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  • Is it possible to cache all the data in a SQL Server CE database using LinqToSql?

    - by DanM
    I'm using LinqToSql to query a small, simple SQL Server CE database. I've noticed that any operations involving sub-properties are disappointingly slow. For example, if I have a Customer table that is referenced by an Order table, LinqToSql will automatically create an EntitySet<Order> property. This is a nice convenience, allowing me to do things like Customer.Order.Where(o => o.ProductName = "Stopwatch"), but for some reason, SQL Server CE hangs up pretty bad when I try to do stuff like this. One of my queries, which isn't really that complicated takes 3-4 seconds to complete. I can get the speed up to acceptable, even fast, if I just grab the two tables individually and convert them to List<Customer> and List<Order>, then join then manually with my own query, but this is throwing out a lot of what makes LinqToSql so appealing. So, I'm wondering if I can somehow get the whole database into RAM and just query that way, then occasionally save it. Is this possible? How? If not, is there anything else I can do to boost the performance besides resorting to doing all the joins manually? Note: My database in its initial state is about 250K and I don't expect it to grow to more than 1-2Mb. So, loading the data into RAM certainly wouldn't be a problem from a memory point of view. Update Here are the table definitions for the example I used in my question: create table Order ( Id int identity(1, 1) primary key, ProductName ntext null ) create table Customer ( Id int identity(1, 1) primary key, OrderId int null references Order (Id) )

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  • How can I prevent infinite recursion when using events to bind UI elements to fields?

    - by Billy ONeal
    The following seems to be a relatively common pattern (to me, not to the community at large) to bind a string variable to the contents of a TextBox. class MyBackEndClass { public event EventHandler DataChanged; string _Data; public string Data { get { return _Data; } set { _Data = value; //Fire the DataChanged event } } } class SomeForm : // Form stuff { MyBackEndClass mbe; TextBox someTextBox; SomeForm() { someTextBox.TextChanged += HandleTextBox(); mbe.DataChanged += HandleData(); } void HandleTextBox(Object sender, EventArgs e) { mbe.Data = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } void HandleData(Object sender, EventArgs e) { someTextBox.Text = ((MyBackEndClass) sender).Data; } } The problem is that changing the TextBox fires the changes the data value in the backend, which causes the textbox to change, etc. That runs forever. Is there a better design pattern (other than resorting to a nasty boolean flag) that handles this case correctly? EDIT: To be clear, in the real design the backend class is used to synchronize changes between multiple forms. Therefore I can't just use the SomeTextBox.Text property directly. Billy3

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  • In Silverlight, what structures, aside of the ListBox, can be used for binding?

    - by Aidenn
    I need to simply provide the content of a property to a custom User Control in Silverlight. My control is something like this: <UserControl x:Class="SilverlightApplication.Header" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignWidth="300" d:DesignHeight="120"> <Grid x:Name="Header_Layout"> <StackPanel x:Name="hiHeaderContent" Width="Auto" Margin="73,8,8,8"> <TextBlock x:Name="User:" Text="{Binding name}" /> </StackPanel> </Grid> I try to use this User Control from another control where I try to pass the parameter "name" to the previous UserControl ("Header"). I don't need to create a "ListBox" as I will only have 1 header, so I try to avoid doing: <ListBox x:Name="HeaderListBox" Grid.Row="0"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <SilverlightApplication:Header/> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> in order to send the "User" account using: HeaderListBox.ItemsSource = name; Is there any other structure I can use instead of the ListBox to pass the parameter just once? It won't be a list, it's just a header... Thank you!

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  • How to query an .NET assembly's required framework (not CLR) version?

    - by Bonfire Burns
    Hi, we are using some kind of plug-in architecture in one of our products (based on .NET). We have to consider our customers or even 3rd party devs writing plug-ins for the product. The plug-ins will be .NET assemblies that are loaded by our product at run-time. We have no control about the quality or capabilities of the external plug-ins (apart from checking whether they implement the correct interfaces). So we need to implement some kind of safety check while loading the plug-ins to make sure that our product (and the hosting environment) can actually host the plug-in or deliver a meaningful error message ("The plug-in your are loading needs .NET version 42.42 - the hosting system is only on version 33.33."). Ideally the plug-ins would do this check internally, but our experience regarding their competence is so-so and in any case our product will get the blame, so we want to make sure that this "just works". Requiring the plug-in developers to provide the info in the metadata or to explicitly provide the information in the interface is considered "too complicated". I know about the Assembly.ImageRuntimeVersion property. But to my knowledge this tells me only the needed CLR version, not the framework version. And I don't want to check all of the assembly's dependencies and match them against a table of "framework version vs. available assemblies". Do you have any ideas how to solve this in a simple and maintainable fashion? Thanks & regards, Bon

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  • Failed to load url in Dom Document?

    - by Lakhan
    im trying to get latitude and longtitude from google map by giving address. But its giving error.when i directly copy url to browser url bar.its giving correct result.If anybody know the answer .Plz reply. Thanx in advance Here is my code. <?php $key = '[AIzaSyAoPgQlfKsBKQcBGB01cl8KmiPee3SmpU0]'; $opt = array ( 'address' => urlencode('Kolkata,India, ON') , 'output' => 'xml' ); $url = 'http://maps.google.com/maps/geo?q='.$opt['address'].'&output='.$opt['output'].'&oe=utf8&key='.$key; $dom = new DOMDocument(); $dom->load($url); $xpath = new DomXPath($dom); $xpath->registerNamespace('ge', 'http://earth.google.com/kml/2.0'); $statusCode = $xpath->query('//ge:Status/ge:code'); if ($statusCode->item(0)->nodeValue == '200') { $pointStr = $xpath->query('//ge:coordinates'); $point = explode(",", $pointStr->item(0)->nodeValue); $lat = $point[1]; $lon = $point[0]; echo '<pre>'; echo 'Lat: '.$lat.', Lon: '.$lon; echo '</pre>'; } ?> Following error has occured: Warning: DOMDocument::load(http://maps.google.com/maps/geo? q=Kolkata%252CIndia%252C%2BON&output=xml&oe=utf8&key=%5BAIzaSyAoPgQlfKsBKQcBGB01cl8KmiPee3SmpU0%5D) [domdocument.load]: failed to open stream: HTTP request failed! HTTP/1.0 400 Bad Request in C:\xampp\htdocs\draw\draw.php on line 19 Warning: DOMDocument::load() [domdocument.load]: I/O warning : failed to load external entity "http://maps.google.com/maps/geo?q=Kolkata%252CIndia%252C%2BON&output=xml&oe=utf8&key=%5BAIzaSyAoPgQlfKsBKQcBGB01cl8KmiPee3SmpU0%5D" in C:\xampp\htdocs\draw\draw.php on line 19 Notice: Trying to get property of non-object in C:\xampp\htdocs\draw\draw.php on line 26

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  • memory leak when removing objects in NSMutableArray

    - by user262325
    Hello everyone I hope to store MYFileObj to NSMutableArray (fileArray) and display data on an UITavleView(tableview). //----------------------------------MYFileObj #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface MYFileObj : NSObject { NSString *fileName; } -(void) setFileName:(NSString *)s ; -(NSString *) fileName ; @end the array I want to store data NSMutableArray *fileArray; I created new object and add to fileArray MYFileObj *newobj=[[MYFileObj alloc] init ]; NSString *ss=[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"%@",path] ; [newobj setFileName:ss]; [ss release]; [fileArray addObject:newobj]; [newobj release]; [atableview reloadData]; After the first time relaodData and do something, I want to reload fileArray and redraw atableview. //code to remove all object in atableview if([fileArray count]>0) { [fileArray removeAllObjects]; [atableview reloadData]; } I notice that there are memory leak. I hope to know the method "removeAllObjects" removes only MYFileObj themselves or also removes MYFileObj's member property "fileName"? Thanks interdev

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  • how to read string part in java

    - by Gandalf StormCrow
    Hello everyone, I have this string : <meis xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" uri="localhost/naro-nei" onded="flpSW531213" identi="lemenia" id="75" lastStop="bendi" xsi:noNamespaceSchemaLocation="http://localhost/xsd/postat.xsd xsd/postat.xsd"> How can I get lastStop property value in JAVA? This regex worked when tested on http://www.myregexp.com/ But when I try it in java I don't see the matched text, here is how I tried : import java.util.regex.Pattern; import java.util.regex.Matcher; public class SimpleRegexTest { public static void main(String[] args) { String sampleText = <meis xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" uri=\"localhost/naro-nei\" onded=\"flpSW531213\" identi=\"lemenia\" id=\"75\" lastStop=\"bendi\" xsi:noNamespaceSchemaLocation=\"http://localhost/xsd/postat.xsd xsd/postat.xsd\">"; String sampleRegex = "(?<=lastStop=[\"']?)[^\"']*"; Pattern p = Pattern.compile(sampleRegex); Matcher m = p.matcher(sampleText); if (m.find()) { String matchedText = m.group(); System.out.println("matched [" + matchedText + "]"); } else { System.out.println("didn’t match"); } } }

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  • Team City + Gallio runs tests, but results are not shown

    - by Twindagger
    We recently updated to Visual Studio 2010, and as part of our upgrade we started using Gallio 3.2 prerelease builds. Everything runs fine in Visual Studio (through resharper) but I'm having problems with TeamCity integration. The tests seem to run during TeamCity builds just fine (our build takes long enough to run all our tests), but the tests are not showing up in TeamCity's test area. Here is the test target from our NANT build file (this hasn't changed in our upgrade at all). Is there a trick to getting the tests to show up in TeamCity or is this something that's broken in the latest builds of Gallio? <target name="runTests"> <gallio result-property="exitCode" failonerror="false"> <runner-extension value="TeamCityExtension,Gallio.TeamCityIntegration" /> <assemblies> <include name="..\Source\Tests\${testProject}\bin\Debug\${testProject}.dll" /> </assemblies> </gallio> </target>

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  • Trouble accessing Mutable array

    - by Jared Gross
    Im having trouble with my for loop where I am trying to index user names. I am able to separate my original array into individual objects but am not able to send the value to a new array that I need to reference later on. The value and count for userNames in my self.userNamesArray = userNames; line is correct. But right after that when I log self.userNamesArray, I get (null). Any tips cause I'm not completely sure I'm cheers! .h @property (nonatomic, copy) NSMutableArray *userNamesArray; .m - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { self.friendsRelation = [[PFUser currentUser] objectForKey:@"friendsRelation"]; PFQuery *query = [self.friendsRelation query]; [query orderByAscending:@"username"]; [query findObjectsInBackgroundWithBlock:^(NSArray *objects, NSError *error) { if (error) { NSLog(@"Error: %@ %@", error, [error userInfo]); } else { self.friends = objects; NSArray *users = [self.friends valueForKey:@"username"]; NSLog(@"username:%@", users); //Create an array of name wrappers and pass to the root view controller. NSMutableArray *userNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[self.friends count]]; for (NSString *user in users) { componentsSeparatedByCharactersInSet:charSet]; NSArray *nameComponents = [user componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; UserNameWrapper *userNameWrapper = [[UserNameWrapper alloc] initWithUserName:nil nameComponents:nameComponents]; [userNames addObject:userNameWrapper]; } self.userNamesArray = userNames; NSLog(@"userNamesArray:%@",self.userNamesArray); [self.tableView reloadData]; } Here's the code where I need to reference the self.userNamesArray where again, it is comping up nil. - (void)setUserNamesArray:(NSMutableArray *)newDataArray { if (newDataArray != self.userNamesArray) { self.userNamesArray = [newDataArray mutableCopy]; if (self.userNamesArray == nil) { self.sectionsArray = nil; NSLog(@"user names empty"); } else { [self configureSections]; } } }

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  • ASP.NET DynamicData: Whats happening during an update?

    - by Jens A.
    I am using ASP.NET DynamicData (based on LINQ to SQL) on my site for basic scaffolding. On one table I have added additional properties, that are not stored in the table, but are retrieved from somewhere else. (Profile information for a user account, in this case). They are displayed just fine, but when editing these values and pressing "Update", they are not changed. Here's what the properties look like, the table is the standard aspnet_Users table: public String Address { get { UserProfile profile = UserProfile.GetUserProfile(UserName); return profile.Address; } set { UserProfile profile = UserProfile.GetUserProfile(UserName); profile.Address = value; profile.Save(); } } When I fired up the debugger, I've noticed that for each update the set accessor is called three times. Once with the new value, but on a newly created instance of user, then once with the old value, again on an new instance, and finally with the old value on the existing instance. Wondering a bit, I checked with the properties created by the designer, and they, too, are called three times in (almost) the same fashion. The only difference is, that the last call contains the new value for the property. I am a bit stumped here. Why three times, and why are my new properties behaving differently? I'd be grateful for any help on that matter! =)

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  • CSS Sprite for images which have vertical as well as horizontal repeats

    - by Rachel
    I have four images, one of which has background repeat property in horizontal direction and three of which have background repeat in vertical direction. I have different CSS classes which currently uses this images as under: .sb_header_dropdown { background: url(images/shopping_dropdown_bg.gif) repeat-y top left; padding: 8px 3px 8px 15px; } .shopping_basket_dropdown .sb_body { background: url(images/shopping_dropdown_body_bg.png) repeat-y top left; margin: 0; padding: 5px 9px 5px 8px; position: relative; z-index: 99999; } .checkout_cart .co_header_left { background: url(images/bg.gif) repeat-x 0 -150px; overflow: hidden; padding-left: 3px; } .sb_dropdown_footer { background: url(images/shopping_dropdown_footer_bg.png) repeat-y top left; clear: both; height: 7px; font-size: 0; } So here am making 4 HTTP Request and I want to implement CSS Sprite for all 4 images such that I can reduce the number of HTTP Request from 4 to 1, also thing to keep in mind is that here we have background repeat for all 4 images, either on x-direction or on y-direction and so how should sprite be created and how it can be used in the CSS to reduce the number of HTTP request. I hope this question is clear.

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  • Why changing the images name on server results in calling the old ones?

    - by moderns
    I am running a slideshow on Ubuntu 12.04.1 that loads the images (slide1.jpg, slide2.jpg, slide3.jpg.., slide5.jpg) using the Javascript and styles as below: document.getElementById('slide_area').className='slide'+step; .slide1{background-image: url(../upload/slide1.jpg)} .slide2{background-image: url(../upload/slide2.jpg)} .slide3{background-image: url(../upload/slide3.jpg)} .slide4{background-image: url(../upload/slide4.jpg)} .slide5{background-image: url(../upload/slide5.jpg)} When I change the images names (show1.jpg, show2.jpg, show3.jpg.., show5.jpg) and also change the style as below: .slide1{background-image: url(../upload/show1.jpg)} .slide2{background-image: url(../upload/show2.jpg)} .slide3{background-image: url(../upload/show3.jpg)} .slide4{background-image: url(../upload/show4.jpg)} .slide5{background-image: url(../upload/show5.jpg)} And open the network section on Chrome, I see the server is calling the new name and old name for images! I added the header in the index.php: header("Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, max-age=0"); header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past header("Cache-Control: post-check=0, pre-check=0", false); header("Pragma: no-cache"); Nothing worked out with me and the slideshow doesn't work properly when I change the name of images even when clearing the browser cache as I load images sequentially (one by one) depending on imageObject.complete property! But without changing the name everything is going perfect and the images are loaded smoothly! Thank you for your help!

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  • Change object on client side or on server side

    - by Polina Feterman
    I'm not sure what is the best practice. I have some big and complex objects (NOT flat). In that object I have many related objects - for example Invoice is the main class and one of it's properties is invoiceSupervisor - a big class by it's own called User. User can also be not flat and have department property - also an object called Department. For example I want create new Invoice. First way: I can present to client several fields to fill in. Some of them will be combos that I will need to fill with available values. For example available invoiceSupervisors. Then all the chosen values I can send to server and on server I can create new Invoice and assign all chosen values to that new Invoice. Then I will need to assign new supervisor I will pull the chosen User by id that user picked up on server from combobox. I might do some verification on the User such as does the user applicable to be invoice supervisor. Then I will assign the User object to invoiceSupervisor. Then after filling all properties I will save the new invoice. Second way: In the beginning I can call to server to get a new Invoice. Then on client I can fill all chosen values , for example I can call to server to get new User object and then fill it's id from combobox and assign the User as invoiceSupervisor. After filling the Invoice object on client I can send it to server and then the server will save the new invoice. Before saving server can run some validations as well. So what is the best approach - to make the object on client and send it to server or to collect all values from client and to make a new object on server using those values ?

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  • MEF: Satisfy part on an Export using and Export from the composed part.

    - by Pop Catalin
    Hi, I have the following scenario in Silverlight 4: I have a notifications service Snippet [InheritedExport] public interface INotificationsService : IObservable<ReceivedNotification> { void IssueNotifications(IEnumerable<ClientIssuedNotification> notifications); } and and implementation of this service Snippet [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class ClientNotificationService : INotificationsService { [Import] IPlugin Plugin { get; set; } ... } How can I say to MEF that the Plugin property of the ClientNotificationService must be provided by the importing class that imports the INotificationsService. For example: Snippet public class Client { [Export] IPlugin Current { get; set; } [Import] INotificationService NotificationService; } How can I say that I want MEF to satisfy the ClientNotificationService.Plugin part with the exported IPlugin by the Client class. Basically I want the NotificationService, to receive a Unique ID provided by the importing class, whenever it is created and composed to a new class, or if there's and alternative method, like using meta data to do this I'd appreciate any insights. I've been struggling with this for a while. Thanks

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  • Alternate colors on click with jQuery

    - by Jace Cotton
    I'm sure there is a simple solution to this, and I'm sure this is a duplicate question, though I have been unable to solve my solution particularly because I don't really know how to phrase it in order to search for other questions/solutions, so I'm coming here hoping for some help. Basically, I have spans with classes that assigns a background-color property, and inside those spans are words. I have three of these spans, and each time a user clicks on a span I want the class to change (thus changing the background color and inner text). HTML: <span class="alternate"> <span class="blue showing">Lorem</span> <span class="green">Ipsum</span> <span class="red">Dolor</span> </span> CSS: .alternate span { display : none } .alternate .showing { display : inline } .blue { background : blue } .green { background : green } .red { background : red } jQuery: $(".alternate span").each(function() { $(this).on("click", function() { $(this).removeClass("showing"); $(this).next().addClass("showing"); }); }); This solution works great using $.next until I get to the third click, whereafter .showing is removed, and is not added since there are no more $.next options. How do I, after getting to the last-child, add .showing to the first-child and then start over? I have tried various options including if($(".alternate span:last-child").hasClass("showing")) { etc. etc. }, and I attempted to use an array and for loop though I failed to make it work. Newb question, I know, but I can't seem to solve this so as a last resort I'm coming here.

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  • UTF-8 support in java application

    - by jacekn
    I'm having trouble with UTF-8. common.jsp <%@ page language="java" contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> typical.jsp <%@ include file="common.jsp" %> Page Head <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> Form <form id="screenObject" accept-charset="UTF-8" action="/SiteAdmin/articleHeaderEdit?articleId=15" method="post"> I enter non latin1 characters into a text field and click Save. Validator complains about another field and stops the submission. This never gets to the database, so database ability to handle UTF-8 is not in this picture. The page redisplays with appropriate error but the text that had been entered is all messed up. All non latin1 characters are converted to some gibberish. I'm using Spring 3 MVC, in case that matters... Attempts Adding this to my view resolver didn't help: <property name="contentType" value="text/html;charset=UTF-8" />

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  • How do I call a variable from another class?

    - by squeezemylime
    I have a class called 'Constants' that I am storing a String variable in. This class contains a few global variables used in my app. I want to be able to reference this class and call the variable (called profileId) in other Views of my app. I looked around and found a few examples, but am not sure how to do this. Currently my setup is: Constants.h @interface Constants : UIViewController { NSString *profileId; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *profileId; @end Constants.m #import "Constants.h" @implementation Constants @synthesize profileId; - (void)dealloc { [profileId release]; [super dealloc]; } And I am trying to call the variable profileId in a new View via this way: NewView.h file @class Constants; NewView.m file NSLog(@"ProfileId is:", [myConstants profileId]); Is there something I'm missing? It is coming up null, even though I am properly storing a value in it in another function via this way: Constants *Constant; Constant = [[Constants alloc] init]; Constant.profileId = userId;

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  • Using a Data Management Singleton

    - by Dan Ray
    Here's my singleton code (pretty much boilerplate): @interface DataManager : NSObject { NSMutableArray *eventList; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *eventList; +(DataManager*)sharedDataManager; @end And then the .m: #import "DataManager.h" static DataManager *singletonDataManager = nil; @implementation DataManager @synthesize eventList; +(DataManager*)sharedDataManager { @synchronized(self) { if (!singletonDataManager) { singletonDataManager = [[DataManager alloc] init]; } } NSLog(@"Pulling a copy of shared manager."); return singletonDataManager; } So then in my AppDelegate, I load some stuff before launching my first view: NSMutableArray *eventList = [DataManager sharedDataManager].eventList; .... NSLog(@"Adding event %@ to eventList", event.title); [eventList addObject:event]; NSLog(@"eventList now has %d members", [eventList count]); [event release]; As you can see, I've peppered the code with NSLog love notes to myself. The output to the Log reads like: 2010-05-10 09:08:53.355 MyApp[2037:207] Adding event Woofstock Music Festival to eventList 2010-05-10 09:08:53.355 MyApp[2037:207] eventList now has 0 members 2010-05-10 09:08:53.411 MyApp[2037:207] Adding event Test Event for Staging to eventList 2010-05-10 09:08:53.411 MyApp[2037:207] eventList now has 0 members 2010-05-10 09:08:53.467 MyApp[2037:207] Adding event Montgomery Event to eventList 2010-05-10 09:08:53.467 MyApp[2037:207] eventList now has 0 members 2010-05-10 09:08:53.524 MyApp[2037:207] Adding event Alamance County Event For June to eventList 2010-05-10 09:08:53.524 MyApp[2037:207] eventList now has 0 members ... What gives? I have no errors getting to my eventList NSMutableArray. But I addObject: fails silently?

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  • TreeView Control Problem

    - by ProgNet
    Hi all, I have a public folder on the server that contains recursively nested sub folders. In the various Leaf folders contains Images. I wanted to create a server side file browser that will display the Images to the user. I am using the ASP.NET TreeView Control. I create the tree nodes using PopulateOnDemand. If the user click on a leaf directory I want the images in that folder to be displayed in a DataList Control. The problem is that when I click on a sub tree node (after I expanded it parent node) All the expanded sub tree disappears and only the parent node is showed with no + sign next to it !! ( I have set the TreeView's PopulateNodesFromClient property to true ) Can someone tell me what is the problem ?? Thanks Here is the code : <asp:TreeView ID="TreeView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateDataBindings="False" onselectednodechanged="TreeView1_SelectedNodeChanged" ontreenodepopulate="TreeView1_TreeNodePopulate"> </asp:TreeView> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { string path = Server.MapPath("."); PopulateTopNodes(path); } } private void PopulateTopNodes(string pathToRootFolder) { DirectoryInfo dirInfo = new DirectoryInfo(pathToRootFolder); DirectoryInfo[] dirs = dirInfo.GetDirectories(); foreach (DirectoryInfo dir in dirs) { TreeNode folderNode = new TreeNode(dir.Name,dir.FullName); if (dir.GetDirectories().Length > 0) { folderNode.PopulateOnDemand = true; folderNode.Collapse(); } TreeView1.Nodes.Add(folderNode); } } protected void TreeView1_TreeNodePopulate(object sender, TreeNodeEventArgs e) { if (IsCallback == true) { if (e.Node.ChildNodes.Count == 0) { LoadChildNode(e.Node); } } } private void LoadChildNode(TreeNode treeNode) { DirectoryInfo dirInfo = new DirectoryInfo(treeNode.Value); DirectoryInfo[] dirs = dirInfo.GetDirectories(); foreach (DirectoryInfo dir in dirs) { TreeNode folderNode = new TreeNode(dir.Name, dir.FullName); if(dir.GetDirectories().Length>0){ folderNode.PopulateOnDemand = true; folderNode.Collapse(); } treeNode.ChildNodes.Add(folderNode); } } protected void TreeView1_SelectedNodeChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Retrieve the images here }

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  • Determining if object is visible and clickable

    - by Alan Mendelevich
    I'm looking for ways to effectively determine if a control is actually visible and clickable. I mean beyond checking Visibility property of the object. I can check RenderSize and that would be [0,0] if any of the parent elements is collapsed. So this is simple too. I can also traverse up the visual tree and see if Opacity of all elements is set to 1. What I don't know how to check nicely are these scenarios: The object is obstructed by some other object. Obviously it's possible to use FindElementsInHostCoordinates() and do computations to find out how much these objects obstruct but this could be an overkill. I can also make a "screenshot" of the object in question and "screenshot" of the whole page and check if pixels where my object should be match the actual object pixels. That sounds like an overkill too. The object is obstructed by a transparent object that still "swallows" clicks (taps). The workarounds for the first problem could still fail in this scenario. Any better ideas? Do I miss something? Thanks!

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  • Windows Phone 8 xaml textblock binding format

    - by user2042227
    I would like to format a textblock which is binded to a value, to show "R" before the actuall value, is this possible, cause I cannot directly change the value? Thank you <ListBox x:Name="lstbundleListbox" Foreground="White" Height="320" HorizontalAlignment="Center"> <ListBox.ItemContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="ListBoxItem"> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Center" /> </Style> </ListBox.ItemContainerStyle> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding name}" TextWrapping="Wrap" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding cost}" TextWrapping="Wrap" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> <ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"/> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> </ListBox> So I basically want the texblock to show R(cost)

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  • JQuery get id or class, not value

    - by Celia Tan
    I'm new at JQuery, what I wanted to ask is how to select an option, then another option will automatic selected that have property of first option. I've given code like this: <select name="kendaraan"> <option value="" selected>pilih kendaraan!</option> <option value="B 2011 DR" class="B2011DR">B 2011 DR</option> <option value="R 3333 OKI" class="R3333OKI">R 3333 OKI</option> <option value="k03">jazz</option> <option value="k04">innova</option> </select> <select name="driver"> <option value="" selected>pilih kendaraan!</option> <option value="s02" car="B2011DR" style="display:none">jojon</option> <option value="s01" car="B2011DR" style="display:none">mamat</option> <option value="s04" car="R3333OKI" style="display:none">tukul</option> <option value="s03" car="R3333OKI" style="display:none">mamat</option> <option value="s07" car="k03" style="display:none">bejo</option> <option value="s05" car="k03" style="display:none">mamat</option> <option value="s06" car="k03" style="display:none">tukul</option> <option value="s08" car="k04" style="display:none">budi</option> <option value="s09" car="">komeng</option> </select> $('select[name=kendaraan]').change(function() { //hide all option $('select[name=driver] option').css('display','none'); //display option only for matched driver var isCar = $('select[name=driver] option[car='+$(this).val()+']'); isCar.css('display','block'); //auto select first matched diriver $('select[name=driver]').val( $(isCar[0]).val() ) }) But the jquery code is for getting the value of "kendaraan", how to match it with the class, not the value?

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  • Why is this one div container blocking the other from floating right?

    - by user2824289
    I know the answer is very simple, it's probably one little CSS property, but I've tried to find the solution without asking it here, no luck.. There are two div containers within a div container, and they aren't playing nice. The one is positioned to float right in the upper righthand corner of the parent div, and it won't let any other container float to the right of it. I tried display:inline and display:inline-block but no luck... Here's the code, though something tells me the answer is so easy you won't need it!: The parent div, the upper righthand corner div, and the poor div trying to float right: #um-home-section4 { width:100%; height:300px; background-color: green; } #um-title-right { float:right; width:500px; height:50px; margin-right:20px; margin-top:20px; background-color: fuchsia; } #take-me-there { float:right; margin-top:240px; margin-right:0px; height:50px; width:100px; background-color: gray; } <div id="um-home-section4"> <div id="um-title-right"></div> <div id="take-me-there"></div> </div>

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  • Dependencyproperty doesn't have value on load

    - by Jakob
    My problem is this, I have a UC called profile that contains another UC called FollowImageControl. In my Profile.xaml i declaretively bind a property of FollowImageControl called FollowerId to a CurrentUserId from Profile.xaml.cs. Problem is that I CurrentUserId is assigned in Profile.xaml.cs; the Profile.xaml code-behind. This means that I do not initially get the FollowerId. I have these methods in the FollowImageControl.xaml.cs: public static readonly DependencyProperty _followUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("FollowUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(FollowImageControl), null); public Guid FollowUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_followUserId); } set { SetValue(_followUserId, value); } } public FollowImageControl() { // Required to initialize variables InitializeComponent(); LoggedInUserId = WebContext.Current.User.UserId; var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); if (ctx.IsFollowingUser(LoggedInUserId, FollowUserId).Value) SwitchToDelete.Begin(); } private void AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { if (LoggedInUserId != FollowUserId) { var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); ctx.FollowUser(FollowUserId, LoggedInUserId); ctx.SubmitChanges(); } } THE WEIRD THING IS that when i insert breakpoints the FollowerUserId in FollowImageControl() is 0, but it has a value in AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown, and there is no inbetween logic that sets the value of it. How is this??? Here's a little more code info: This is my binding from profile.xaml <internalCtrl:FollowImageControl FollowUserId="{Binding ElementName=ProfileCtrl, Path=CurrentUserId}" /> this is my constructor in profile.xaml.cs wherein the CurrentUserId is set public static readonly DependencyProperty _CurrentUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(Profile), null); public Guid CurrentUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_CurrentUserId); } set { SetValue(_CurrentUserId, value); } } public Profile(Guid UserId) { CurrentUserId = UserId; InitializeComponent(); Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(Profile_Loaded); } I'm seriously dumbfound that one minute the FollowerId has no value, and the next it holds the right, without me having changed the value in the code-behind.

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  • Check for existing mapping when writing a custom applier in ConfORM

    - by Philip Fourie
    I am writing my first custom column name applier for ConfORM. How do I check if another column has already been map with same mapping name? This is what I have so far: public class MyColumnNameApplier : IPatternApplier<PropertyPath, IPropertyMapper> { public bool Match(PropertyPath subject) { return (subject.LocalMember != null); } public void Apply(PropertyPath subject, IPropertyMapper applyTo) { string shortColumnName = ToOracleName(subject); // How do I check if the short columnName already exist? applyTo.Column(cm => cm.Name(shortColumnName)); } private string ToOracleName(PropertyPath subject) { ... } } } I need to shorten my class property names to less than 30 characters to fit in with Oracle's 30 character limit. Because I am shortening the column names it is possible that I generate the same name for two different properties. I would like to know when a duplicate mapping occurs. If I don't handle this scenario ConfORM/NHibernate allows two different properties to 'share' the same column name - this is obviously creates a problem for me.

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