Search Results

Search found 16162 results on 647 pages for 'property attribute'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 588/647 | < Previous Page | 584 585 586 587 588 589 590 591 592 593 594 595  | Next Page >

  • Query decendants in XML to Linq

    - by Gordon
    I have the following xml data: <portfolio> <item> <title>Site</title> <description>Site.com is a </description> <url>http://www.site.com</url> <photos> <photo url="http://www.site.com/site/thumbnail.png" thumbnail="true" description="Main" /> <photo url="http://www.site.com/site/1.png" thumbnail="false" description="Main" /> </photos> </item> </portfolio> In c# I am using the following link query: List list = new List(); XDocument xmlDoc = XDocument.Load(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~/app_data/portfolio.xml")); list = (from portfolio in xmlDoc.Descendants("item") select new PortfolioItem() { Title = portfolio.Element("title").Value, Description = portfolio.Element("description").Value, Url = portfolio.Element("url").Value }).ToList(); How do I go about querying the photos node? In the PortfolioItem class I have a property: List Photos {get;set;} Any ideas would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • How to set the ActiveMQ redeliveryPolicy on a queue?

    - by edbras
    How do I set the redeliveryPolicy in ActiveMQ on a Queue? 1) In the doc, see: activeMQ Redelivery, the explain that you should set it on the ConnectionFactory or Connection. But I want to use different value's for different Queue's. 2) Apart from that, I don't seem to get it work. Setting it on the connection factory in Spring (I am using activemq 5.4.2. with Spring 3.0) like this don't seem to have any effect: <amq:connectionFactory id="amqConnectionFactory" brokerURL="${jms.factory.url}" > <amq:properties> <amq:redeliveryPolicy maximumRedeliveries="6" initialRedeliveryDelay="15000" useExponentialBackOff="true" backOffMultiplier="5"/> </amq:properties> </amq:connectionFactory> I also tried to set it as property on the defined Queue, but that also seem to be ignored as the redelivery occurs sooner that the defined values: <amq:queue id="jmsQueueDeclarationSnd" physicalName="${jms.queue.declaration.snd}" > <amq:properties> <amq:redeliveryPolicy maximumRedeliveries="6" initialRedeliveryDelay="15000" useExponentialBackOff="true" backOffMultiplier="5"/> </amq:properties> </amq:queue> Thanks

    Read the article

  • LinQ optimization

    - by Budda
    Here is a peace of code: void MyFunc(List<MyObj> objects) { MyFunc1(objects); foreach( MyObj obj in objects.Where(obj1=>obj1.Good)) { // Do Action With Good Object } } void MyFunc1(List<MyObj> objects) { int iGoodCount = objects.Where(obj1=>obj1.Good).Count(); BeHappy(iGoodCount); // do other stuff with 'objects' collection } Here we see that collection is analyzed twice and each time the value of 'Good' property is checked for each member: 1st time when calculating count of good objects, 2nd - when iterating through all good objects. It is desirable to have that optimized, and here is a straightforward solution: before call to MyFunc1 makecreate an additional temporary collection of good objects only (goodObjects, it can be IEnumerable); get count of these objects and pass it as an additional parameter to MyFunc1; in the 'MyFunc' method iterate not through 'objects.Where(...)' but through the 'goodObjects' collection. Not too bad approach (as far as I see), but additional parameter is required to be passed. Question: is there any LinQ out-of-the-box functionality that allows any caching during 1st Where().Count(), remembering a processed collection and use it in the next iteration? Any thoughts are welcome. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Unable to `submit()` an html form after intercepting the submit with javascript.

    - by Ross Rogers
    I'm trying to intercept the submission of a form in order to change the value of my keywords label. I have the following code: <HTML> <FORM name="searchForm" method="get" action="tmp.html" > <input type="label" name="keywords" /> <input type="button" name="submit" value="submit" onclick="formIntercept();"/> </FORM> <SCRIPT language="JavaScript"> document.searchForm.keywords.focus(); function formIntercept( ) { var f = document.forms['searchForm']; f.keywords.value = 'boo'; f.submit(); }; </SCRIPT> </HTML> When I run this in chrome and click the submit button the keywords label changes to boo, but the javascript console says: Uncaught TypeError: Property 'submit' of object <#an HtmlFormElement> is not a function. How can I submit the form with the manipulated keywords?

    Read the article

  • images not showing up in tab body on class change in IE

    - by user347352
    I can't get any images to show up when I'm using IE with these makeshift tabs I made, everything shows up and space is allocated for the image but the image doesn't show up when I change the class. I'm using the css property visiblity to make it work. function findJournalId(d){ var parent=jQuery(d).parent(); while(!parent.hasClass("journal-content-article")) { parent=parent.parent(); } var parentID=parent.attr("id"); var ret="#"+parentID.replace(/(:|\.)/g,"\\$1"); return ret; };/*]]>*/ </script> </head> <body> <div class="journal-content-article" id="article_66742_350610_1.0"> <ul id="newsTabs"> <li class="tab"> <a class="1">first tab</a> </li> <li class="tab"> <a class="2">second tab</a> </li> <li class="tab"> <a class="3">third tab</a> </li> </ul> <div class="news 1"> This is the first portlet <img width="200px" src="banner head.jpg" /> </div> <div class="news 2"> what up 2 </div> <div class="news 3"> hello 3 </div>

    Read the article

  • Defining implicit and explicit casts for C# interfaces

    - by ehdv
    Is there a way to write interface-based code (i.e. using interfaces rather than classes as the types accepted and passed around) in C# without giving up the use of things like implicit casts? Here's some sample code - there's been a lot removed, but these are the relevant portions. public class Game { public class VariantInfo { public string Language { get; set; } public string Variant { get; set; } } } And in ScrDictionary.cs, we have... public class ScrDictionary: IScrDictionary { public string Language { get; set; } public string Variant { get; set; } public static implicit operator Game.VariantInfo(ScrDictionary s) { return new Game.VariantInfo{Language=sd.Language, Variant=sd.Variant}; } } And the interface... public interface IScrDictionary { string Language { get; set; } string Variant { get; set; } } I want to be able to use IScrDictionary instead of ScrDictionary, but still be able to implicitly convert a ScrDictionary to a Game.VariantInfo. Also, while there may be an easy way to make this work by giving IScrDictionary a property of type Game.VariantInfo my question is more generally: Is there a way to define casts or operator overloading on interfaces? (If not, what is the proper C# way to maintain this functionality without giving up interface-oriented design?)

    Read the article

  • [C#] How do I make hierarchy of objects from two alternating classes?

    - by Millicent
    Here's the scenario: I have two classes ("Page" and "Field"), that are descended from a common class ("Pield"). They represent tags in an XML file and are in the following hierarchy: <page> <field> <page> ... </page> ... </field> ... </page> I.e.: Page and Field objects are in a hierarchy of alternating type (there may be more than one Page or Field to each rung of the hierarchy). Every Field and Page object has a parent property, which points to the respective parent object of the other type. This is not a problem unless the parent-child mechanism is controlled by the base class (Pield), which is shared by the two descended classes (Page and Field). Here is one try, that fails at the line "Pield child = new Pield(pchild, this);": class Pield<T> { private T _pield_parent; ... private void get_children() { ... Pield<Page> child = new Pield<Page>(pchild, this); ... } ... } class Page : Pield<Field> { ... } class Field : Pield<Page> { ... } Any ideas about how to solve this elegantly? Best, Millicent

    Read the article

  • Syncing objects between two devices with different system times

    - by Mike Weller
    Hi there. I'm syncing objects between two devices. Objects have a lastModified property. If both devices have modified an object, then during the next sync the version of the object with the most recent lastModified is chosen on both devices. So we don't do fine-grained merging, only 'most recent version' merging. The problem is this. When one device receives a list of changed objects it can't reliably compare the lastModified of received objects to its own because the system times on the two devices may be different. I considered having each device send its current date/time during the sync. Then each calculates the difference between the remote time and the local time to compare the dates properly. But if there is lag between sending a date and the remote device receiving it, this causes incorrect comparisons with objects that were modified at the same time (or very close together in time). i.e. both devices think the remote object is newer and they end up with different objects. I hope I have explained this clearly enough. There must be a common solution to this kind of problem but my brain isn't coming up with anything. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • Yii 'limit' on related model's scope

    - by pethee
    I have a model called Guesses that has_many Comments. I'm making eager queries to this to then pass on as JSON as response to an API call. The relations are obviously set between the two models and they are correct(one2many <= belongs2) I added a scope to Comments called 'api' like this: public function scopes() { return array( 'api' => array( 'select' => 'id, comment, date', 'limit'=>3, 'order'=>'date DESC', 'together'=>true, ), ); } And I'm running the following one-liner query: $data = Guesses::model()->with('comments:api')->findAll(); The issue here is that when calling the 'api' scope using a with('relation'), the limit property simply doesn't apply. I added the 'together'=true there for another type of scope, plus I hear it might help. It doesn't make a difference. I don't need all the comments of all Guesses. I want the top 3 (or 5). I am also trying to keep the one-liner call intact and simple, manage everything through scopes, relations and parameterized functions so that the API call itself is clean and simple. Any advice?

    Read the article

  • Javascript, problem with binding an event to a div-tag

    - by Patrick
    Hello, i am trying to bind an event to a dynamically created div. function GameField(playerNumber) { this.fields = new Array(); this.player = playerNumber; this.isPlayerActive = false; this.currentRound = 0; } GameField.prototype.InitField = function(fieldNumber) { var newField = document.createElement("div"); if (fieldNumber == 0 || fieldNumber == 6 || fieldNumber == 8 || fieldNumber == 17) newField.className = 'gameCellSmall borderFull gameText gameTextAlign'; else newField.className = 'gameCellSmall borderWithoutTop gameText gameTextAlign'; newField.onclick = function() { this.DivClick('a'); } this.fields[fieldNumber] = newField; return newField; } GameField.prototype.DivClick = function(fieldNumber) { alert('Nummer: ' + fieldNumber); } Everything works perfectly, but when you click on one of the created divs, i end up with the following error message: Error: Object doesn't support this property or method. If i replace the onclick function with this, then it works: newField.onclick = function() { alert('Nummer: ' + fieldNumber); } How can i get the onclick event to fire my DivClick function instead?

    Read the article

  • WPF Calling a custom command on a custom control (from a viewmodel?)

    - by user190615
    I want to take a snap of the visual tree of a custom wpf control when the user clicks a button in a toolbar. The control is bound to a viewmodel. I have a BitmapSource dp in the custom control holding the snapped image which is bound to a property on my VM. The BitmapSource dp on the control is updated via a custom command on the control. I've tied the toolbar button's command to call the controls command which updates the BitmapSource. Now the problem is the end result I want is when the user clicks the button, the control updates its image and then the vm offers to save this image. I cant wrap my mind around an mvvm way of doing this. One inelegant solution is that control fires an event after the image is updated which is routed to the viewmodel as a command(command behavior) but then if i want to do something else with the image on some other button click, all the commands bound to the events will fire. All thoughts appreciated. EDIT The command on the control is a RoutedCommand and the commands in my vm are Prism delegate commands.

    Read the article

  • Problems setting vertical scrollbar value in a datagrid (old one, not the better DataGridView).

    - by user365581
    I need to save the selected row and the vertical scrollBar's position after a refresh. This is how I do it: int currRow = myGrid.CurrentRowIndex; int vScrollPos = ((ScrollBar)myGrid.Controls[1]).Value // some code that refreshes the data among other things myGrid.CurrentRowIndex = currRow; // this sets the property myGrid.Select(currRow); // this selects in UI (both commands required) ((ScrollBar)myGrid.Controls[1]).Value = vScrollPos; Here's my problem: The grid always jumps to a place where the selected row is at the bottom. setting the current row makes it happen - similar to EnsureVisible of newer grid implementations. But after that there's the vScrollBar repositioning - and it just doesn't work right. In debug I see that the scroll bar value gets updated. In the UI, if I hit the down/up arrow on the scrollbar it suddenly jumps to the right place - But if I don't click anything the grid is just in the wrong position. I tried refreshing the grid/scroll bar to force a redraw, but it doesn't help. The actual grid position is just not in sync with the vertical ScrollBar's value. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Share variable across site ASP.NET

    - by Anders
    I have a class isSearching with a single boolean property in a 'functions' file in my webapp. On my search page, I have a variable oSearchHandler declared as a Public Shared variable. How can I access the contents of oSearchHandler on other pages in my webapp? Code with Session.... 'search.aspx Public Function oSearchString(ByVal oTextBoxName As String) As String For Each oKey As String In Request.Form.AllKeys If oKey.Contains(oTextBoxName) Then Session.Add("searching", True) Session.Add("search-term", Request.Form(oKey)) Return Request.Form(oKey) End If Next Return "" End Function 'theMaster.master <% If Session("searching") Then %><ul style="float: right;"> <li> <div class="gsSearch"> <asp:TextBox ID="searchbox" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </div> </li> <li> <div class="gsSearch"> <asp:Button ID="searchbutton" runat="server" Text="search" UseSubmitBehavior="true" PostBackUrl="search.aspx" CssClass="searchBtn" /> </div> </li> </ul> <% End If %> I think that the session will work just fine.

    Read the article

  • SQL Trigger Need to set x from a value

    - by Eric
    Im stuck on a the type of trigger needed to for this constraint. I will have a price and a commission. The price determines the commission amount, < 100 - 4%, < 200 - 5% etc. My idea. the database contains a separate table that will hold 4 price values , 101, 201, 401, 601, with their own matching comission %, this will be called PC. When i create a property listing i want to calculate the commission they earn depending on the price entered. on insert, i need to check the new.price and compare it to the prices in PC. Once new.price is less than the price tuple, i set the price to that commission value create or replace TRIGGER findCommission BEFORE INSERT OR UPDATE ON HASLISTING FOR each ROW BEGIN IF (:NEW.ASKING_PRICE < 100001) THEN :NEW.COMMISSION = 6.0; END IF; IF (:NEW.ASKING_PRICE < 250001) THEN :NEW.COMMISSION = 5.5; END IF; IF (:NEW.ASKING_PRICE < 1000001) THEN :NEW.COMMISSION = 5.0; END IF; IF (:NEW.ASKING_PRICE > 1000000) THEN :NEW.COMMISSION = 4.0; END IF; END;

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET 'Check all checkboxes' control

    - by RUiHAO
    I am using visual studio 2005 c#, and doing server side coding. I have a list of checkboxes in my gridview via checkbox template. I have tried to assign a checkbox in my header template, and assigned a checkbox_checkchange method to make it such that when the checkbox at the header is checked, the list of checkboxes in the template will be checked as well. However, it does not work and I am not able to spot the mistake. Below is my code for my checkbox in header template: protected void CheckAllCB_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { CheckBox chk = (CheckBox)GridView1.HeaderRow.FindControl("CheckAll"); if (chk.Checked) { for (int i = 0; i < GridView1.Rows.Count; i++) { CheckBox chkrow = (CheckBox)GridView1.Rows[i].FindControl("UserSelector"); chkrow.Checked = true; } } else { for (int i = 0; i < GridView1.Rows.Count; i++) { CheckBox chkrow = (CheckBox)GridView1.Rows[i].FindControl("UserSelector"); chkrow.Checked = false; } } } Thus I tried using a button to assign the checkall command instead. However, when I clicked on the button, the page does nothing but just refreshes itself. Below is my code for the checkall and uncheckall button: private void ToggleCheckState(bool checkState) { // Iterate through the Products.Rows property foreach (GridViewRow row in GridView1.Rows) { // Access the CheckBox CheckBox cb = (CheckBox)row.FindControl("UserSelector"); if (cb != null) cb.Checked = checkState; } } protected void CheckAll_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { ToggleCheckState(true); } protected void UncheckAll_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { ToggleCheckState(false); } Anyone can help me identify the mistake I did in my method? Thank you UserSelection GridView template:

    Read the article

  • JS best practice for member functions

    - by MickMalone1983
    I'm writing a little mobile games library, and I'm not sure the best practice for declaring member functions of instantiated function objects. For instance, I might create a simple object with one property, and a method to print it: function Foo(id){ this.id = id; this.print = function(){ console.log(this.id); }; }; However, a function which does not need access to 'private' members of the function does not need to be declared in the function at all. I could equally have written: function print(){ console.log(this.id); }; function Foo(id){ this.id = id; this.print = print; }; When the function is invoked through an instance of Foo, the instance becomes the context for this, so the output is the same in either case. I'm not entirely sure how memory is allocated with JS, and I can't find anything that I can understand about something this specific, but it seems to me that with the first example all members of Foo, including the print function, are duplicated each time it is instantiated - but with the second, it just gets a pointer to one, pre-declared function, which would save any more memory having to be allocated as more instances of Foo are created. Am I correct, and if I am, is there any memory/performance benefit to doing this?

    Read the article

  • Django - Problem with models/manager to organise a query...

    - by user296644
    Hi, I have an application to count the number of access to an object for each website in a same database. class SimpleHit(models.Model): """ Hit is the hit counter of a given object """ content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField() content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey('content_type', 'object_id') site = models.ForeignKey(Site) hits_total = models.PositiveIntegerField(default=0, blank=True) [...] class SimpleHitManager(models.Manager): def get_query_set(self): print self.model._meta.fields qset = super(SimpleHitManager, self).get_query_set() qset = qset.filter(hits__site=settings.SITE_ID) return qset class SimpleHitBase(models.Model): hits = generic.GenericRelation(SimpleHit) objects = SimpleHitManager() _hits = None def _db_get_hits(self, only=None): if self._hits == None: try: self._hits = self.hits.get(site=settings.SITE_ID) except SimpleHit.DoesNotExist: self._hits = SimpleHit() return self._hits @property def hits_total(self): return self._db_get_hits().hits_total [...] class Meta: abstract = True And I have a model like: class Model(SimpleHitBase): name = models.CharField(max_length=255) url = models.CharField(max_length=255) rss = models.CharField(max_length=255) creation = AutoNowAddDateTimeField() update = AutoNowDateTimeField() So, my problem is this one: when I call Model.objects.all(), I would like to have one request for the SQL (not two). In this case: one for Model in order to have information and one for the hits in order to have the counter (hits_total). This is because I cannot call directly hits.hits_total (due to SITE_ID?). I have tried select_related, but it seems to do not work... Question: - How can I add column automatically like (SELECT hits.hits_total, model.* FROM [...]) to the queryset? - Or use a functional select_related with my models? I want this model could be plugable on all other existing model. Thank you, Best regards.

    Read the article

  • C# Reflection StackTrack get value

    - by John
    I'm making pretty heavy use of reflection in my current project to greatly simplify communication between my controllers and the wcf services. What I want to do now is to obtain a value from the Session within an object that has no direct access to HttpSessionStateBase (IE: Not a controller). For example, a ViewModel. I could pass it in or pass a reference to it etc. but that is not optimal in my situation. Since everything comes from a Controller at some point in my scenario I can do the following to walk the sack to the controller where the call originated, pretty simple stuff: var trace = new System.Diagnostics.StackTrace(); foreach (var frame in trace.GetFrames()) { var type = frame.GetMethod().DeclaringType; var prop = type.GetProperty("Session"); if(prop != null) { // not sure about this part... var value = prop.GetValue(type, null); break; } } The trouble here is that I can't seem to work out how to get the "instance" of the controller or the Session property so that I can read from it.

    Read the article

  • How do I get a reference to a rootViewController to a sub-view?

    - by Andy
    An answer posted for one of my previous questions brings up another question; I am calling a new view controller, "RuleBuilder," from my rootViewController. The rootViewController holds a reference to a contacts array. How do I get a reference to that array into the RuleBuilder? I tried adding UITableViewController *rootViewController; ... @property (nonatomic, retain) UITableViewController *rootViewController; to RuleBuilder.h, and then @synthesize rootViewController; in RuleBuilder.m. When I instantiate and push the RuleBuilder from within rootViewController, I do this: ruleBuilder.rootViewController = self; But when I try this [rootViewController.contacts addObject:newContact]; from within RuleBuilder, I get a compiler error to the effect of "request for 'contacts' in something not a struct" (or very similar; I haven't implemented this exact snippet of code, but I tried an identical approach not an hour ago for a couple of different references that I never was able to get working). Thanks, again, for your help.

    Read the article

  • object-oriented question

    - by user522962
    I am attempting to put all my database connections in 1 php file, rather than in each of my individual php pages. I have the following: //conn.php: <?php class conn { var $username = "name"; var $password = "password"; var $server = "localhost"; var $port = "3306"; var $databasename = "db"; var $tablename = "tablename"; var $connection; public function getConnected() { $this->connection = mysqli_connect( $this->server, $this->username, $this->password, $this->databasename, $this->port ); } } ?> // file.php: <?php require_once("conn.php"); class myClass{ public function con() { $conn = new conn(); $conn->getConnected(); } public function myF() { $stmt = mysqli_prepare($conn->connection, "SELECT * FROM $conn->tablename"); mysqli_stmt_execute($stmt); } } ?> I then call this as follows: $myNew = new myClass(); $myNew-con(); $myNew-myF(); When I call this, I get the following error: Undefined property: myClass::$connection What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Memory Barrier by lock statement

    - by jalalaldeen
    I read recently about memory barrier and the reordaring issue and now I have some confusion about it. Let us have a following senario: private object _object1 = null; private object _object2 = null; private bool _usingObject1 = false; private object MyObject { get { if (_usingObject1) { return _object1; } else { return _object2; } } set { if (_usingObject1) { _object1 = value; } else { _object2 = value; } } } private void Update() { _usingMethod1 = true; SomeProperty = FooMethod(); //.. _usingMethod1 = false; } 1- At Update method; is it always _usingMethod1 = true statement excecuted before getting or setting the property? or due reordaring issue we can not garantee that? 2- Should we use volitle like. private volitle bool _usingMethod1 = false; 3- If we use lock; can we garantee then every statement within the lock will be excecuted in order like: private void FooMethod() { object locker = new object(); lock (locker) { x = 1; y = a; i++; } } Thanks in advanced..

    Read the article

  • How to make Finder 'Open With' work for my application (XCode, OS X)?

    - by Adion
    I have created an application that is capable of playing audio files. This in itself works fine, and so does drag&drop from finder to my application. What I would like as well, is that people can use my application from Finder using the Open With menu (or even allow them to set my application as default for a certain file type) After a lot of searching, I found that I should configure a document type in XCode (Editing information property lists) I successfully added such a type named 'Music File', with UTI 'public.mp3' When I now right-click an MP3 file, my application is listed in the 'Open With' menu. Trying to use it, my app opens, but I get a warning message saying "The document could not be opened. App cannot open files in the 'Music File' format" It doesn't appear to be passed through the command line as is the case in Windows. My application does support drag&drop from Finder, and this is working fine too. I don't really know where to look next, so it would be great if anyone could point me in the right direction. My application isn't using NSDocument, so the 'Class' field doesn't apply for me I think (and according to the docs this field isn't required, but it doesn't say how to handle it without a Class)

    Read the article

  • Remove a ReactiveCocoa signal from a control

    - by dbarros
    If I assign a signal to a property of a control: RAC(self.loginButton.enabled) = [RACSignal combineLatest:@[ self.usernameTextField.rac_textSignal, self.passwordTextField.rac_textSignal ] reduce:^(NSString* username, NSString* password) { return @(username.length > 0 && password.length > 0); }]; But then wanted to assign a different RACSignal to enabled, how can I clear any existing one before doing so? If I try and set it a second time, I get an exception like the following: 2013-10-29 16:54:50.623 myApp[3688:c07] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Signal <RACSignal: 0x975e9e0> name: +combineLatest: ( "<RACSignal: 0x975d600> name: <UITextField: 0x10f2c420> -rac_textSignal", "<RACSignal: 0x975de30> name: <UITextField: 0x10f306e0> -rac_textSignal" ) reduce: is already bound to key path "self.loginButton.enabled" on object <LoginViewController: 0x10f264e0>, adding signal <RACSignal: 0x9763500> name: +combineLatest: ( "<RACSignal: 0x97624f0> name: <UITextField: 0x10f2c420> -rac_textSignal", "<RACSignal: 0x97629e0> name: <UITextField: 0x10f306e0> -rac_textSignal" ) reduce: is undefined behavior'

    Read the article

  • Getting a Script Error Every Time I Click a Link

    - by Flip4Life
    I have everything working perfectly on my site, but for some reason, I get an error message in console whenever I click a link anywhere on my site. The error has to do with this line of coding here: jQuery(function($){ $('.navbar a, .scroll a, .smoothscroll a').bind('click',function(event){ var $anchor = $(this); $('html, body').stop().animate({ scrollTop: $($anchor.attr('href')).offset().top }, 850,'easeInOutExpo'); event.preventDefault(); }); }); And the error I am getting is this: "SCRIPT5007: Unable to get value of the property 'top': object is null or undefined custom.min.js, line 6 character 197" The exact code it is highlighting is this part of the above code: $('html, body').stop().animate({ scrollTop: $($anchor.attr('href')).offset().top }, 850,'easeInOutExpo') All I know is that when I remove the above code, my scroll-to links stop working on pages such as these: http://www.northtownsremodeling.com/things-to-know.php You can see the popup error happen and stay in the console easily by going to a page with a filter like this: http://www.northtownsremodeling.com/bathroom/ And clicking one of the filter buttons. Ultimately, I am trying to make it so my scroll-to setting still works, but not have that error come up anymore. I made this script a long time ago, and I'm really confused as to what could be causing this error when everything is functioning perfectly otherwise? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • self-destructing objects in php5?

    - by user151841
    I am working on a class in php that is basically an interface to a database row. I wanted to create a delete() method that would 1. delete the database row and 2. destroy the instance of itself so that further attempts to manipulate the row via the object would throw warnings. Doing some googling, it seems that, in php5, it's not possible for an object to unset itself. http://bugs.php.net/bug.php?id=36971 In fact they discuss the very situation I was wanting to do :( So how should I proceed? I could make boolean flag as a class property, for whether the row still exists, and have each operation check that flag and throw an error if the row has been deleted. This maintains the oo structure of code, so I would have $objDbRow->delete(); But then I have to put checks at the beginning of each method. Or, I could implement a __destruct method that deletes the row. But that would seem counter-intuitive to me; if I saw in code unset($objDbRow); All I would suspect that's happening is that the object is being discarded, not that a row is being deleted. So that to me would seem like bad practice.

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 584 585 586 587 588 589 590 591 592 593 594 595  | Next Page >