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• My website keeps crashing IE, can't debug

  - by Ninja rhino

  I have a website that suddenly started to crash internet explorer. The website loads and starts executing javascript but somewhere in there the machinery explodes. I don't even get a script error, it just crashes. I've tried to manually step through every single line of js with the built in debugger but then of course the problem doesn't occur. If i choose to debug the application when it crashes i see the following message. Unhandled exception at 0x6c5dedf5 in iexplore.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000090. The top 5 items in the call stack looks like this VGX.dll!6c5dedf5() [Frames below may be incorrect and/or missing, no symbols loaded for VGX.dll] VGX.dll!6c594d70() VGX.dll!6c594f63() VGX.dll!6c595350() VGX.dll!6c58f5e3() mshtml.dll!6f88dd17() VGX.dll seems to be part of the vml renderer and i am in fact using VML. I'm not suprised because i've had so many problems with vml, attributes has to be set in specific order, sometimes you cant set attributes when you have elements attached to the dom or vice versa (everything undocumented btw) but then the problems can usually be reproduced when debugging but not now :( The problem also occurs in no plugin-mode. Is there a better approach than trial and error to solve this? Edit: Adding a console outputting every suspect modification to the DOM made the problem only occur sometimes. (the console is also implemented in javascript on the same page, i'm able to see the output even after a crash as the window is still visible) Apparently it seems to be some kind of race condition. I managed to track it down even further, and it seems to occur when you remove an object from the DOM too quickly after it's just been added. (most likely only for vml-elements with some special attribute, didn't try further) And it can't be fixed by adding a dead loop in front of removeChild(pretty bad solution anyway), the page has to be rendered by the browser once after the addChild before you can call removeChild. sigh

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• My project is no longer used - how should I feel?

  - by flybywire

  For the last two years I have been developing and supporting an important project for a big customer. The project included mining data from the customer's existing systems, processing, and displaying and updating in the customer's public home page. The project was defined as crucial by the customer and I was payed good money and flown at the customer's expense to meet key employees. Some months ago, when the project was finished and in maintainance mode, I informed the customer that I am no longer interested in doing it as I had a new opportunity that would not be compatible with my existing customer. I was payed to train one of their employees, flown to meet him, make sure everything works and that he can be safely left in charge of the project. We finished in good terms after I complied with all my obligations and they payed me all they owed me. Some days ago, just out of curiosity, I entered to their website to see how the data continues to be updated and much to my dismay I discovered that the day after my contract was finished my system was "turned off" and it ceased to feed data to the public website. Let's put it clear, there is no issue of money or broken contract here. They are in they full right to do whatever they want with my software. But it is an issue of broken "programmer's ego". Should I feel bad about it (I do). Should I care and check out with my customer if they need some help? Or is it none of my matters?

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• oracle select query - index on multiple columns

  - by CC

  Hello. I'm working on a sql query, and trying to optimise it, because it takes too long to execute. I have a few select and UNION between. Every select is on the same table but with different condition in WHERE clause. Basically I have allways something like : select * from A where field1 <"toto" and field2 IN (...) UNION select * from A where field1 >"toto2" and field2 =(...) UNION .... I have a index on field1 (it a date field, and field2 is a number). Now, when I do the select and if I put only WHERE field1 <'12/12/2010' it does not use the index. I'm using Toad to see the explain plain and it said: SELECT STAITEMENT Optimiser Mode = CHOOSE TABLE ACCESS FULL It is a huge table, and the index on this column is there. Any idea about this optimiser ? And why it does not uses the index ? Another question is , if I have where clause on field1 and field2 , I have to create only one index, or one index for each field ? Thanks alot.

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• Executing a process in windows server 2003 and ii6 from code - permissions error

  - by kurupt_89

  I have a problem executing a process from our testing server. On my localhost using windows XP and iis5.1 I changed the machine.config file to have the line - I then changed the login for iis to log on as local system account and allow server to interact with desktop. This fixed my problem executing a process from code in xp. When using the same method on windows server 2003 (using iis6 isolation mode) the process does not get executed. Here is the code to execute the process (I have tested the inputs to iecapt through the command line and an image is generated) - public static void GenerateImageToDisk(string ieCaptPath, string url, string path, int delay) { url = FixUrl(url); ieCaptPath = FixPath(ieCaptPath); string arguments = @"--url=""{0}"" --out=""{1}"" --min-width=0 --delay={2}"; arguments = string.Format(arguments, url, path, delay); ProcessStartInfo ieCaptProcessStartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(ieCaptPath + "IECapt.exe"); ieCaptProcessStartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.Arguments = arguments; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.WorkingDirectory = ieCaptPath; Process ieCaptProcess = Process.Start(ieCaptProcessStartInfo); ieCaptProcess.WaitForExit(600000); ieCaptProcess.Close(); }

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• TableLayout formatting loss after device rotation

  - by roundhill

  I'm seeing a strange issue with a TableLayout after the device is rotated from either orientation. If you load the view in either portrait or landscape mode, the table loads fine. But once you rotate the device, the columns collapse to just fit their width. I would expect that after rotation, the columns would still stretch to fit the width of the screen. Any ideas on what can be done to resolve this? Screenies and layout code below. Before Rotation: After Rotation: Table Layout: <TableLayout android:id="@+id/dataTable" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_weight="1" android:layout_below="@id/chart" android:stretchColumns="*" android:shrinkColumns="*" android:padding="6dip" > </TableLayout> Table Row: <TableRow xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <TextView android:id="@+id/col1" android:layout_marginRight="2dip" android:textColorLink="#FF21759b" android:text="Column 1" android:padding="4dip" android:textColor="#FF464646"/> <TextView android:id="@+id/col2" android:text="Column 2" android:textColor="#FF464646" android:padding="4dip"/> </TableRow> Thanks!

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• Debug website on host from virtual machine

  - by Luchaguate

  I have a Windows 7 machine hosting a Windows 7 virtual machine. I am developing a web application using visual studio 2010 on my host machine. I want to run the application in debug mode and access my localhost server from a browser on the virtual machine. (The purpose of this is to be able to debug an application that uses Windows Authentication using different users without having to log off and on for different users on my host machine...) I am using a bridged connection for the virtual machine. I googled how to solve this problem and most of the threads that I found said that if I was using a bridged connection, I could access the server on the host machine by just entering the IP address of my host machine into the url in the browser of the virtual machine. I have tried some different urls using the IP but none of them have worked. As an example, suppose I run my web application in visual studio on my host machine and its url is http://localhost:62789/MyPage.aspx Assume also that I ran ipconfig in CommandPrompt on my host machine and found out that the IP address for my host machine is xxx.xxx.xxx.x. What url should I enter on the virtual machine to access my web application? Thanks in advance.

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• i integer does not +1 the 1st time

  - by Hwang

  I have a gallery where it will load an image after a previous image is loaded, so every time 'i' will +1 so that it could move to the next image. This code works fine on my other files, but I dunno why it doesn't work for the current file. Normally if I trace 'i' the correct will be 0,1,2,3,4,5,6... etc adding on till the limit, but this files its 'i' repeat the 1st number twice, only it continues to add 0,0,1,2,3,4,5,6...etc The code is completely the same with the other file I'm using, but I don't know why it just doesn't work here. The code does not seems to have any problem. Anyway i can work around this situation? private var i:uint=0; private function loadItem():void { if (i<myXMLList.length()) { loadedPic=myXMLList[i].thumbnails; galleryLoader = new Loader(); galleryLoader.load(new URLRequest(loadedPic)); galleryLoader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE,picLoaded); } else { adjustImage(); } } private function picLoaded(event:Event):void { var bmp=new Bitmap(event.target.content.bitmapData); bmp.smoothing=true; bmpArray.push(bmp); imagesArray[i].addChild(bmp); i++; loadItem(); }

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• C++, Ifstream opens local file but not file on HTTP Server

  - by fammi

  Hi, I am using ifstream to open a file and then read from it. My program works fine when i give location of the local file on my system. for eg /root/Desktop/abc.xxx works fine But once the location is on the http server the file fails to open. for eg http://192.168.0.10/abc.xxx fails to open. Is there any alternate for ifstream when using a URL address? thanks. part of the code where having problem: bool readTillEof = (endIndex == -1) ? true : false; // Open the file in binary mode and seek to the end to determine file size ifstream file ( fileName.c_str ( ), ios::in|ios::ate|ios::binary ); if ( file.is_open ( ) ) { long size = (long) file.tellg ( ); long numBytesRead; if ( readTillEof ) { numBytesRead = size - startIndex; } else { numBytesRead = endIndex - startIndex + 1; } // Allocate a new buffer ptr to read in the file data BufferSptr buf (new Buffer ( numBytesRead ) ); mpStreamingClientEngine->SetResponseBuffer ( nextRequest, buf ); // Seek to the start index of the byte range // and read the data file.seekg ( startIndex, ios::beg ); file.read ( (char *)buf->GetData(), numBytesRead ); // Pass on the data to the SCE // and signal completion of request mpStreamingClientEngine->HandleDataReceived( nextRequest, numBytesRead); mpStreamingClientEngine->MarkRequestCompleted( nextRequest ); // Close the file file.close ( ); } else { // Report error to the Streaming Client Engine // as unable to open file AHS_ERROR ( ConnectionManager, " Error while opening file \"%s\"\n", fileName.c_str ( ) ); mpStreamingClientEngine->HandleRequestFailed( nextRequest, CONNECTION_FAILED ); } }

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• firefox does not load large size images

  - by Pradeep

  I am stuck with a kind of bug in FF, wherein it’s unable to load images of big size (I have 8 MB size of image) from the server. The loading of image is all fine on IE. I am still looking out for ways to get rid of this problem. I changed server(IIS) settings to allow bigger file sizes. Also, I used “load” event on image using JQuery and tried all sort of options listed here http://api.jquery.com/load-event/, but nothing worked so far. If anyone of you has come across any such similar problem, and a way to resolve it, it would be nice to hear from you Please note: high resolution images are part of the requirement. Code : <style> img { background-color: #FFFFFF; background-image: url(http://eremurus.hyd:8080/QMS/plugin/imagepanner/loader.gif); background-repeat: no-repeat; background-position: center center; } </style> <script src="../plugin/jquery-ui-1.8.7.custom/js/jquery-1.4.4.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script> jQuery(document).ready(function($){ ///var _url = "http://eremurus.hyd:8080/QMS/plugin/imagepanner/floorPlan.jpg"; // set up the node / element _im =$("#main"); //_im.bind("load",function(){ $(this).fadeIn(); }); // set the src attribute now, after insertion to the DOM //_im.attr('src',_url); $("#main").one("load",function(){ alert('loaded'); }) .each(function(){ if(this.complete){ $(this).trigger("load"); } }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="target"><img id='main' src="http://eremurus.hyd:8080/QMS/plugin/imagepanner/floorPlan.jpg"> </img></div> </body> </html>

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• Wrong logic in If Statement?

  - by Charles

  $repeat_times = mysql_real_escape_string($repeat_times); $result = mysql_query("SELECT `code`,`datetime` FROM `fc` ORDER by datetime desc LIMIT 25") or die(mysql_error()); $output .=""; $seconds = time() - strtotime($fetch_array["datetime"]); if($seconds < 60) $interval = "$seconds seconds"; else if($seconds < 3600) $interval = floor($seconds / 60) . " minutes"; else if($seconds < 86400) $interval = floor($seconds / 3600) . " hours"; else $interval = floor($seconds / 86400) . " days"; while ($fetch_array = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $fetch_array["code"] = htmlentities($fetch_array["code"]); $output .= "<li><a href=\"http://www.***.com/code=" . htmlspecialchars(urlencode($fetch_array["code"])) . "\" target=\"_blank\">" . htmlspecialchars($fetch_array["code"]) . "</a> (" . $interval . ") ago.</li>"; } $output .=""; return $output; Why is this returning janice (14461 days) instead of janice (15 minutes ago) The datetime function table has the DATETIME type in my table so it's returning a full string for the date.

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• How to set the the height of cell progamatically without using nib file ?

  - by srikanth rongali

  This is my program - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Uncomment the following line to display an Edit button in the navigation bar for this view controller. self.title = @"Library"; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Close" style:UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target:self action:@selector(close:)]; // self.tableView.rowHeight = 80; } -(void)close:(id)sender { // } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; UILabel *dateLabel = [[UILabel alloc]init]; dateLabel.frame = CGRectMake(85.0f, 6.0f, 200.0f, 20.0f); dateLabel.tag = tag1; [cell setAccessoryType:UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator]; cell.contentView.frame = CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 80.0f); [cell.contentView addSubview:dateLabel]; [dateLabel release]; } // Set up the cell... //[(UILabel *)[cell viewWithTag:tag1] setText:@"Date"]; cell.textLabel.text = @"Date"; return cell; } I am setting the frame size of cell in tableView: but the cell is in default size only. I mean the height I set was 80 but it was not set as 80 height. How can I make it. Thank You

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• threading in Python taking up too much CPU

  - by KevinShaffer

  I wrote a chat program and have a GUI running using Tkinter, and to go and check when new messages have arrived, I create a new thread so Tkinter keeps doing its thing without locking up while the new thread goes and grabs what I need and updates the Tkinter window. This however becomes a huge CPU hog, and my guess is that it has to do somehow with the fact that the Thread is started and never really released when the function is done. Here's the relevant code (it's ugly and not optimized at the moment, but it gets the job done, and itself does not use too much processing power, as when I run it not threaded, it doesn't take up much CPU but it locks up Tkinter) Note: This is inside of a class, hence the extra tab. def interim(self): threading.Thread(target=self.readLog).start() self.after(5000,self.interim) def readLog(self): print 'reading' try: length = len(str(self.readNumber)) f = open('chatlog'+str(myport),'r') temp = f.readline().replace('\n','') while (temp[:length] != str(self.readNumber)) or temp[0] == '<': temp = f.readline().replace('\n','') while temp: if temp[0] != '<': self.updateChat(temp[length:]) self.readNumber +=1 else: self.updateChat(temp) temp = f.readline().replace('\n','') f.close() Is there a way to better manage the threading so I don't consume 100% of the CPU very quickly?

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• jquery mobile - loading content into a div

  - by Robbiegod

  Jquery Mobile works by “hijacking” a page and loading content and injecting it into the page. It seems that this creates a problem when i try to inject other content into the page. I have my index.html and then a page2.html file. I'm setting up jquery mobile in the normal fashion wrapping the contents of each page in a div like so: <div id="container" data-role="page"> // my content <a href="page2.html">go to page 2</a> </div> when the user taps go to page 2, it does the nice slide effect. The url in the location bar looks like this: index.html#page2.html jquery mobile inject the content of the page using the anchors and applies the transition. nice so everthing works great up to the next part. On page2.html, i have a section that is loading some external data and injecting it into a div. <a href="http://www.somedomain.com/myata.php" class="ajaxtrigger" data-role="none">mydata</a> <div id="target"></div> <script src="js/code.js"></script> <script src="js/loader.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('.ajaxtrigger').trigger('click'); }); </script> The problem i am having is that when i enable the transitions in jquery mobile this script doesn't work. It won't load the data into the div. bummer. Anyone know what i need to do to get it to trigger and load the content into that div?

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• Database source control with Oracle

  - by borjab

  I have been looking during hours for a way to check in a database into source control. My first idea was a program for calculating database diffs and ask all the developers to imlement their changes as new diff scripts. Now, I find that if I can dump a database into a file I cound check it in and use it as just antother type of file. The main conditions are: Works for Oracle 9R2 Human readable so we can use diff to see the diferences. (.dmp files doesn't seem readable) All tables in a batch. We have more than 200 tables. It stores BOTH STRUCTURE AND DATA It supports CLOB and RAW Types. It stores Procedures, Packages and its bodies, functions, tables, views, indexes, contraints, Secuences and synonims. It can be turned into an executable script to rebuild the database into a clean machine. Not limitated to really small databases (Supports least 200.000 rows) It is not easy. I have downloaded a lot of demos that does fail in one way or another. EDIT: I wouldn't mind alternatives aproaches provided that they allows us to check a working system against our release DATABASE STRUCTURE AND OBJECTS + DATA in a bath mode. By the way. Our project has been developed for years. Some aproaches can be easily implemented when you make a fresh start but seem hard at this point. EDIT: To understand better the problem let's say that some users can sometimes do changes to the config data in the production eviroment. Or developers might create a new field or alter a view without notice in the realease branch. I need to be aware of this changes or it will be complicated to merge the changes into production.

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• Micrsoft Silverlight 3 cannot create service reference to localhost:port

  - by Monte

  Windows Server 2003 (IIS 6) Visual Studio 2008 .NET FrameWork 3.5 SP1 I am a .NET developer for a living and I have over 40 hours in the problem Project type = "Silverlight Navigation Application", "APS.NET Web Site" (when I tried it as "ASP.NET Web Application Project" I could not copy it to the production web site - well I could copy it but I could not make it run) Created a service.cs on the .Web side of the application. Created a reference to that service.cs on the Silverlight side. For a time all is good as I can reference the service as localhost:port (e.g. localhost:1374) in Visual Studio and debug both Silverlight side and service.cs To access the application in production mode (from IE) I update the service refrence and replace localhost:port with the IP address. The problem with the IP address is I cannot debug the service.cs so I have to change it back to localhost:port to debug. Now to the problem. After a period of time localhost:port just plain breaks. I get an error message no service at the other end Yes I know the port can change - that is not the problem - the port on the service side just plain breaks! For example from Visual Studio from the Silverlight side of the project right click "Service Reference", "Add Service Reverence". It finds 1 service in the application on a port. But when I click that service under "Services:" in the modal dialog box "Add Service Reference" I get an error: There was an error downloading 'http://localhost:1377/SehaleCSS.Web/Service.svc'. The request failed with the error message: -- Could not load file or assembly 'App_Web_tipnndfq, If I go back to the IP address the service is repsponding (with the right answer) The service just plain goes a while responding to localhost:port and then fails Even making NO change to service.cs it go a while then fails as a localhost:port It is not IIS environmental as I can go back to a prior saved version of the code and it works Something is happening that the .web side of the application is failing. It still works as an IP and it still exposes itself as a localhost:port but it fails to properly repsonde as a localhost:port.

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• Hide / Show menu code not working after postback

  - by WraithNath

  I have a button on my web page that toggles the menu, After a postback the menu comes back despite me updating a hidden field value to store its state. Am I doing something wrong here? If there is a better way of doing it, let me know! Markup: <asp:Button ID="btnMenu" runat="server" Text="Hide Menu" UseSubmitBehavior="False" OnClientClick="return toggleMenu(this);" /> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="pnlMenuToggle"> //Main Menu </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="pnlSubMenuToggle"> //Sub Menu </asp:Panel> <asp:HiddenField ID="hfMenuState" runat="server" Value="true" /> <script> //Toggles menu visibility function toggleMenu(menuButton) { var menuVisible = $('#<%=hfMenuState.ClientID%>').val() == 'true' ? true : false; $('#<%=pnlMenuToggle.ClientID%>').slideToggleWidth(); $('#<%=pnlSubMenuToggle.ClientID%>').slideToggle('slow'); //Update whether the menu is visible menuVisible = !menuVisible; //Update menu button text $(menuButton).val(menuVisible ? 'Hide Menu' : 'Show Menu'); $('#<%=hfMenuState.ClientID%>').val(menuVisible) return false; } </script> Code Behind: (Page Load) bool menu = Convert.ToBoolean( hfMenuState.Value ); pnlMenuToggle.Visible = menu; pnlSubMenuToggle.Visible = menu; The javascripts updates the hidden field value but it looks like this is never posted back to the server. What can I do to make sure the menu stays hidden after postbacks. I have also tried putting the hidden field in an Update Panel with Update Mode set to Always

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• What's the jquery CSS3 selector for excluding nested descendents?

  - by Danjah

  Per my SO question here, which has turned to jquery to solve this, but which may be worked back into YUI if I get my thinking straight, I need a selector to exclude descendents. The solution proposed says something like this: $( '.revealer:not(.revealer > .revealer)' ); To fit more accurately with my situation, because I have multiple HTML chunks to perform the same test on, I have updated it be: $( '#_revealerEl_0 .handle:not(#_revealerEl_0 .reveal .handle)' ); The HTML its selecting on (image there are numerous copies of this same chunk on a page, each needing to be treated alone - an id attribute is assigned to each 'revealer'): <div class="revealer"> <div class="hotspot"> <a class="handle" href="javascript:;">A</a> <div class="reveal"> <p>Content A.</p> </div> <div class="reveal"> <p>Content B.</p> <!-- nested revealer --> <div class="revealer"> <div class="hotspot"> <a class="handle" href="javascript:;">A</a> <div class="reveal"> <p>Sub-content A.</p> </div> <div class="reveal"> <p>Sub-content B.</p> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> In a nutshell: I need to target 'top level' handles within a 'hotspot', per revealer - and no nested descendents with the same class names. thanks, d

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• asp.net gridview bind dateformat not working with update

  - by Brabbeldas

  I have a GridView with a TemplateField column which shows a DateTime from a DataSource. <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Start Date"> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="txtDateStart" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("dtDateStart", "{0:dd/MM/yyyy}") %>'</asp:TextBox> </EditItemTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("dtDateStart", "{0:dd/MM/yyyy}") %>'></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> Displaying the date in the correct format works as it should. Note that the format starts with DAY followed by MONTH. When I switch to edit mode, change the date in the TextBox to '31-01-2013' and press the GridView's update-link i get an error: Cannot convert value of parameter 'dtDateStart' from 'System.String' to 'System.DateTime' The error is generated by the GridView not my own code. It happens before the UpdateMethod of my DataSource is called. When i type '01-31-2012' the data is processed correctly and the value is updated into the database. Somehow when the date is displayed it uses format dd-MM-yyyy (just as I need it to) But when it reads the new value form the TextBox it uses MM-dd-yyyy Can somebody please help me?

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• std::stringstream GCC Abnormal Behavior

  - by FlorianZ

  I have a very interesting problem with compiling a short little program on a Mac (GCC 4.2). The function below would only stream chars or strings into the stringstream, but not anything else (int, double, float, etc.) In fact, the fail flag is set if I attempt to convert for example an int into a string. However, removing the preprocessor flag: _GLIBCXX_DEBUG=1, which is set by default in XCode for the debug mode, will yield the desired results / correct behavior. Here is the simple function I am talking about. value is template variable of type T. Tested for int, double, float (not working), char and strings (working). template < typename T > const std::string Attribute<T>::getValueAsString() const { std::ostringstream stringValue; stringValue << value; return stringValue.str(); } Any ideas what I am doing wrong, why this doesn't work, or what the preprocessor flag does to make this not work anymore? Thanks!

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• jQuery.data() works in Mac OS WebKit, but not on iPhone OS?

  - by rpj

  I'm playing around with jQTouch for an iPhone OS app that I've been toying with off and on for a while. I wanted to try my hand building it as a web app so I started playing with jQTouch. For reference, here is the page+source (all my code is currently in index.html so you can just "View Source" to see it all): http://rpj.me/doughapp.com/wd/ Essentially, I'm trying to save pertinent JSON objects retrieved from Google Local into DOM objects using the data() method (in this example, obj is the Google Local object): $('#locPane').data('selected', obj); then later (in a different "pane"), retrieving that object to be used: $('#locPane').bind('pageAnimationEnd', function(e, inf) { var selobj = $(this).data('selected'); // use 'selobj' here ... } In Chromium and Safari on the desktop OS (Snow Leopard in my case), this works perfectly (try it out). However, the same code returns undefined for the call to $(this).data('selected') in the second snippet above. I've also tried $('#' + e.target.id).data('selected') and even the naive $('#locPane').data('selected'). All variants return undefined in the iPhone OS version of WebKit, but not on the desktop. Interestingly, the running this on Mobile Safari in the iPhone Simulator fails as well. If you look at the full source, you'll see that I even try to save this object into my global jQTouch object (named jqt in my code). This, too, fails on the mobile platform. Has anyone else ever ran into this? I'll admit to not being a web/javascript programmer by trade, so if I'm making an idiot's error please call me out on it. Thank you in advance for the help! -RPJ Update: I didn't make it clear in the original post, but I'm open to any workaround if it works consistently. Since I'm having trouble storing these objects in general, anything that allows me to keep them around is good enough for now. Thanks!

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• Visual Studio 2008 having problems with namespaces when used as type in Generic coolection

  - by patrick

  I just upgraded last week from Visual Studio 2005 to 2008. I am having an issue with compiler resolving namespaces when I use a class as a type in a Generic collection. Intellisense recognizes the class and the compiler generates no errors when I use the class except when it is a type in a Generic collection declaration either as return type for a Property or as a parameter to a method. This is happening in my only project that is targeting the 3.5 framework, but changing the project containing the class to use the 3.5 framework doesn't fix the problem. Examples Compile fine MyClass myClass = new MyClass(); SortedList <DateTime,MyClass> listOfClasses = new SortedList<DateTime,MyClass> Compile error - Namespace could not be found public SortedList<DateTime,MyClass> ClassList { get; set; } private void DoSomethingToLists(SortedList<DateTime,MyClass> classList) Intellisense has no problem resolving the namespace, only the compiler. Is this a known bug or am I missing something obvious? Will SP1 fix it? I was able to create a new library containing just this class targeting 3.5 and am now able to successfully use this in both 3.5 and 2.0 projects. My guess is that even though I tried to change the target of my original library, since it was still referencing 2.0 projects there was some conflict.

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• Sharepoint Active directory forms authentication

  - by Sushant

  Hi, I am devloping a sharepoint website in Forms authentication mode. I am trying to authenticate myself/ my company users against company's active directory. The ldap path I received from my technical team is LDAP://infinmumcfac.inf.com OU=Infotech,DC=inf,DC=com I got this piece of code from microsoft site. <membership defaultProvider="LdapMembershipProvider"> <providers> <add name="LdapMembership" type="Microsoft.Office.Server.Security.LDAPMembershipProvider, Microsoft.Office.Server, Version=12.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=71E9BCE111E9429C" server="DC" port="389" useSSL="false" userDNAttribute="distinguishedName" userNameAttribute="sAMAccountName" userContainer="CN=Users,DC=userName,DC=local" userObjectClass="person" userFilter="(|(ObjectCategory=group)(ObjectClass=person))" scope="Subtree" otherRequiredUserAttributes="sn,givenname,cn" /> </providers> </membership> The site asked me to change the Server and Usercontainer attribute. I have modified the code to <membership defaultProvider="LdapMembershipProvider"> <providers> <add name="LdapMembership" type="Microsoft.Office.Server.Security.LDAPMembershipProvider, Microsoft.Office.Server, Version=12.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=71E9BCE111E9429C" server=” infinmumcfac.inf.com” port="389" useSSL="false" userDNAttribute="distinguishedName" userNameAttribute="sAMAccountName" userContainer=" OU=Infotech,DC=inf,DC=com " userObjectClass="person" userFilter="(|(ObjectCategory=group)(ObjectClass=person))" scope="Subtree" otherRequiredUserAttributes="sn,givenname,cn" /> </providers> </membership> I placed this code in web.config file of central administration site and my sharepoint website . I am still facing login issues. Any help or insight would be highly grateful.Thanking in anticipation.

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• HTTP post using php and curl failing

  - by user2916484

  I am trying to send an XML file to an external system. I am using the below code for doing so, which I got over the internet. But I observed that when i put an echo on the xml variable, it does not show me the XML as a string, but it is parsing the xml and showing me the values. Same is happening when I am sending this to external system. Which is failing. Can you please tell me a way, in which the XML is not parsed and I can send the entire XML text as a string to external system? My code is below. <?php $xml = '<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding="UTF-8" ?><shiporder><orderID>1234</orderID> <orderperson>John Smith</orderperson></shiporder>'; $xml2 = ''; $headers = array( "Content-type: text/xml", "Content-length: " . strlen($xml), "Connection: close", ); // give the path of the Third party site $url = "http://<server>:<port>/XMII/Illuminator?service=WSMessageListener&mode=WSMessageListenerServer&NAME=shiporder&IllumLoginName=<name>&IllumLoginPassword=<pswd>"; echo $xml; echo $url; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,$url); //curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_MUTE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 10); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $xml); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $output = curl_exec($ch); echo $output; curl_close($ch); ?> Regards, Gita

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• Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

  - by Tony_Henrich

  My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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• Finding out the windows group by virtue of which a user is able to access a database in sql server?

  - by Raghu Dodda

  There is a SQL Server 2005 database with mixed-mode authentication. Among others, we have the following logins on the server: our-domain\developers-group-1, and our-domain\developers-group-2 which are AD groups. The our-domain\developer-group-2 is added to the sysadmin role on the server, by virture of which all domain users of that group can access any database as SQL Server implictly maps the sysadmin role to the dbo user in each database. There are two users our-domain\good-user and our-domain\bad-user The issue is the following: Both the good-user and the bad-user have the exact same AD group memberships. They are both members of our-domain\developers-group-1 and our-domain\developers-group-2. The good-user is able to access all the databases, and the bad-user is not. The bad-user is able to login, but he is unable access any databases. By the way, I am the good-user. How do I go about finding out why? Here's what I tried so far: When I do print current_user, I get dbo When I do print system_user, I get my-domain\good-user When I do select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I see permissions. But if do execute as user='my-domain\good-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. And When I do, execute as user='my-domain\bad-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. Also, I was wondering if there is a sql command that will tell me, "hey! the current database user is able to access this database because he is a member such-and-such ad-group, which is a login that is mapped to such-and-such user in this database".

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