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  • Entity Framework 1:1 Relationship Identity Colums

    - by Hupperware
    I cannot for the life of me get two separate tables to save with a relationship and two identity columns. I keep getting errors like A dependent property in a ReferentialConstraint is mapped to a store-generated column. Column: 'OlsTerminalId'. I can't imagine that this setup is abnormal. [DataContract] public class OlsData { private static readonly DateTime theUnixEpoch = new DateTime(1970, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, DateTimeKind.Utc); [DatabaseGenerated(DatabaseGeneratedOption.Identity)] public int OlsDataId { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "id")] public int Id { get; set; } public DateTime Timestamp { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "created")] [NotMapped] public double Created { get { return (Timestamp - theUnixEpoch).TotalMilliseconds; } set { Timestamp = theUnixEpoch.AddMilliseconds(value); } } [InverseProperty("OlsData")] [DataMember(Name = "terminal")] public virtual OlsTerminal OlsTerminal { get; set; } } [DataContract] public class OlsTerminal { [DatabaseGenerated(DatabaseGeneratedOption.Identity)] public int OlsTerminalId { get; set; } public int OlsDataId { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "account")] [NotMapped] public virtual OlsAccount OlsAccount { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "terminalId")] public string TerminalId { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "merchantId")] public string MerchantId { get; set; } public virtual OlsData OlsData { get; set; } } public class OlsDataContext : DbContext { protected override void OnModelCreating(DbModelBuilder aModelBuilder) { aModelBuilder.Conventions.Remove<PluralizingTableNameConvention>(); } public OlsDataContext(string aConnectionString) : base(aConnectionString) {} public DbSet<OlsData> OlsData { get; set; } public DbSet<OlsTerminal> OlsTerminal { get; set; } public DbSet<OlsAccount> OlsAccount { get; set; } }

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  • JVM to ignore certificate name mismatch

    - by Heavy Bytes
    I know there were a lot of questions/answers about how to ignore SSL error in the code. On our dev region dev.domain.tld we have configured a app server over SSL. The certificate that is displayed is for somedev.domain.tld. There is no way to change the certificate, it will always be a domain mismatch. So when I deploy a web-service to https://dev.domain.tld and try to connect/call my webservice I get an exception: Caused by: java.security.cert.CertificateException: No name matching dev.domain.tld found And I have the somedev.domain.tld CERT in my trust store. Now, I saw a lot of samples how to change that in the code (using a Trust Manager that accepts all domains), but how do I specify to the JVM to ignore the domain mismatch when connecting to the server? Is there a -Djavax.net.ssl argument or something? Thank you! UPDATE: Or, since I am using Spring-WS, is there a way to set some property in Spring for that? (WebServiceTemplate) UPDATE I guess I'll have to do use something from Spring Security: http://static.springsource.org/spring-ws/sites/1.5/reference/html/security.html

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  • How to call a method from another class that's been instantiated within the current class

    - by Pavan
    my screen has a few views like such __________________ | _____ | | | | | //viewX is a video screen | | | | | viewX | vY | | //viewY is a custom uiview i created. | |____| | //it contains a method which i would like to call that toggles |_________________| //the hidden property of this view. and when it hides, a little | | //button is replaced no the top right corner on top of viewX | viewZ | //the video layer | | |_________________| //viewZ is a view containing many square views - thumbnails. my question is, i dont know how to register for touch events so that it recognises any touch event on no matter which view the user touches the screen.. atm im handling the touch events for each view inside it. so all works well... however what im trying to do is that when the user taps anywhere else on the screen but on viewY, viewY should dissapear by calling that method in the viewY class. this viewY class is instantiated and has no xib file attached to it. the uiview is created progammatically in the viewY class. this whole class for viewY behviour is instantiated in viewX - the video view. my boss says add delegates.. although i have now clue how to do that... any help? is there anyway i can just make it really simple and be able to say REMOVE VIEW no matter which class im calling from? Also ive seen other people achieve this by using these funky arrows - ... <- etc.. although im not sure if thats what i need or how to implement such a thing. ah i think ive made my question quite complicated but i really mean it to be a simple one, and know it can be done in an easy way!

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  • Object mapping with LINQ and SubSonic

    - by Jeremy Seekamp
    I'm building a small project with SubSonic 3.0.0.3 ActiveRecord and I'm running into an issue I can't seem to get past. Here is the LINQ query: var result = from r in Release.All() let i = Install.All().Count(x => x.ReleaseId == r.Id) where r.ProductId == productId select new ReleaseInfo { NumberOfInstalls = i, Release = new Release { Id = r.Id, ProductId = r.ProductId, ReleaseNumber = r.ReleaseNumber, RevisionNumber = r.RevisionNumber, ReleaseDate = r.ReleaseDate, ReleasedBy = r.ReleasedBy } }; The ReleaseInfo object is a custom class and looks like this: public class ReleaseInfo { public Release Release { get; set; } public int NumberOfInstalls { get; set; } } Release and Install are classes generated by SubSonic. When I do a watch on result, the Release property is null. If I make this a simpler query and watch result, the value is not null. var result = from r in Release.All() let i = Install.All().Count(x => x.ReleaseId == r.Id) where r.ProductId == productId select new Release { Id = r.Id, ProductId = r.ProductId, ReleaseNumber = r.ReleaseNumber, RevisionNumber = r.RevisionNumber, ReleaseDate = r.ReleaseDate, ReleasedBy = r.ReleasedBy }; Is this an issue with my LINQ query or a limitation of SubSonic?

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  • How can I find the jdbc connection timeout of a hibernate session

    - by StevenWilkins
    I currently have a long running thread which uses a hibernate session to perform many updates. We currently have our c3p0 connection timeout set to 20 minutes and it's timing out sometimes because of the number of updates we're performing. The solution I have is to periodically return the connection to the pool via closing the session (we have hibernate configured this way) and get a new one. Upping the timeout is not desirable because the same pool is used for the entire application. The problem is I don't know when to return the connection to the pool because I don't know what the timeout of the connection is. I know what the current setting is in our property file, but that can be changed without my knowledge at any time so it's fragile. Having a counter and returning the connection based on the number of updates I've performed is not ideal but could be my option of last resort. I have a hibernate session, how can I retrieve the connection timeout of the jdbc connection which backs the session? Using the SessionFactory and SessionFactoryImpl classes are perfectly acceptable.

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  • How can I use multi-threading with a "for" or "foreach" loop?

    - by saafh
    I am trying to run the for loop in a separate thread so that the UI should be responsive and the progress bar is visible. The problem is that I don't know how to do that :). In this code, the process starts in a separate thread, but the next part of the code is executed at the same time. The messageBox is displayed and the results are never returned (e.g. the listbox's selected index property is never set). It doesn't work even if I use, "taskEx.delay()". TaskEx.Run(() => { for (int i = 0; i < sResults.Count(); i++) { if (sResults.ElementAt(i).DisplayIndexForSearchListBox.Trim().Contains(ayaStr)) { lstGoto.SelectedIndex = i; lstGoto_SelectionChanged(lstReadingSearchResults, null); IsIndexMatched = true; break; } } }); //TaskEx.delay(1000); if (IsIndexMatched == true) stkPanelGoto.Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; else //the index didn't match { MessagePrompt.ShowMessage("The test'" + ayaStr + "' does not exist.", "Warning!"); } Could anyone please tell me how can I use multi-threading with a "for" or "foreach" loop?

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  • Why won't my Setup Project Perform my Custom Registration Process

    - by Jordan S
    I am trying to write an Setup Project/Installer for a class library driver that I wrote in C# using Visual Studio 2008. The driver project has a section of code that looks like this... [ComRegisterFunction] public static void RegisterASCOM(Type t) { Trace.WriteLine("Registration Started."); DoRegistration(true); } In the driver project Properties - "Assembly Information" I have set checked the box that says Make COM-Visible = true. I added a Setup Project to the solution in VS, added the output dll from the driver project so that it installs on the target machine and set the Register property of the dll to "vsdraCOM". So, my understanding is that when the installer runs it SHOULD execute the methods of the dll that are marked with [COMRegisterFunction]. Using SysInternals Debug View I can monitor when the above code snippet is hit by watching for the "Registration started" text to show up in the window. When I build the solution, I can see the text show up so I know the driver is registering properly. The problem is that when I run the installer, I don't think it is doing the registration bit. I see nothing show up in Debug View. And if i try to access my driver via another application I get an error saying it "Cannot create ActiveX object". Why does the registration not occur during the install process? The driver does register for COM but it does NOT call my custom registration method. Does anyone have and suggestions of what I could be missing? Is there another way I can debug this? (I can provide more code if anyone want's to take a look!!)

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  • Avoiding mass propagation of properties and events for exposure to ViewModels.

    - by firoso
    I have an MVVM application I am developing that is to the point where I'm ready to start putting together a user interface (my client code is largely functional) I'm now running into the issue that I'm trying to get my application data to where I need it so that it can be consumed by the view model and then bound to the view. Unfortunately, it seems that I've either got a few structural oversights, or I'm just going to have to face the reality that I need to be propogating events and raising excessive amounts of errors to notify view models that thier properties have changed. Let me go into some examples of my issue: I have a class "Unit" contained in a class "Test", contained in a class "Session" contained in a class "TestManager" which is contained in "TestDataModel" which is utilized by "TestViewModel" which is databound to by my "TestView" .... WHOA. Now, consider that Unit (the bottom of the heiarchy) has a property called "Results" that is updated periodically, I want to expose that to my viewmodel and then databind it to my view, trouble is, the only way I can really think to do this is to perpetuate events WAY up a chain that say "I've been updated!" and then request the new value... This seems like an aweful way to do this. Alternatively, I could register a static event and raise it, and have the appropriate "Unit view model" grab the event and request the update. This SEEMS better... but... static events? Is that a taboo idea? Also, having an expression like: TestDataModel.TestManager.Session.Test.Unit.Results[i] Seems REALLY gross to have on a View Model. I know this all reeks of a bad design issue, but I can't figure out what I did wrong? Should I be using more singleton/container controlled lifetimes type objects? Register object instances with static helper containers? Obviously these are hard questions to answer without being intimate with the existing structure, but if you've run into situations like this, what did you do to refactor? Should I just live with this, add mass events, and propogate them?

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  • How to bring the parent element with floated child elements to the center of the document?

    - by Starx
    I have organized a menu. Its HTML is as follows: <ul class="topmenu"> <li><a href="sample.html">Text 1</a></li> <li><a href="sample.html">Text 2</a></li> <li><a href="sample.html">Text 3</a></li> <li><a href="sample.html">Text 4</a></li> <ul> This is a horizontal menu, so I have floated the list items to left to appear them in a horizontal line. I could have used display:inline to appear them in a single line, but since IE does not support it and I don't know any other way to do so, I used float:left;. It's css is: .topmenu { list-style:none; margin:0; padding:0; } .topmenu li { float:left; } This brings the menu in a perfect horizontal line, but the entire list is floated to the left. I want to bring the .topmenu to appear in the center of the document and keep the listitem inside it floated towards the left. I found that this is achievable by defining width property of the .topmenu, but I dont want to fix its width as the list-items are dynamically generated and thus could increase and decrease. Any one know of any solution?

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  • Powershell: splatting after passing hashtable by reference

    - by user1815871
    Powershell newbie ... I recently learned about splatting — very useful. I ran into a snag when I passed a hash table by reference to a function for splatting purposes. (For brevity's sake — a silly example.) Function AllMyChildren { param ( [ref]$ReferenceToHash } get-childitem @ReferenceToHash.Value # etc.etc. } $MyHash = @{ 'path' = '*' 'include' = '*.ps1' 'name' = $null } AllMyChildren ([ref]$MyHash) Result: an error ("Splatted variables cannot be used as part of a property or array expression. Assign the result of the expression to a temporary variable then splat the temporary variable instead."). Tried this afterward: $newVariable = $ReferenceToHash.Value get-childitem @NewVariable That did work and seemed right per the error message. But: is it the preferred syntax in a case like this? (An oh, look, it actually worked solution isn't always a best practice. My approach here strikes me as "Perl-minded" and perhaps in Powershell passing by value is better, though I don't yet know the syntax for it w.r.t. a hash table.)

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  • How to format individual DropDownlist Items (color, etc.) during onDataBinding event

    - by LesterDove
    Hi, I have a basic DropDownList bound to a ObjectDataSource: <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownList1" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" DataSourceID="objDataSource1" DataTextField="FieldName" DataValueField="FieldID" /> The DataTable from which it receives the DataTextField and DataValueField values also returns some other interesting information about the records. Say Active = Y/N for simplicity's sake. What I'd like to do is to set the background-color property of the DropDownList Item based on that Active field in the DataSource results. Further, I'd like to do this "in the same pass" as when the DropDownList is bound to the data. So my guess is that it has to happen during OnDataBinding. Things I already know/tried: I could go back and loop through the DropDownList items later. But it would involve embedding loops and re-visiting the DataTable rows and it just seems inefficient int row; for (row = 0; row < DropDownList1.Items.Count - 1; row++) { [[if this row = that data row]] DropDownList1.Items[row].[[DoStuffHere, etc.]] } We already do stuff like this with the GridView OnRowDataBound event, by accessing the GridViewRowEventArgs e. What I seem to be missing is an "OnDropDownListItemBound" event, so to speak. Hope I've been clear and concise. Seems as though it should be easy...

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  • Django filters - Using an AllValuesFilter (with a LinkWidget) on a ManyToManyField

    - by magnetix
    This is my first Stack Overflow question, so please let me know if I do anything wrong. I wish to create an AllValues filter on a ManyToMany field using the wonderful django-filters application. Basically, I want to create a filter that looks like it does in the Admin, so I also want to use the LinkWidget too. Unfortunately, I get an error (Invalid field name: 'operator') if I try this the standard way: # Models class Organisation(models.Model): name = models.CharField() ... class Sign(models.Model): name = models.CharField() operator = models.ManyToManyField('Organisation', blank=True) ... # Filter class SignFilter(LinkOrderFilterSet): operator = django_filters.AllValuesFilter(widget=django_filters.widgets.LinkWidget) class Meta: model = Sign fields = ['operator'] I got around this by creating my own filter with the many to many relationship hard coded: # Models class Organisation(models.Model): name = models.CharField() ... class Sign(models.Model): name = models.CharField() operator = models.ManyToManyField('Organisation', blank=True) ... # Filter class MyFilter(django_filters.ChoiceFilter): @property def field(self): cd = {} for row in self.model.objects.all(): orgs = row.operator.select_related().values() for org in orgs: cd[org['id']] = org['name'] choices = zip(cd.keys(), cd.values()) list.sort(choices, key=lambda x:(x[1], x[0])) self.extra['choices'] = choices return super(AllValuesFilter, self).field class SignFilter(LinkOrderFilterSet): operator = MyFilter(widget=django_filters.widgets.LinkWidget) I am new to Python and Django. Can someone think of a more generic/elegant way of doing this?

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  • can I add properties to a typo3 extbase domain model object?

    - by The Newbie Qs
    I want to store a username in a coupon object, each coupon object already has the uid of the user who created it. I can loop over the coupon objects and read the associated usernames from fe_users but how then will I save those usernames into the coupons so when they are passed to the template the usernames can be read like so coupon.username, or in some other easy way so each username will appear on the page with the right coupon as they are all printed out in a table? If I was doing basic php instead of typo3 i would just define a query but what is the typo3 v4.5 way? My code so far - which dies on the line where I try to assign the new property --creatorname -- to the $coup object. public function listAction() { $coupons = $this->couponRepository->findAll(); // @var Tx_Extbase_Domain_Repository_FrontendUserRepository $userRepository */ $userRepository = $this->objectManager->get("Tx_Extbase_Domain_Repository_FrontendUserRepository"); foreach ($coupons as $coup) { echo '<br />test '.$coup->getCreator(); echo '<br />count = '.$userRepository->countAll().'<br />'; $newObject = $userRepository->findByUid( intval($coup->getCreator())); //var_dump($newObject); var_dump($coup); echo '<br />getUsername '.$newObject->getUsername() ; $coup['creatorname'] = $newObject->getUsername(); echo '<br />creatorname '.$coup['creatorname'] ; } $this->view->assign('coupons', $coupons); }

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  • Does XAML work with file links in Visual Studio?

    - by Tim
    I'm adding a new WPF project to an existing Visual Studio solution and would like to reuse a bunch of code (C# and xaml) from an existing project within the solution. I've created the new project and added existing files as follows: Right click project Add - Add Existing Item Find the file to reuse, use the arrow next to "Add" and "Add as Link" I now have a nice project set up with all the proper links. However, XAML chokes on these links. For example: <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Resources\Elements\Buttons\Buttons.xaml" /> <ResourceDictionary Source="Resources\Elements\TextBox\TextBox.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> The files "Buttons.xaml" and "TextBox.xaml" exist as links in my new project. The project builds, but when I run, I get the following XamlParseException: 'Resources\Elements\Buttons\Buttons.xaml' value cannot be assigned to property 'Source' of object 'System.Windows.ResourceDictionary'. Cannot locate resource 'resources/elements/buttons/buttons.xaml'. It seems like the XAML parser is requiring an actual copy of these XAML files to exist in my new project, instead of links. This is exactly what I'm trying to avoid. I want my project to share these files so that any changes get transferred to the other project without hunting and copying. Any insight is appreciated!

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  • Use properties or methods to expose business rules in C#?

    - by Val
    I'm writing a class to encapsulate some business rules, each of which is represented by a boolean value. The class will be used in processing an InfoPath form, so the rules get the current program state by looking up values in a global XML data structure using XPath operations. What's the best (most idiomatic) way to expose these rules to callers -- properties or public methods? Call using properties Rules rules = new Rules(); if ( rules.ProjectRequiresApproval ) { // get approval } else { // skip approval } Call using methods Rules rules = new Rules(); if ( rules.ProjectRequiresApproval() ) { // get approval } else { // skip approval } Rules class exposing rules as properties public class Rules() { private int _amount; private int threshold = 100; public Rules() { _amount = someExpensiveXpathOperation; } // rule property public bool ProjectRequiresApproval { get { return _amount < threshold } } } Rules class exposing rules as methods public class Rules() { private int _amount; private int threshold = 100; public Rules() { _amount = someExpensiveXpathOperation; } // rule method public bool ProjectRequiresApproval() { return _amount < threshold; } } What are the pros and cons of one over the other?

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  • What's a good way to provide additional decoration/metadata for Python function parameters?

    - by Will Dean
    We're considering using Python (IronPython, but I don't think that's relevant) to provide a sort of 'macro' support for another application, which controls a piece of equipment. We'd like to write fairly simple functions in Python, which take a few arguments - these would be things like times and temperatures and positions. Different functions would take different arguments, and the main application would contain user interface (something like a property grid) which allows the users to provide values for the Python function arguments. So, for example function1 might take a time and a temperature, and function2 might take a position and a couple of times. We'd like to be able to dynamically build the user interface from the Python code. Things which are easy to do are to find a list of functions in a module, and (using inspect.getargspec) to get a list of arguments to each function. However, just a list of argument names is not really enough - ideally we'd like to be able to include some more information about each argument - for instance, it's 'type' (high-level type - time, temperature, etc, not language-level type), and perhaps a 'friendly name' or description. So, the question is, what are good 'pythonic' ways of adding this sort of information to a function. The two possibilities I have thought of are: Use a strict naming convention for arguments, and then infer stuff about them from their names (fetched using getargspec) Invent our own docstring meta-language (could be little more than CSV) and use the docstring for our metadata. Because Python seems pretty popular for building scripting into large apps, I imagine this is a solved problem with some common conventions, but I haven't been able to find them.

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  • UIImagePickerController crashes on rapid scrolling, slower than photos app

    - by vvanhee
    Most of the time, my image picker works perfectly (iOS 4.2.1). However, if I scroll very rapidly up and down about 4-6 times through my camera roll of about 300 photos, I get a crash. This never happens with the "photos" app on the same iPhone 3Gs. Also, I'm noticing that the stock "photos" app scrolls much more smoothly than my image picker. Has anyone else noticed this behavior? I'd be interested if others could attempt this in their own apps and see if they crash. I don't think it's related to other objects hogging memory on my iPhone because it's a simple app, and this happens right after I start the app. It also doesn't seem to be related to messages sent to other released objects or overreleasing of other objects in viewdidunload, based on my crash logs and the fact that the simulator responds well to simulated memory warnings. I think it might be a bug in the internal implementation of the UIImagePickerController... This is how I start the picker. I've done this multiple ways (including setting a retain property for the UIImagePickerController in my header and releasing on dealloc). This seems to be the best way (crashes least): UIImagePickerController *picker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; picker.delegate = self; picker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeSavedPhotosAlbum; picker.allowsEditing = YES; [self presentModalViewController:picker animated:YES]; [picker release]; This is the crashed thread (I get various exception types): Exception Type: SIGSEGV Exception Codes: SEGV_ACCERR at 0xfffffffff4faafa4 Crashed Thread: 8 ... Thread 8 Crashed: 0 CoreFoundation 0x000494ea -[__NSArrayM replaceObjectAtIndex:withObject:] + 98 1 PhotoLibrary 0x00008e0f -[PLImageTable _segmentAtIndex:] + 527 2 PhotoLibrary 0x00008a21 -[PLImageTable _mappedImageDataAtIndex:] + 221 3 PhotoLibrary 0x0000893f -[PLImageTable dataForEntryAtIndex:] + 15 4 PhotoLibrary 0x000087e7 PLThumbnailManagerImageDataAtIndex + 35 5 PhotoLibrary 0x00008413 -[PLThumbnailManager _dataForPhoto:format:width:height:bytesPerRow:dataWidth:dataHeight:imageDataOffset:imageDataFormat:preheat:] + 299 6 PhotoLibrary 0x000b6c13 __-[PLThumbnailManager preheatImageDataForImages:withFormat:]_block_invoke_1 + 159 7 libSystem.B.dylib 0x000d6680 _dispatch_call_block_and_release + 20 8 libSystem.B.dylib 0x000d6ba0 _dispatch_worker_thread2 + 128 9 libSystem.B.dylib 0x0007b251 _pthread_wqthread + 265

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  • .Net in HTML tp return true if reader object not null, otherwise return false

    - by Phill Healey
    I'm using a DataList to show some data from the database and populating the fields on the html side. I now have a requirement to change the visibility of a panel based on whether or not a db field has data or not. I need to be able to show the panel if the relevant data field has content, and hide it if it doesn't. Eg: <asp:Panel ID="pnlNew" runat="server" Style="margin:0; padding:0; width:42px; height:18px; bottom:5px; right:10px; float:right; position:relative; background:url(../_imgVideoBadge.png) no-repeat;" Visible='<%# Eval("cheese") != null %>' ToolTip="available"></asp:Panel> Obviously this doesn't work in terms of the visible property. But hopefully it gives an idea of what I'm trying to achieve. Any help would be greatly appreciated. I've seen examples previously of doing something along the lines of: a ?? b:c How could this be applied to the above requirement?? Thanks in advance.

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  • ASP.NET MVC4: How do I keep from having multiple identical results in my lookup tables

    - by sehummel
    I'm new to ASP.NET so this may be an easy question. I'm seeding my database with several rows of dummy data. Here is one of my rows: new Software { Title = "Microsoft Office", Version = "2012", SerialNumber = "12346231434543", Platform = "PC", Notes = "Macs really rock!", PurchaseDate = "2011-12-04", Suite = true, SubscriptionEndDate = null, SeatCount = 0, SoftwareTypes = new List<SoftwareType> { new SoftwareType { Type="Suite" }}, Locations = new List<Location> { new Location { LocationName = "Paradise" }}, Publishers = new List<SoftwarePublisher> { new SoftwarePublisher { Publisher = "Microsoft" }}} But when I do this, a new row is created for each location, with the LocationName being set in each row like this. We only have two locations. How do I get it to create a LocationID property for the Software class and in my Locations class. Here is my Location class: public class Location { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(20)] public string LocationName { get; set; } public virtual Software Software { get; set; } } I have this line in my Software class to reference this table: public virtual List<Location> Locations { get; set; } Again, what I want when I am done is a Locations table with two entries, and a LocationID field in my Software table. How do I do this?

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  • Can I get the item type from a BindingSource?

    - by Preston
    I would like to get the Type of item that a BindingSource is hooked up to or configured for. The BindingSource.DataSource property can be set to an object, list, or type. If it is a Type, it obviously does not have an bound item yet, but I would still like to get the Type. For a List, I need the item Type, not the list type. There is a method BindingSource.GetItemProperties, that accomplishes most of what I need. It gets the PropertyDescriptors for the Type, list item, or object specified by the DataSource and DataMember. The reason I ask, is that I have some components that I would like to re-use, but they are currently setup to work off of an item Type. The Type is mainly used to get PropertyInfos and then build a UI, but PropertyInfo and PropertyDescriptor is not exactly the same, so it is not immediately apparent that they can be reworked to use a PropertyDescriptor collection instead. Then there is cascading refactoring of everything already using these components and that adds up to a lot of work that I would rather not do. I've looked through the API docs for for a good way to do this, but so far I have not had any luck. Am I missing something or is this just something I can not or should not be doing?

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  • Protecting critical sections based on a condition in C#

    - by NAADEV
    Hello, I'm dealing with a courious scenario. I'm using EntityFramework to save (insert/update) into a SQL database in a multithreaded environment. The problem is i need to access database to see whether a register with a particular key has been already created in order to set a field value (executing) or it's new to set a different value (pending). Those registers are identified by a unique guid. I've solved this problem by setting a lock since i do know entity will not be present in any other process, in other words, i will not have same guid in different processes and it seems to be working fine. It looks something like that: static readonly object LockableObject = new object(); static void SaveElement(Entity e) { lock(LockableObject) { Entity e2 = Repository.FindByKey(e); if (e2 != null) { Repository.Insert(e2); } else { Repository.Update(e2); } } } But this implies when i have a huge ammount of requests to be saved, they will be queued. I wonder if there is something like that (please, take it just as an idea): static void SaveElement(Entity e) { (using ThisWouldBeAClassToProtectBasedOnACondition protector = new ThisWouldBeAClassToProtectBasedOnACondition(e => e.UniqueId) { Entity e2 = Repository.FindByKey(e); if (e2 != null) { Repository.Insert(e2); } else { Repository.Update(e2); } } } The idea would be having a kind of protection that protected based on a condition so each entity e would have its own lock based on e.UniqueId property. Any idea?

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  • Why pseudo-elements :before and :after appear in front of my DIV element and not behind?

    - by Dim13i
    I have a DIV element with this given class: .slideshow { background: white; width: 700px; height: 300px; padding:10px; margin: 0 auto; position: relative; box-shadow: 0px 0px 5px grey, 0px 10px 20px rgba(0,0,0,.1) inset; } I define those two pseudo-elements (:before and :after): .slideshow:before, .slideshow:after { content: " "; background: green; width: 50%; height: 50%; position: absolute; z-index: -10; } My problem is that those two pseudo-elements appear in front of my DIV and not behind. Is there any specific reason for this behaviour? Here is an example: EXAMPLE The Javascript part is a bit messy but i'm still working on it. Also I've noticed that if I delete all the JS part I don't have anymore this problem, but I don't think there is anything in the code that should modify the slideshow DIV SOLVED: The problem is in the javascript part where I have: $('.slideshow').css('-webkit-transform', 'rotate(0deg)'); Removing this line solved the problem. I guess that pseudo-elements :before and :after are not compatible with the property transform.

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  • How do I wait for a C# event to be raised?

    - by Evan Barkley
    I have a Sender class that sends a Message on a IChannel: public class MessageEventArgs : EventArgs { public Message Message { get; private set; } public MessageEventArgs(Message m) { Message = m; } } public interface IChannel { public event EventHandler<MessageEventArgs> MessageReceived; void Send(Message m); } public class Sender { public const int MaxWaitInMs = 5000; private IChannel _c = ...; public Message Send(Message m) { _c.Send(m); // wait for MaxWaitInMs to get an event from _c.MessageReceived // return the message or null if no message was received in response } } When we send messages, the IChannel sometimes gives a response depending on what kind of Message was sent by raising the MessageReceived event. The event arguments contain the message of interest. I want Sender.Send() method to wait for a short time to see if this event is raised. If so, I'll return its MessageEventArgs.Message property. If not, I return a null Message. How can I wait in this way? I'd prefer not to have do the threading legwork with ManualResetEvents and such, so sticking to regular events would be optimal for me.

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  • Most awkward/misleading method in Java Base API ?

    - by JG
    I was recently trying to convert a string literal into a boolean, when the method "boolean Boolean.getBoolean(String name)" popped out of the auto-complete window. There was also another method ("boolean Boolean.parseBoolean(String s)") appearing right after, which lead me to search to find out what were the differences between these two, as they both seemed to do the same. It turns out that what Boolean.getBoolean(String name) really does is to check if there exists a System property (!) of the given name and if its value is true. I think this is very misleading, as I'm definitely not expecting that a method of Boolean is actually making a call to System.getProperty, and just by looking at the method signature, it sure looks (at least to me) like it should be used to parse a String as a boolean. Sure, the javadoc states it clearly, but I still think the method has a misleading name and is not in the right place. Other primitive type wrappers, such as Integer also have a similar method. Also, it doesn't seem to be a very useful method to belong in the base API, as I think it's not very common to have something like -Darg=true. Maybe it's a good question for a Java position interview: "What is the output of Boolean.getBoolean("true")?". I believe a more appropriate place for those methods would be in the System class, e.g., getPropertyAsBoolean; but again, I still think it's unnecessary to have these methods in the base API. It'd make sense to have these in something like the Properties class, where it's very common to do this kind of type conversions. What do you think of all this ? Also, if there's another "awkward" method that you're aware of, please post it. N.B. I know I can use Boolean.valueOf or Boolean.parseBoolean to convert a string literal into a boolean, but I'm just looking to discuss the API design.

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  • Defining and using controller methods in ember.js

    - by OriginalEXE
    first of all, I am total noob when it comes to OOP in JS, this is new to me so treat me like a noob. I am building my first ember.js application and I am stuck (not the first time but I would get unstuck by myself, this is a tough one though). I have two models: forms entries Entries is of course in (one to many) relationship to forms, so each form can have as many properties. Form properties: id : DS.attr( 'number' ), title : DS.attr( 'string' ), views : DS.attr( 'number' ), conversion : DS.attr( 'number' ), entries : DS.hasMany( 'entry' ) Entry properties: id : DS.attr( 'number' ), parent_id: DS.belongsTo( 'form' ) Now, I have forms route that displays all forms in tabled view, and each table row has some info like form id, name etc. and that works great. What I wanted to do is display the number of entries each form has. I figured I should do that via controller, so here is my controller now: // Form controller App.FormController = Ember.ObjectController.extend({ entriescount: function() { var entries = this.get( 'store').find( 'entry' ); return entries.filterBy( 'parent_id', this.get( 'id' ) ).get( 'length' ); }.property( '[email protected]_id') }); Now for some reason, when I use {{entriescount}} in {{#each}} loop, this returns nothing. It also returns nothing in single form route. Note that in both cases, {{title}} for example works. I am wondering, am I going the right way by using controller for this, and how do I get controller to output the data. Thanks

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