crazy, except when I want to reference the abstract class from a helper class and then I have to make a list of generics just to make reference to the implemented class, like this below. class Helper { void HelpMe<C, T>(object Value) where C : ClassBase<T>, new() { DoWork(); } } This is just a tame example, because I have some method calls where the list of where clauses end up being 5 or 6 lines long to handle all of the generic data. What I'd really like to do is class Helper { void HelpMe<C>(object Value) where C : ClassBase, new() { DoWork(); } } but it obviously won't compile. I want to reference ClassBase without having to pass it a whole array of generic classes to get the function to work, but I don't want to reference the higher level classes because there are a dozen of those. Am I the victim of my own cleverness or is there an avenue that I haven't considered yet?

    Read the article

  • wpf observableCollection

    - by Asha
    I have an ObservableCollection which is dataContext for my treeview when I try to remove an Item from ObservableCollection I will get an error that Object reference not set to an instance of an object . can you please tell me why this error is happening and what is the solution thanks EDIT 1: The code is something like : class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { //my class code here } public partial class UC_myUserControl : UserControl { private ObservableCollection<MyClass> myCollection = new ObservableCollection<MyClass>(); private void UserControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { myCollection.add(new myClass); myTreeView.DataContext = myCollection ; } private void deleteItem() { myCollection.RemoveAt(0); //after removing I get error Which I guess should be something related //to interface update but I don't know how can I solve it } } Exception Detail : System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="PresentationFramework" EDIT 3: I have a style which is for my treeitem to keep the treeitems expanded <Style TargetType="TreeViewItem"> <Setter Property="IsExpanded" Value="True" /> </Style> and with commenting this part I wont get any error !!! Now I want to change my question to why having this style is causing error ?

    Read the article

  • Deserialize json with json.net c#

    - by 76mel
    Hi, am new to Json so a little green. I have a Rest Based Service that returns a json string; {"treeNode":[{"id":"U-2905","pid":"R","userId":"2905"}, {"id":"U-2905","pid":"R","userId":"2905"}]} I have been playing with the Json.net and trying to Deserialize the string into Objects etc. I wrote an extention method to help. public static T DeserializeFromJSON<T>(this Stream jsonStream, Type objectType) { T result; using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(jsonStream)) { JsonSerializer serializer = new JsonSerializer(); try { result = (T)serializer.Deserialize(reader, objectType); } catch (Exception e) { throw; } } return result; } I was expecting an array of treeNode[] objects. But its seems that I can only deserialize correctly if treeNode[] property of another object. public class treeNode { public string id { get; set; } public string pid { get; set; } public string userId { get; set; } } I there a way to to just get an straight array from the deserialization ? Cheers

    Read the article

  • Problem executing trackPageview with Google Analytics.

    - by dmrnj
    I'm trying to capture the clicks of certain download links and track them in Google Analytics. Here's my code var links = document.getElementsByTagName("a"); for (var i = 0; i < links.length; i++) { linkpath = links[i].pathname; if( linkpath.match(/\.(pdf|xls|ppt|doc|zip|txt)$/) || links[i].href.indexOf("mode=pdf") >=0 ){ //this matches our search addClickTracker(links[i]); } } function addClickTracker(obj){ if (obj.addEventListener) { obj.addEventListener('click', track , true); } else if (obj.attachEvent) { obj.attachEvent("on" + 'click', track); } } function track(e){ linkhref = (e.srcElement) ? e.srcElement.pathname : this.pathname; pageTracker._trackPageview(linkhref); } Everything up until the pageTracker._trackPageview() call works. In my debugging linkhref is being passed fine as a string. No abnormal characters, nothing. The issue is that, watching my http requests, Google never makes a second call to the tracking gif (as it does if you call this function in an "onclick" property). Calling the tracker from my JS console also works as expected. It's only in my listener. Could it be that my listener is not deferring the default action (loading the new page) before it has a chance to contact Google's servers? I've seen other tracking scripts that do a similar thing without any deferral.

    Read the article

  • iPhone UISlider not visible

    - by John Qualis
    I want to add a UISlider to my app programmatically without using the IB. I am adding a UISlider to my UIViewController using the code below. However I don't see the slider when the view comes up. What am I missing? I am using iPhone SDK 3.1.2. Appreciate any help. @synthesize slider; .... - (void)viewDidLoad { ... ... slider = [[UISlider alloc] initWithFrame: CGRectMake(0, 480 - 80, 300, 20)]; slider.minimumValue = 0.0; slider.maximumValue = 100.0; slider.tag = 0; slider.value = 50; slider.continuous = YES; slider.enabled = YES; [slider addTarget:selfaction:@selector(handleSlider:)forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; self.view addSubview:slider]; In the .h file ... UISlider *slider; ... @property (nonatomic, retain) UISlider *slider; - (void) handleSlider:(id)sender;

    Read the article

  • Creating a three level ASP.NET menu with SiteMap, how do i do it?

    - by user270399
    I want to create a three level menu, I have got a recursive function today that works with three levels. But the thing is how do i output the third lever? Using two repeaters i have managed to get a hold of the first two levels through the ChildNodes property. But that only gives me the second level. What if a want the third level? Example code below. How do i get the third level? :) <asp:Repeater ID="FirstLevel" DataSourceID="SiteMapDataSource" runat="server" EnableViewState="false"> <ItemTemplate> <li class="top"> <a href='/About/<%#Eval("Title")%>.aspx' class="top_link"><span class="down"><%#Eval("Title")%></span><!--[if gte IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]--> <asp:Repeater runat="server" ID="SecondLevel" DataSource='<%#((SiteMapNode)Container.DataItem).ChildNodes%>'> <HeaderTemplate><!--[if lte IE 6]><table><tr><td><![endif]--><ul class="sub"></HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li> <a href='<%#((string)Eval("Url")).Replace("~", "")%>' style="text-align: left;"><%#Eval("Title")%></a> Third repeater here? </li> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate></ul><!--[if lte IE 6]></td></tr></table></a><![endif]--></FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </li> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater>

    Read the article

  • HTC Incredible displaying blank ImageView

    - by Todd
    HI, I have an app that displays an an image in an ImageView using the setImageDrawable(Drawable) method. However, with the release of the Droid Incredible the images are coming up as a blank screen. I am using Drawable.createFromPath(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory() + "\imagefile") to access the image from the SD card. I don't get any sort of error, just a black screen. I will get a null pointer exception if after trying to load the image I try to access a property of the Drawable. This makes me believe that the Drawable wasn't loaded, but I don't know why or how to make it work. This code as been working on all other Android devices, so I'm not sure what is different with the Incredible. Unfortunately I don't have access to an Incredible to test on, so I've got to rely on others to test and send me the log files. Any help you can offer would be greatly appreciated. If anyone knows how to replicate this issue on the emulator, that would be helpful too. I've configured an emulator with firmware 7 and the correct screen resolution, but I was unable to replicate the issue. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Compare values in serialized column in Doctrine with Query Builder

    - by ReynierPM
    I'm building a FormType for a Symfony2 project but I need some Query Builder on the field since I need to compare some values with the one stored on DB and show the results. This is what I have: .... ->add('servicio', 'entity', array( 'mapped' => false, 'class' => 'ComunBundle:TipoServicio', 'property' => 'nombre', 'required' => true, 'label' => false, 'expanded' => true, 'multiple' => true, 'query_builder' => function (EntityRepository $er) { return $er->createQueryBuilder('ts') ->where('ts.tipo_usuario = (:tipo)') ->setParameter('tipo', 1); } )) .... But tipo_usuario at DB table is stored as serialized text for example: record1: value1 | a:1:{i:0;s:1:"1";} record2: value2 | a:4:{i:0;s:1:"1";i:1;s:1:"2";i:2;s:1:"3";i:3;s:1:"4";} I'll have two different forms (I don't know how to pass the Request to a form) in the first one I'll only show the first record and for the second one the first and second record for example: First form will show: checkbox: value1 Second form will show: checkbox: value1 checkbox: value2 I achieve this? Any help?

    Read the article

  • JavaEE: Question about design

    - by Harry Pham
    I have a JSF page that will create a new Comment. I have the managed bean of that page to be RequestScoped managed bean. @ManagedBean(name="PostComment") @RequestScoped public class PostComment { private Comment comment = null; @ManagedProperty(value="#{A}") private A a; //A is a ViewScoped Bean @ManagedProperty(value="#{B}") private B b; //B is a ViewScoped Bean @PostConstruct public void init(){ comment = new Comment(); } // setters and getters for comment and all the managed property variable public void postComment(String location){ //persist the new comment ... if(location.equals("A")){ //update the comment list on page A }else if(location.equals("B")){ //update the comment list on page B } } } As you can see from the code above, 2 ViewScoped bean A and B will both use method postComment(), and getter getComment() from bean PostComment. The problem I am having right now is that, if I am on A, constructor of A will load, but it will also load constructor of bean B. This make my page load twice as slow. What would be the best way to solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • Spring bean initialization in a web app

    - by EugeneP
    We work with a web application and autowire beans using WebApplicationContextUtils in the init method. Could you clarify some details about bean initialization? The question rises from the static factory method. Suppose there's a bean that is created in a static factory method. As we can see, when the web app is deployed, the ContextLoaderListener initializes all the beans present in Spring xml config file. Now happens such a thing. In the static factory method we run a timer that starts ticking. But in reality we wouldn't want it to start ticking unless the bean is injected into a property of the object ! That is question number one - all the beans are automatically initialized on deploy - correct? And after that when we need an injection, it simply feels the link with the address of the object created during initialization, though OBJECT WAS CREATED ON WEB APP DEPLOY, immediately ! (I assume the default singleton-creation Spring behavior) Second question: are all copies of a web app use the same beans, so all beans are WEB-APP wide, every Spring bean is shared between all the copies of this web app running?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 569 570 571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580  | Next Page >