Search Results

Search found 19966 results on 799 pages for 'wild thing'.

Page 609/799 | < Previous Page | 605 606 607 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615 616  | Next Page >

• PHP, We have sessions, and cookies....I love cookies, but they are blowing my mind right now.

  - by Matt

  I am not sure how to go about accessing the variable I need to set on a cookie... I was thinking about using the $_POST global but I dont know how based on my design if it will work. I am using a master page type design seperating index.php from my function includes and database information and individual pages (that will be returned to an include in index.php based on a $_GET) Okay so back to my question. What is the most efficient way to set a cookie on a design that has a main page that everything will branch from. How would I pull the value. Is $_POST a good enough way to go about it? Also...by saying it must be the first thing sent...does that mean I cannot run any serverside scripts before that? I could definately utilize a login query I think but I dont want to write code just to be dissapointed based on my lack of time and knowledge. I did search for answers...I know this most likely feels like a generic question that could be answered in a difference place...but I know I will get an accurate and professional answer here...so I dont want to bet on the half answers I found otherwise. Of course I will sanitize everything and not store any sensitive information (passwords,address,phone,or anything really for that matter besides some kind of session ID and the username) If this is confusing I am sorry but I am on a gov computer...and they lock these tighter than ft knox...so getting my code on here will be a chore until I get back to my room. Thanks, Matt

  Read the article

• How to serialize a Bundle?

  - by hermo

  I'd like to serialize a Bundle object, but can't seem to find a simple way of doing it. Using Parcel doesn't seem like an option, since I want to store the serialized data to file. Any ideas on ways to do this? The reason I want this is to save and restore the state of my activity, also when it's killed by the user. I already create a Bundle with the state I want to save in onSaveInstanceState. But android only keeps this Bundle when the activity is killed by the SYSTEM. When the user kills the activity, I need to store it myself. Hence i'd like to serialize and store it to file. Of course, if you have any other way of accomplishing the same thing, i'd be thankful for that too. Edit: I decided to encode my state as a JSONObject instead of a Bundle. The JSON object can then be put in a Bundle as a Serializable, or stored to file. Probably not the most efficient way, but it's simple, and it seems to work ok.

  Read the article

• How to transfer objects through the header in WCF

  - by Michael

  I'm trying to transfer some user information in the header of the message through message inspectors. I have created a behavior which adds the inspector to the service (both client and server). But when I try to communicate with the service I get the following error: XmlException: Name cannot begin with the '<' character, hexadecimal value 0x3C. I have also get exception telling me that DataContracts where unexpected. Type 'System.DelegateSerializationHolder+DelegateEntry' with data contract name 'DelegateSerializationHolder.DelegateEntry:http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System' is not expected. Consider using a DataContractResolver or add any types not known statically to the list of known types - for example, by using the KnownTypeAttribute attribute or by adding them to the list of known types passed to DataContractSerializer. The thing is that my object contains other objects which are marked as DataContract and I'm not interested adding the KnownType attribute for those types. Another problem might be that my object to serialize is very restricted in form of internal class and internal properties etc. Can anyone guide me in the right direction. What I'm I doing wrong? Some code: public virtual object BeforeSendRequest(ref Message request, IClientChannel channel) { var header = MessageHeader.CreateHeader("<name>", "<namespace>", object); request.Headers.Add(header); return Guid.NewGuid(); }

  Read the article

• chrome extension login security with iframe

  - by Weaver

  I should note, I'm not a chrome extension expert. However, I'm looking for some advice or high level solution to a security concern I have with my chrome extension. I've searched quite a bit but can't seem to find a concrete answer. The situation I have a chrome extension that needs to have the user login to our backend server. However, it was decided for design reasons that the default chrome popup balloon was undesirable. Thus I've used a modal dialog and jquery to make a styled popup that is injected with content scripts. Hence, the popup is injected into the DOM o the page you are visiting. The Problem Everything works, however now that I need to implement login functionality I've noticed a vulnerability: If the site we've injected our popup into knows the password fields ID they could run a script to continuously monitor the password and username field and store that data. Call me paranoid, but I see it as a risk. In fact,I wrote a mockup attack site that can correctly pull the user and password when entered into the given fields. My devised solution I took a look at some other chrome extensions, like Buffer, and noticed what they do is load their popup from their website and, instead, embed an iFrame which contains the popup in it. The popup would interact with the server inside the iframe. My understanding is iframes are subject to same-origin scripting policies as other websites, but I may be mistaken. As such, would doing the same thing be secure? TLDR To simplify, if I embedded an https login form from our server into a given DOM, via a chrome extension, are there security concerns to password sniffing? If this is not the best way to deal with chrome extension logins, do you have suggestions with what is? Perhaps there is a way to declare text fields that javascript can simply not interact with? Not too sure! Thank you so much for your time! I will happily clarify anything required.

  Read the article

• How to cache L2E entity without attach/detach?

  - by Eran Betzalel

  The following code will select a key/value table in the DB and will save the result to the cache: using (var db = new TestEntities()) { if(Cache["locName_" + inventoryLocationName] != null) return Cache["locName_" + inventoryLocationName]; var location = db.InventoryLocationsSet.FirstOrDefault( i => i.InventoryLocationName.Equals( inventoryLocationName, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase)); db.Detach(location); // ???? Cache["locName_" + inventoryLocationName] = location; return location; } But it doesn't work well when I'm trying to use the cached object. Of course, the problem is the different ObjectContext, so I use Attach/Detach and then the problem solves but with a codding horror price: db.Attach(locationFromCache); // ???? try { // Use location as foreign key db.SaveChanges(); } finally { db.Detach(locationFromCache); // ???? } So, how can I use cached objects without using attach/detach methods? What happens if more than one user will have to use this cached object? Should I put the whole thing in a CriticalSection?!

  Read the article

• Simulating pass by reference for an array reference (i.e. a reference to a reference) in Java

  - by Leif Andersen

  I was wondering, in java, is it possible to in anyway, simulate pass by reference for an array? Yes, I know the language doesn't support it, but is there anyway I can do it. Say, for example, I want to create a method that reverses the order of all the elements in an array. (I know that this code snippet isn't the best example, as there is a better algorithms to do this, but this is a good example of the type of thing I want to do for more complex problems). Currently, I need to make a class like this: public static void reverse(Object[] arr) { Object[] tmpArr = new Object[arr.length]; count = arr.length - 1; for(Object i : arr) tmpArr[count--] = i; // I would like to do arr = tmpArr, but that will only make the shallow // reference tmpArr, I would like to actually change the pointer they passed in // Not just the values in the array, so I have to do this: count = arr.length - 1; for(Object i : tmpArr) arr[count--] = i; return; } Yes, I know that I could just swap the values until I get to the middle, and it would be much more efficient, but for other, more complex purposes, is there anyway that I can manipulate the actual pointer? Again, thank you.

  Read the article

• SSL with private key on an HSM

  - by Jason

  I have a client-server architecture in my application that uses SSL. Currently, the private key is stored in CAPI's key store location. For security reasons, I'd like to store the key in a safer place, ideally a hardware signing module (HSM) that is built for this purpose. Unfortunately, with the private key stored on such a device, I can't figure out how to use it in my application. On the server, I am simply using the SslStream class and the AuthenticateAsServer(...) call. This method takes an X509Certificate object that has its private key loaded, but since the private key is stored in a secure (e.g. non exportable) location on the HSM, I don't know how to do this. On the client, I am using an HttpWebRequest object and then using the ClientCertificates property to add my client authentication certificate, but I have the same problem here: how do I get the private key? I know there are some HSMs that act as SSL accelerators but I don't really need an accelerator. Also, these products tend to have special integration with web servers such as IIS and Apache which I'm not using. Any ideas? The only thing I can think of would be to write my own SSL library that would allow me to hand off the signing portion of the transaction to the HSM, but this seems like a huge amount of work.

  Read the article

• Writing to EEPROM on PIC

  - by JB

  Are there any PIC microcontroller programmers here? I'm learning some PIC microcontroller programming using a pickit2 and the 16F690 chip that came with it. I'm working through trying out the various facilities at the moment. I can sucessfully read a byte from the EEPROM in code if I set the EEPROM vaklue in MPLAB but I don't seem to be able to modify the value using the PIC itsself. Simply nothing happens and I don't read back the modified value, I always get the original which implies to me that the write isn't working? This is my code for that section, am I missing something? I know I'm doing a lot of unnecessary bank switches, I added most of them to ensure that being on the wrong bank wasn't the issue. ; ------------------------------------------------------ ; Now SET the EEPROM location ZERO to 0x08 ; ------------------------------------------------------ BANKSEL EEADR CLRF EEADR ; Set EE Address to zero BANKSEL EEDAT MOVLW 0x08 ; Store the value 0x08 in the EEPROM MOVWF EEDAT BANKSEL EECON1 BSF EECON1, WREN ; Enable writes to the EEPROM BANKSEL EECON2 MOVLW 0x55 ; Do the thing we have to do so MOVWF EECON2 ; that writes can work MOVLW 0xAA MOVWF EECON2 BANKSEL EECON1 BSF EECON1, WR ; And finally perform the write WAIT BTFSC EECON1, WR ; Wait for write to finish GOTO WAIT BANKSEL PORTC ; Just to make sure we are on the right bank

  Read the article

• sqrt(int_value + 0.0) -- Does it have a purpose?

  - by Earlz

  Hello, while doing some homework in my very strange C++ book, which I've been told before to throw away, had a very peculiar code segment. I know homework stuff always throws in extra "mystery" to try to confuse you like indenting 2 lines after a single-statement for-loop. But this one I'm confused on because it seems to serve some real-purpose. basically it is like this: int counter=10; ... if(pow(floor(sqrt(counter+0.0)),2) == counter) ... I'm interested in this part especially: sqrt(counter+0.0) Is there some purpose to the +0.0? Is this the poormans way of doing a static cast to a double? Does this avoid some compiler warning on some compiler I do not use? The entire program printed the exact same thing and compiled without warnings on g++ whenever I left out the +0.0 part. Maybe I'm not using a weird enough compiler? Edit: Also, does gcc just break standard and not make an error for Ambiguous reference since sqrt can take 3 different types of parameters? [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $ cat calc.cpp #include <cmath> int main(){ int counter=0; sqrt(counter); } [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $ g++ calc.cpp /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.47.0: warning: strcpy() is almost always misused, please use strlcpy() /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.47.0: warning: strcat() is almost always misused, please use strlcat() [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $

  Read the article

• Can't log in a user in MVC!

  - by devlife

  I have been scratching my head on this for a while now but still can't get it. I'm trying to simply log in a user in an MVC2 application. I have tried everything that I know to try but still can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. Here are a few things that I have tried: FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie( emailAddress, rememberMe ); var cookie = FormsAuthentication.GetAuthCookie( emailAddress, rememberMe ); HttpContext.Response.Cookies.Add( cookie ); FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket( emailAddress, rememberMe, 15 ); FormsIdentity identity = new FormsIdentity( ticket ); GenericPrincipal principal = new GenericPrincipal(identity, new string[0]); HttpContext.User = principal; I'm not sure if any of this is the right thing to do (as it's not working). After setting HttpContext.User = principal then Request.IsAuthenticated == true. However, in Global.asax I have this: HttpCookie authenCookie = Context.Request.Cookies.Get( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName ); The only cookie that ever is available is the aspnet session cookie. Any ideas at all would be much appreciated!

  Read the article

• Wrappers/law of demeter seems to be an anti-pattern...

  - by Robert Fraser

  I've been reading up on this "Law of Demeter" thing, and it (and pure "wrapper" classes in general) seem to generally be anti patterns. Consider an implementation class: class Foo { void doSomething() { /* whatever */ } } Now consider two different implementations of another class: class Bar1 { private static Foo _foo = new Foo(); public static Foo getFoo() { return _foo; } } class Bar2 { private static Foo _foo = new Foo(); public static void doSomething() { _foo.doSomething(); } } And the ways to call said methods: callingMethod() { Bar1.getFoo().doSomething(); // Version 1 Bar2.doSomething(); // Version 2 } At first blush, version 1 seems a bit simpler, and follows the "rule of Demeter", hide Foo's implementation, etc, etc. But this ties any changes in Foo to Bar. For example, if a parameter is added to doSomething, then we have: class Foo { void doSomething(int x) { /* whatever */ } } class Bar1 { private static Foo _foo = new Foo(); public static Foo getFoo() { return _foo; } } class Bar2 { private static Foo _foo = new Foo(); public static void doSomething(int x) { _foo.doSomething(x); } } callingMethod() { Bar1.getFoo().doSomething(5); // Version 1 Bar2.doSomething(5); // Version 2 } In both versions, Foo and callingMethod need to be changed, but in Version 2, Bar also needs to be changed. Can someone explain the advantage of having a wrapper/facade (with the exception of adapters or wrapping an external API or exposing an internal one).

  Read the article

• How does Java handle ArrayList refrerences and assignments?

  - by Jonathan

  Hey all- I mostly write in C but am using Java for this project. I want to know what Java is doing here under the hood. ArrayList<Integer> prevRow, currRow; currRow = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for(i =0; i < numRows; i++){ prevRow = currRow; currRow.clear(); currRow.addAll(aBunchOfItems); } Is the prevRow = currRow line copying the list or does prevRow now point to the same list as currRow? If prevRow points to the same list as currRow, I should create a new ArrayList instead of clearing.... private ArrayList<Integer> someFunction(ArrayList<Integer> l){ Collections.sort(l); return l; } main(){ ArrayList<Integer> list = new ArrayList<Integer>(Integer(3), Integer(2), Integer(1)); list = someFunction(list); //Option 1 someFunction(list); //Option 2 } In a similar question, do Option 1 and Option 2 do the same thing in the above code? Thanks- Jonathan

  Read the article

• Cannot spawn an erlang supervisor from the shell.

  - by drfloob

  I've implemented a gen_server and supervisor: test_server and test_sup. I want to test them from the shell/CLI. I've written their start_link functions such that their names are registered locally. I've found that I can spawn the test_server from the command line just fine, but a spawned test_sup does nothing whatsoever. Why is this? For example, I can spawn a test_server by executing: 1> spawn(test_server, start_link, []). <0.39.0> 2> registered(). [...,test_server,...] I can interact with the server, and everything appears fine. However, if I try to do the same thing with test_sup, no new names/Pids are registered, and it looks like my test_server was not spawned at all. I'd assume I coded an error in my supervisor, but this method of starting my supervisor works perfectly fine: 1> {ok, Pid}= test_sup:start_link([]). {ok, <0.39.0>} 2> unlink(Pid). true 3> registered(). [...,test_server,test_sup,...] Why is it that I can spawn a gen_server but not a supervisor?

  Read the article

• delayed evaluation of code in subroutines - 5.8 vs. 5.10 and 5.12

  - by Brock

  This bit of code behaves differently under perl 5.8 than it does under perl 5.12: my $badcode = sub { 1 / 0 }; print "Made it past the bad code.\n"; [brock@chase tmp]$ /usr/bin/perl -v This is perl, v5.8.8 built for i486-linux-gnu-thread-multi [brock@chase tmp]$ /usr/bin/perl badcode.pl Illegal division by zero at badcode.pl line 1. [brock@chase tmp]$ /usr/local/bin/perl -v This is perl 5, version 12, subversion 0 (v5.12.0) built for i686-linux [brock@chase tmp]$ /usr/local/bin/perl badcode.pl Made it past the bad code. Under perl 5.10.1, it behaves as it does under 5.12: brock@laptop:/var/tmp$ perl -v This is perl, v5.10.1 (*) built for i486-linux-gnu-thread-multi brock@laptop:/var/tmp$ perl badcode.pl Made it past the bad code. I get the same results with a named subroutine, e.g. sub badcode { 1 / 0 } I don't see anything about this in the perl5100delta pod. Is this an undocumented change? A unintended side effect of some other change? (For the record, I think 5.10 and 5.12 are doing the Right Thing.)

  Read the article

• Normalizing (webdav) unicode paths

  - by Evert

  Hi guys, I'm working on a WebDAV implementation for PHP. In order to make it easier for Windows and other operating systems to work together, I need jump through some character encoding hoops. Windows uses ISO-8859-1 in it's HTTP request, while most other clients encode anything beyond ascii as UTF-8. My first approach was to ignore this altogether, but I quickly ran into issues when returning urls. I then figured it's probably best to normalize all urls. Using u¨ as an example. This will get sent over the wire by OS/X as u%CC%88 (this is codepoint U+0308) Windows sents this as: %FC (latin1) But, doing a utf8_encode on %FC, I get : %C3%BC (this is codepoint U+00FC) Should I treat %C3%BC and u%CC%88 as the same thing? If so.. how? Not touching it seems to work OK for windows. It somehow understands that it's a unicode character, but updating the same file throws an error (for no particular reason). I'd be happy to provide more information.

  Read the article

• Problem using custom HttpHandler to process requests for both .aspx and non-extension pages in IIS7

  - by Noel

  I am trying to process both ".aspx" and non-extension page requests (i.e. both contact.aspx and /contact/) using a custom HttpHandler in IIS7. My handler works just fine in either one case or the other, but as soon as I try to process both cases, it only works for one. Please see Handlers snippet from my web.config below: If i keep only mapping to "*.aspx" then all .aspx requests are processed correctly, but obviously extensionless requests won't work: <add name="AllPages.ASPX" path="*.aspx" verb="*" type="Test.PageHandlerFactory, Test" preCondition="" /> If i change the mapping to "*" then all extensionless requests are processed correctly, but ".aspx" requests that should still be handled by this handler stop working. Note that i added the StaticFiles entry in order to process files that are on disk like images, css, js, etc. <add name="WebResource" path="WebResource.axd" verb="GET" type="System.Web.Handlers.AssemblyResourceLoader" /> <add name="StaticFiles" verb="GET,HEAD" path="*.*" type="System.Web.StaticFileHandler" resourceType="File" /> <add name="AllPages" path="*" verb="*" type="Test.PageHandlerFactory, Test" preCondition="" /> The crazy thing is that when i load an ".aspx" request (with the 2nd configuration shown) IIS7 gives a 404 not found error. The error also says that the request is processed by the StaticFiles handler. But I made sure to add resourceType="File" to the StaticFileHandler in order to avoid this. According to MS this means the request is only for "physical files on disk". Am i misreading/interpreting the "on disk" part? My .aspx file isn't on disk, that's why i want to use the handler in the first place.

  Read the article

• pylons on production server fedora 8

  - by stormdrain

  I'm interested in learning some python, and thought Pylons would be a good starting point (after spending 2 days trying to get django working -- to no avail). I have an Amazon EC2 instance with Fedora 8 on it. It is a bare-bones install. I am halfway through my second day of trying to get it to work. I have mod_wsgi installed. I have Apache (though that's a later task to tackle). I have easy_install, paster is working fine; basically all of the pre-requisites mentioned throughout the Pylons docs. I can't for the life of me get the thing to work. And I can't seem to find a coherent walkthough anywhere that lists all the steps necessary. There is tons of info out there, but it is all scattered. Wsgi this, python that. Google, google, google... "47 million results found for 'socket.error:(lol, 'Yous a goofs')". So, this is my latest attempt: apachectl -k stop cd /home/ paster create -t pylons test [blah blah.. ok] cd test nano development.ini [hmm, last time I changed the host from 127.0.0.1 to my domain name or url, it threw an error like socket.error: (99, 'Cannot assign requested address')... I'll just leave it] [open port 5000 on firewall] paster serve development.ini [firefox-url:5000] Firefox can't establish a connection to the server Doing these steps locally works as expected. This is just a test to see if I can get it to work at all, which I can't. If I get it to work, then is the task of getting it to work with apache. My madness is that I'd like to play around a little developing and deploying before diving into a full-fledged project. So far: self, I am dissapoint.

  Read the article

• One object in jTemplate?

  - by Dejan.S

  Hi I'm using jTemplate for the first time. I been reading and it's not that hard to use it BUT what I can not figure out and find any thing on is how to work with one object, all the examples I find are a list of objects. My situation is I need to work with one object only. How can I do that? I mean How to work with the data in the jTemplate like this example but one only. <script type="text/html" id="TemplateResultsTable"> {#template MAIN} <table cellpadding="10" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <th>Artist</th> <th>Company</th> <th>Title</th> <th>Price</th> </tr> {#foreach $T.d as CD} {#include ROW root=$T.CD} {#/for} </table> {#/template MAIN} {#template ROW} <tr class="{#cycle values=['','evenRow']}"> <td>{$T.Artist}</td> <td>{$T.Company}</td> <td>{$T.Title}</td> <td>{$T.Price}</td> </tr> {#/template ROW} </script>

  Read the article

• Snow Leopard & LSUIElement -> application not activating properly, window not "active" despite being

  - by Frank R.

  Hi, I'm running into a few problem with a background application that uses LSUIElement=1 to hide its dock item, menu bar and prevent it from appearing in the Command-Tab application switcher. It seems to be a Snow Leopard only problem. The application places an NSStatusItem in the menu bar and pops up a menu when clicked on. Selecting "Preferences..." should bring up an NSWindow with the preferences. The first thing that doesn't seem to work is that the Window does not get ordered in at the front, but appears behind all other application windows. I tried to fix this by calling [[NSApplication sharedApplication] activateIgnoringOtherApps: YES] but that didn't work. After a while I figured out that the menu is blocking the message to the run loop from being sent, so I wrote another method on the MainController and sent the message with a delay: [self performSelector:@selector(setFront:) withObject: [preferencesController window] afterDelay:1.0]; -(void)setFront: (id) theWindow { [[NSApplication sharedApplication]activateIgnoringOtherApps:YES]; [theWindow orderFrontRegardless]; [theWindow makeKeyWindow]; [[NSApplication sharedApplication] activateIgnoringOtherApps:YES]; } Note the send-every-possible-message-to-make-it-do-what-it-should-be-doing-approach. This works, kind-of, the window is brought to the front on top of all other windows from all apps, BUT most of the time it isn't active, meaning it's title bar is greyed out. Clicking on the title bar won't make the window active either. Clicking INSIDE of the window will make it active!? This all didn't seem to be a problem in Leopard; just calling activateIgnoringOtherApps and making the window key seemed to work just fine. In Snow Leopard there is a new API designed to replace LSUIElement that is supposed to emulate its behaviour: http://developer.apple.com/mac/library/releasenotes/cocoa/appkit.html I've played around with that, but it's SL-only and I haven't been able to get LSUIElement being set. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

  Read the article

• Threading is slow and unpredictable?

  - by Jake

  I've created the basis of a ray tracer, here's my testing function for drawing the scene: public void Trace(int start, int jump, Sphere testSphere) { for (int x = start; x < scene.SceneWidth; x += jump) { for (int y = 0; y < scene.SceneHeight; y++) { Ray fired = Ray.FireThroughPixel(scene, x, y); if (testSphere.Intersects(fired)) sceneRenderer.SetPixel(x, y, Color.Red); else sceneRenderer.SetPixel(x, y, Color.Black); } } } SetPixel simply sets a value in a single dimensional array of colours. If I call the function normally by just directly calling it it runs at a constant 55fps. If I do: Thread t1 = new Thread(() => Trace(0, 1, testSphere)); t1.Start(); t1.Join(); It runs at a constant 50fps which is fine and understandable, but when I do: Thread t1 = new Thread(() => Trace(0, 2, testSphere)); Thread t2 = new Thread(() => Trace(1, 2, testSphere)); t1.Start(); t2.Start(); t1.Join(); t2.Join(); It runs all over the place, rapidly moving between 30-40 fps and sometimes going out of that range up to 50 or down to 20, it's not constant at all. Why is it running slower than it would if I ran the whole thing on a single thread? I'm running on a quad core i5 2500k.

  Read the article

• Replacing/Extending Visual Studio's Generate Stub in Visual Studio 2010

  - by devoured elysium

  When we write the name of a method that doesn't exist, Visual Studio 2010 asks us if we'd like to generate a method stub with that name. What I'd like to know if is it possible to replace that same code stub generating command with one made by myself. I never did any kind of extensibility programming for Visual Studio so I have a couple of questions: How hard is it? Is it something I can learn in a couple of nights, or is it something that'll make me "lose" a lot of time? It seems to me that there isn't a lot of support for that kind of programming, as generally people are not that interested in developing solutions that extend the Visual Studio IDE. I searched on SO and it doesn't appear to have many threads about extending Visual Studio. I don't know how the generate method stub thing works in Visual Studio, but I just wanted to turn it into something a bit more flexible and useful. Has anyone dealt with these kind of things before, that can give me a pointer to where to start? I know of MS VSX site but that has a lot of resources and can be overwhelming for someone new to the subject as I am. What technology will I need to use? T4? Maybe I'll need to know a lot about the code, like Visual Studio does, so I can know other method's type arguments, names, etc. Is that what T4 is for? Thanks

  Read the article

• MSCRM 4 Convert Standard enitity to Custom entity using InitializeFromRequest

  - by user363727

  Hi there, I'm trying to convert an order and orderdetail lines to a custom entity and its child lines using InitializeFromRequest using the code below: public void Convert(Guid FromEntityId, string FromEntityName, string ToEntityName) { try { // Set up the CRM Service. CrmService _service = GetCrmService(); InitializeFromRequest req = new InitializeFromRequest(); req.EntityMoniker = new Moniker(); // this is the very thing that does the job. req.EntityMoniker.Id = FromEntityId; req.EntityMoniker.Name = FromEntityName; req.TargetEntityName = ToEntityName; //contact for our example req. req.TargetFieldType = TargetFieldType.ValidForCreate; InitializeFromResponse rps = (InitializeFromResponse)_service.Execute(req); //now the lead is converted to a contact, and you can see it in contacts. Guid entityId = _service.Create(rps.Entity); lblMsg.Text = "Done ID:" + entityId.ToString(); } catch (System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapException se) { lblMsg.Text = "soap:" + se.Detail.InnerText; } catch (Exception ex) { lblMsg.Text = ex.Message; } } Now i am able to get a custom entity created but all the attributes are empty despite me setting the mapping fields in the realtionship. Any ideas on what i am missing or doing wrong? Thanks in advance Andrew

  Read the article

• Reading component parameters and setting defaults

  - by donut

  I'm pulling my hair on this because it should be simple, but can't get it to do the right thing. What's the best practice way of doing the following I've created a custom component that extends <s:Label> so now the Label has additional properties color2 color3 value which can be called like this and are used in the skin. <s:CustomLabel text="Some text" color2="0x939202" color3="0x999999" value="4.5" /> If I don't supply these parameters, I'd like some defaults to be set. So far I've had some success, but it doesn't work 100% of the time, which leads me to think that I'm not following best practices when setting those defaults. I do it now like this: [Bindable] private var myColor2:uint = 0x000000; [Bindable] private var myColor3:uint = 0x000000; [Bindable] private var myValue:Number = 10.0; then in the init function, I do a variation of this to set the default myValue = hostComponent.value; myValue = (hostComponent.value) ? hostComponent.value : 4.5; Sometimes it works, sometimes it doesn't, depending on the type of variable I'm trying to set. I eventually decided to read them as Strings then convert them to the desired type, but it seems that this also works half the time.

  Read the article

• RegularExpression Validator doesn't display error message.

  - by Rudi Ramey

  I have a regular expression validation control initialized to validate a textbox control. I want users to be able to enter U.S. Currency values ($12,115.85 or 1500.22 etc.). I found a regular expression off of regexlib website that does the trick. The validation control seems to be working except for one crucial thing. If invalid data is entered, the validation text dispalys (a red "*" next to the textbox), but the page will still submit and the error message won't pop up... I thought that the error message is supposed to display and the page won't submit if the validation control detects invalid data. Isn't this automatic with ASP .NET? I have searched extensively on how to create validation controls, but haven't found anything different than what I am already doing. Can anyone tell me what I am doing wrong here? <asp:TextBox ID="txtActualCost" runat="server" Width="120px" CausesValidation="true"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RegularExpressionValidator ID="regExValActualCost" ControlToValidate="txtActualCost" Text="*" ValidationExpression="^\$?(\d{1,3}(\,\d{3})*|(\d+))(\.\d{2})?$" ErrorMessage="Please enter a valid currency value for 'Actual Cost'" Display="Dynamic" EnableClientScript="true" runat="server" />

  Read the article

• Write binary data as a response in an ASP.NET MVC web control

  - by Lou Franco

  I am trying to get a control that I wrote for ASP.NET to work in an ASP.NET MVC environment. Normally, the control does the normal thing, and that works fine Sometimes it needs to respond by clearing the response, writing an image to the response stream and changing the content type. When you do this, you get an exception "OutputStream is not available when a custom TextWriter is used". If I were a page or controller, I see how I can create custom responses with binary data, but I can't see how to do this from inside a control's render functions. To simplify it -- imagine I want to make a web control that renders to: <img src="pageThatControlIsOn?controlImage"> And I know how to look at incoming requests and recognize query strings that should be routed to the control. Now the control is supposed to respond with a generated image (content-type: image/png -- and the encoded image). In ASP.NET, we: Response.Clear(); Response.OutputStream.Write(thePngData); // this throws in MVC // set the content type, etc Response.End(); How am I supposed to do that in an ASP.NET MVC control?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 605 606 607 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615 616  | Next Page >