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• Finding out the windows group by virtue of which a user is able to access a database in sql server?

  - by Raghu Dodda

  There is a SQL Server 2005 database with mixed-mode authentication. Among others, we have the following logins on the server: our-domain\developers-group-1, and our-domain\developers-group-2 which are AD groups. The our-domain\developer-group-2 is added to the sysadmin role on the server, by virture of which all domain users of that group can access any database as SQL Server implictly maps the sysadmin role to the dbo user in each database. There are two users our-domain\good-user and our-domain\bad-user The issue is the following: Both the good-user and the bad-user have the exact same AD group memberships. They are both members of our-domain\developers-group-1 and our-domain\developers-group-2. The good-user is able to access all the databases, and the bad-user is not. The bad-user is able to login, but he is unable access any databases. By the way, I am the good-user. How do I go about finding out why? Here's what I tried so far: When I do print current_user, I get dbo When I do print system_user, I get my-domain\good-user When I do select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I see permissions. But if do execute as user='my-domain\good-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. And When I do, execute as user='my-domain\bad-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. Also, I was wondering if there is a sql command that will tell me, "hey! the current database user is able to access this database because he is a member such-and-such ad-group, which is a login that is mapped to such-and-such user in this database".

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• Binding ComboBox Item with a text property of different DataContext

  - by Jhelumi786

  Hi Everyone, I have a comboBox as below. What I want is to bind the selectedItem value to a Text property of a datacontext so that another DataTemplate can show the Image. Please note that the Combobox and Target Image elements are on two different DataTemplates so that's why I need to update the Text Property (ImageName) ofDataContext at backend. <ComboBox x:Name="cboOverlay" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1" SelectedIndex="0" > <ComboBoxItem Name="BC_OL" IsSelected="True"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Source="Images\BC_OL.jpg" Width="100" Height="25" Canvas.Top="0" Canvas.Left="0" /> <TextBlock Width="100" VerticalAlignment="Center" TextAlignment="Center"><Bold>Image1</Bold></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </ComboBoxItem> <ComboBoxItem Name="Indian_OL"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Source="Images\Indian_OL.jpg" Width="100" Height="25" Canvas.Top="0" Canvas.Left="0" /> <TextBlock Width="100" VerticalAlignment="Center" TextAlignment="Center"><Bold>Image2</Bold></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> <Image Source="{Binding Path=Image}" Width="81" Height="25" Canvas.Top="0" Canvas.Left="0" />

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• WinRT 8.1 Phone - ListView reordering

  - by Jan Kratochvil

  I need to create a reorderable ListView in a Windows Phone 8.1 app created using WinRT. The XAML is the following (it binds to an ObservableDictionary in the codebehind): <Grid Margin="24"> <ListView x:Name="MainListView" CanDragItems="True" CanReorderItems="True" AllowDrop="True" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" > <ListView.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Border Padding="24" Margin="16" Background="CadetBlue"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding}" /> </Border> </DataTemplate> </ListView.ItemTemplate> </ListView> </Grid> The ListView does nothing when I try to reorder the items (it looks like the "reordering mode" is not activated). When I run this sample in Windows 8.1 (the XAML is shared) it works as expected. According to the documentation Windows Phone 8.1 should be supported. Is this functionality supported on the phone (and the documentation wrong) or do I need to do something special for the phone?

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• Where should test classes be stored in the project?

  - by limc

  I build all my web projects at work using RAD/Eclipse, and I'm interested to know where do you guys normally store your test's *.class files. All my web projects have 2 source folders: "src" for source and "test" for testcases. The generated *.class files for both source folders are currently placed under WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder. I want to separate the test *.class files from the src *.class files for 2 reasons:- There's no point to store them in WebContent/WEB-INF/classes and deploy them in production. Sonar and some other static code analysis tools don't produce an accurate static code analysis because it takes account of my crappy yet correct testcase code. So, right now, I have the following output folders:- "src" source folder compiles to WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder. "test" source folder compiles to target/test-classes folder. Now, I'm getting this warning from RAD:- Broken single-root rule: A project may not contain more than one output folder. So, it seems like Eclipse-based IDEs prefer one project = one output folder, yet it provides an option for me to set up a custom output folder for my additional source folder from the "build path" dialog, and then it barks at me. I know I can just disable this warning myself, but I want to know how you guys handle this. Thanks.

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• The best way to predict performance without actually porting the code?

  - by ardiyu07

  I believe there are people with the same experience with me, where he/she must give a (estimated) performance report of porting a program from sequential to parallel with some designated multicore hardwares, with a very few amount of time given. For instance, if a 10K LoC sequential program was given and executes on Intel i7-3770k (not vectorized) in 100 ms, how long would it take to run if one parallelizes the code to a Tesla C2075 with NVIDIA CUDA, given that all kinds of parallelizing optimization techniques were done? (but you're only given 2-4 days to report the performance? assume that you didn't know the algorithm at all. Or perhaps it'd be safer if we just assume that it's an impossible situation to finish the job) Therefore, I'm wondering, what most likely be the fastest way to give such performance report? Is it safe to calculate solely by the hardware's capability, such as GFLOPs peak and memory bandwidth rate? Is there a mathematical way to calculate it? If there is, please prove your method with the corresponding problem description and the algorithm, and also the target hardwares' specifications. Or perhaps there already exists such tool to (roughly) estimate code porting? (Please don't the answer: 'kill yourself is the fastest way.')

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• In Firefox, how to bring an existing popup window with multiple tabs to the front using javascript f

  - by brahn

  I would like to have a button on a web page with the following behavior: On the first click, open a pop-up. On later clicks, if the pop-up is still open, just bring it to the front. If not, re-open. The below code generally works in Firefox, Safari, and IE8 (see here for Chrome woes). However, I have found a failure mode in Firefox that I don't know how to deal with: If for some reason the user has opened a second tab in the pop-up window and that second tab has focus within that window, the popupWindow.focus() command fails to have any effect. (If the first tab has focus within that window, everything works just great.) So, how can I focus the popup and the desired tab in Firefox? <head> <script type="text/javascript"> var popupWindow = null; var doPopup = function () { if (popupWindow && !popupWindow.closed) { popupWindow.focus(); } else { popupWindow = window.open("http://google.com", "_blank", "width=200,height=200"); } }; </script> </head> <body> <button onclick="doPopup(); return false"> create a pop-up </button> </body> Background: I am re-asking this question specifically for Google Chrome, as I think I my code solves the problem at least for other modern browsers and IE8. If there is a preferred etiquette for doing so, please let me know.

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• How to embed revision information using mercurial and maven (and svn)

  - by Zwei Steinen

  Our project had a nice hack (although I'm guessing there are better ways to do it) to embed revision information into the artifacts (jar etc.) when we used svn. Now we have migrated to mercurial, and we want to have a similar thing, but before I start working on a similar hack with mercurial, I wanted to know if there are better ways to do this. Thanks for your answers! <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>exec-maven-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <phase>process-classes</phase> <id>svninfo</id> <goals> <goal>exec</goal> </goals> <configuration> <executable>svn</executable> <arguments> <argument>info</argument> <argument>../</argument> <argument>></argument> <argument>target/some-project/META-INF/svninfo.txt</argument> </arguments> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin>

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• Run a shell script using cron

  - by Blanca

  Hi! I have this FeedIndexer.sh: #!/bin/sh java -jar FeedIndexer.jar Just to run FeedIndexer.jar which is in the same directory as the .sh, I would like to run it using crontab, so I did this: # /etc/crontab: system-wide crontab # Unlike any other crontab you don't have to run the `crontab' # command to install the new version when you edit this file # and files in /etc/cron.d. These files also have username fields, # that none of the other crontabs do. SHELL=/bin/sh PATH=/usr/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/sbin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/usr/bin # m h dom mon dow user command 17 * * * * root cd / && run-parts --report /etc/cron.hourly 25 6 * * * root test -x /usr/sbin/anacron || ( cd / && run-parts --report /etc/cron.daily ) 47 6 * * 7 root test -x /usr/sbin/anacron || ( cd / && run-parts --report /etc/cron.weekly ) 52 6 1 * * root test -x /usr/sbin/anacron || ( cd / && run-parts --report /etc/cron.monthly ) 01 01 * * * root run-parts --report /home/slosada/workspace/FeedIndexer/target/FeedIndexer.sh # But it doen't work. Have i made any mistake?? Thank you!

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• Integrated Security on Reporting Services XML Datasource

  - by Nathan

  Hey all, I am working on setting up my report server to use a web service as an XML datasource. I seem to be having authentication issues between the web service and the report with I choose to use Integrated security. Here's what I have: 1) I have a website w/ an exposed service. This website is configured to run ONLY on Integrated Security. This means that we have all other modes turned off AND Enabled anonymous access turned off under directory security. 2) Within the Web.config of the website, I have the authentication mode set to Windows. 3) I have the report datasource set to being an XML data source. I have the correct URL to the service and have it set to Windows Integrated Security. Since I am making a hop from the Browser to the Reporting Server to the Web Service, I wonder if I am having an issue w/ Kerberos, but I am not sure. When I try to access the service, I get a 401 error. Here are the IIS logs that I am generating: 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 0 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 5 Has anyone worked out this issue before? Thanks!

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• transferring binary files between systems

  - by tim

  Hi guys I'm trying to transfer my files between 2 UNIX clusters, the data is pure numeric (vectors of double) in binary form. Unfortunately one of the systems is IBM ppc997 and the other is AMD Opteron, It seems the format of binary numbers in these systems are different. I have tried 3 ways till now: 1- Changed my files to ASCII format (i.e. saved a number at each line in a text file), sent them to the destination and changed them again to binary on the target system (they both are UNIX, no end of line character difference??!) 2- Sent pure binaries to the destination 3- used uuencode sent them to the destination and decoded them Unfortunately any of these methods does not work (my code in the destination system generates garbage, while it works on the first system, I'm 100% sure the code itself is portable). I don't know what else I can do? Do you have any idea? I'm not a professional, please don't use computer scientists terminology! And: my codes are in C, so by binary I mean a one to one mapping between memory and hard disk. Thanks

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• Flex Tree Properties, Null Reference?

  - by mvrak

  I am pulling down a large XML file and I have no control over it's structure. I used a custom function to use the tag name to view the tree structure as a flex tree, but then it breaks. I am guessing it has something to do with my other function, one that calls attribute values from the selected node. See code. <mx:Tree x="254" y="21" width="498" height="579" id="xmllisttree" labelFunction="namer" dataProvider="{treeData}" showRoot="false" change="treeChanged(event)" /> //and the Cdata import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; [Bindable] private var fullXML:XMLList; private function contentHandler(evt:ResultEvent):void{ fullXML = evt.result.page; } [Bindable] public var selectedNode:Object; public function treeChanged(event:Event):void { selectedNode=Tree(event.target).selectedItem; } public function namer(item:Object):String { var node:XML = XML(item); var nodeName:QName = node.name(); var stringtest:String ="bunny"; return nodeName.localName; } The error is TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. Where is the null reference?

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• WPF Binding Path=/ not working?

  - by Mark

  I've set up my DataContext like this: <Window.DataContext> <c:DownloadManager /> </Window.DataContext> Where DownloadManager is Enumerable<DownloadItem>. Then I set my DataGrid like this: <DataGrid Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=/}" ... So that it should list all the DownloadItems, right? So I should be able to set my columns like: <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=Uri, Mode=OneWay}" Where Uri is a property of the DownloadItem. But it doesn't seem to like this. In the visual property editor, it doesn't recognize Uri is a valid property, so I'm guessing I'm doing something wrong. It was working before, when I had the data grid binding to Values, but then I took that enumerable out of the DownloadManager and made itself enumerable. How do I fix this? PS: By "doesn't work" I mean it doesn't list any items. I've added some to the constructor of the DM, so it shouldn't be empty.

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• Flex 3 (Action Script): How to access a function from a loaded swf-file ?

  - by Trantec

  Hi, i load in ActionScript a swf file. So far no Problem, but I didn't found a way to access one of it's functions, the best thing would be if I could access the main function in the mxml part of the swf. Here is the code of the main-mxml file that belongs to the swf that should load and access another swf: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" initialize="basket();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.SWFLoader; private function basket(): void { var swfLoader: SWFLoader = new SWFLoader(); swfLoader.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, handleSWFLoaded ); try { swfLoader.load( "../../data/InternalSWF.swf" ); } catch (error: Error) { trace( "Couldn't load file !" ); } } private function handleSWFLoaded( event: Event ): void { var swfApp:* = event.target.content; // This both ways don't work... //if (swfApp.hasOwnProperty("initApp")) { // var initApp:Function = (swfApp["initApp"] as Function); // initApp(); //} // swfApp.initApp(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Text id="output" width="100%" textAlign="center" /> </mx:Application> The if-Statement "if (swfApp.hasOwnProperty("initApp")) {" is never true and the call "swfApp.initApp()" says that this function does not exist. In the original version I added event listeners for HTTPStatusEvent.HTTP_STATUS, IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR and SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR. But except for HTTP_STATUS = 0 none of them are called. Is the whole idea of how i try to do this wrong ?

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• AIX specific socket programming query

  - by kumar_m_kiran

  Hi All, Question 1 From SUSE man pages, I get the below details for socket connect options If the initiating socket is connection-mode, then connect() shall attempt to establish a connection to the address specified by the address argument. If the connection cannot be established immediately and O_NONBLOCK is not set for the file descriptor for the socket, connect() shall block for up to an unspecified timeout interval until the connection is established. If the timeout interval expires before the connection is established, connect() shall fail and the connection attempt shall be aborted. If connect() is interrupted by a signal that is caught while blocked waiting to establish a connection, connect() shall fail and set errno to [EINTR], but the connection request shall not be aborted, and the connection shall be established asynchronously. Question : Is the above contents valid for AIX OS (especially the connection time-out, timed wait ...etc)?Because I do not see it in AIX man pages (5.1 and 5.3) Question 2 I have a client socket whose attributes are a. SO_RCVTIMEO ,SO_SNDTIMEO are set for 5 seconds. b. AF_INET and SOCK_STREAM. c. SO_LINGER with linger on and time is 5 seconds. d. SO_REUSEADDR is set. Note that the client socket is not O_NONBLOCK. Question : Now since O_NONBLOCK is not set and SO_RCVTIMEO and SO_SNDTIMEO is set for 5 seconds, does it mean a. connect in NON Blocking or Blocking? b. If blocking, is it timed blocking or "infinite" time blocking? c. If it is infinite, How do I establish a "connect" system call which is O_BLOCKING with timeout to t secs. Sorry if the questions are be very naive. Thanks in advance for your input.

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• Javascript access object variables from functions

  - by Parhs

  function init_exam_chooser(id,mode) { this.id=id; this.table=$("#" + this.id); this.htmlRowOrder="<tr>" + $("#" + this.id + " tbody tr:eq(0)").html() + "</tr>"; this.htmlRowNew="<tr>" + $("#" + this.id + " tbody tr:eq(1)").html() + "</tr>"; $("#" + this.id + " tbody tr").remove(); //Arxikopoiisi var rowNew=$(this.htmlRowNew); rowNew.find("input[type='text']").eq(0).autocomplete({ source: function (req,resp) { $.ajax({ url: "/medilab/prototypes/exams/searchQuick", cache: false, dataType: "json", data:{codeName:req.term}, success: function(data) { resp(data); } }); }, focus: function(event,ui) { return false; }, minLength :2 }); rowNew.find("input[type='text']").eq(1).autocomplete({ source: function (req,resp) { $.ajax({ url: "/medilab/prototypes/exams/searchQuick", cache: false, dataType: "json", data:{name:req.term}, success: function(data) { resp(data); } }); }, focus: function(event,ui) { return false; }, minLength :2 }); rowNew.find("input[type='text']").bind( "autocompleteselect", function(event, ui) { alert(htmlRowOrder); var row=$(htmlRowOrder); $(table).find("tbody tr:last").before(row); alert(ui.item.id); }); rowNew.appendTo($(this.table).find("tbody")); //this.htmlRowNew } The problem is at ,how i can access htmlRowOrder? I tried this.htmlRowOrder and didnt work.... Any ideas?? rowNew.find("input[type='text']").bind( "autocompleteselect", function(event, ui) { alert(htmlRowOrder); var row=$(htmlRowOrder); $(table).find("tbody tr:last").before(row); alert(ui.item.id); });

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• How combine TabBar + Navigation with XCode

  - by mamcx

  I'm triying to combine a TabBar + Navigation app. I have 5 tab bars, 4 are listing of stuff and drill down to details views. I try to follow this tutorial: http://www.iphonedevforums.com/forum/iphone-sdk-development/124-view-controller-problem.html But always get a blank view. This is what I do, with a clean project: I start with a TabBar template app. I put 5 tab bar buttons. I create a controller like: @interface FirstViewController : UINavigationController { } I put the main window.xib on tree mode & change the selected first view to FirstViewController I select the TabBar Controller in Interface builder, go to TabBar Attributes & change the class to navigation controler. Select the fist view & put the nib name "SecondView" In response, I get a blank screen. I must add that I wanna navigate from the details views, no from the main windows. i.e in the main window tab bar 1 is the list of people. I select a person then wanna navigate to the detail window.

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• jQuery / Loading content into div and changing url's (working but buggy)

  - by Bruno

  This is working, but I'm not being able to set an index.html file on my server root where i can specify the first page to go. It also get very buggy in some situations. Basically it's a common site (menu content) but the idea is to load the content without refreshing the page, defining the div to load the content, and make each page accessible by the url. One of the biggest problems here it's dealing with all url situations that may occur. The ideal would be to have a rel="divToLoadOn" and then pass it on my loadContent() function... so I would like or ideas/solutions for this please. Thanks in advance! //if page comes from URL if(window.location.hash != ''){ var url = window.location.hash; url = '..'+url.substr(1, url.length); loadContent(url); } //if page comes from an internal link $("a:not([target])").click(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var url = $(this).attr("href"); if(url != '#'){ loadContent($(this).attr("href")); } }); //LOAD CONTENT function loadContent(url){ var contentContainer = $("#content"); //set load animation $(contentContainer).ajaxStart(function() { $(this).html('loading...'); }); $.ajax({ url: url, dataType: "html", success: function(data){ //store data globally so it can be used on complete window.data = data; }, complete: function(){ var content = $(data).find("#content").html(); var contentTitle = $(data).find("title").text(); //change url var parsedUrl = url.substr(2,url.length) window.location.hash = parsedUrl; //change title var titleRegex = /(.*)<\/title/.exec(data); contentTitle = titleRegex[1]; document.title = contentTitle; //renew content $(contentContainer).fadeOut(function(){ $(this).html(content).fadeIn(); }); }); }

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• html escape characters

  - by user1468537

  I have the following: <form name="input" method="get" action="http://site:8083/Default.aspx?DC=" target="foo" onSubmit="window.open('', 'foo', 'width=1100 height=500,status=no,resizable=yes,scrollbars=yes')"> <select name="DC"> <option value="1&Type=type1">1</option> <option value="2&Type=type2">2</option> <option value="3&Type=type3">3</option> <option value="4&Type=type4">4</option> <option value="5&Type=type5">5</option> <option value="6&Type=type6">6</option> <option value="7&Type=type7">7</option> </select> <input type="submit" value=">>"/>&nbsp;&nbsp; </form> Basically my querystring should be something like DC=1&Type=type1 the problem I have is that when I click the button above the html screws up the stirng by changing & to %26 and = to %3D How can I make the value stay as I have it in the code above?

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• iPhone dev: UIBarButtonItem or title not showing up in NavigationBar

  - by IceMan85

  Hello everyone, here my problem. I have a NavigationBar at the top, a TabBar at the bottom and a TableView at the center of the screen. Very normal situation. I set it all up in IB and I have set this in the app delegate : ExpensesListNavController *expensesListNavController; This in order to be able to add new views to the stack. I need to have 3 levels: - list of items in a TableView - OK - firstLevel: once pressed one cell a view is added to the stack - OK - second level: one pressed the "modify" button on the navBar on the firstLevel I want to show a new view that can be customized by the user. My Problem is coming when trying to add the "Modify" button in the "firstLevelView". Here-below my code -(IBAction) modify:(id)sender { if (editableDetailViewController == nil) { editableDetailViewController = [[editableDetailViewController alloc] init]; } editableDetailViewController.expense = expense; [appDelegate.expensesListNavController pushViewController:editableDetailViewController animated:YES]; editableDetailViewController = nil; } // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; appDelegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; UIBarButtonItem *modifyButton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Modify" style:UIBarButtonItemStylePlain target:self action:@selector(modify:)]; appDelegate.expensesListNavController.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = modifyButton; appDelegate.expensesListNavController.navigationItem.title = @"Titoloooo"; NSLog(@"NavBar button has just been set !!"); [modifyButton release]; Nothing is being showed, neither title nor the button. Do you have any idea of what is happening ?? I really cannot figure out !!! Thanks a lot in advance, AM

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• Session scoped bean as class attribute of Spring MVC Controller

  - by Sotirios Delimanolis

  I have a User class: @Component @Scope("session") public class User { private String username; } And a Controller class: @Controller public class UserManager { @Autowired private User user; @ModelAttribute("user") private User createUser() { return user; } @RequestMapping(value = "/user") public String getUser(HttpServletRequest request) { Random r = new Random(); user.setUsername(new Double(r.nextDouble()).toString()); request.getSession().invalidate(); request.getSession(true); return "user"; } } I invalidate the session so that the next time i got to /users, I get another user. I'm expecting a different user because of user's session scope, but I get the same user. I checked in debug mode and it is the same object id in memory. My bean is declared as so: <bean id="user" class="org.synchronica.domain.User"> <aop:scoped-proxy/> </bean> I'm new to spring, so I'm obviously doing something wrong. I want one instance of User for each session. How?

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• Problem consuming a dataset via a .NET web service from Flex-ActionScript

  - by DEH

  Hi, I am returning a .NET dataset to Flex Actionscript via a web service. Actionscript snippet as follows: var websvc:WebService = new WebService(); websvc.useProxy=false; websvc.wsdl = "http://localhost:13229/test/mysvc.asmx?WSDL"; websvc.loadWSDL(); var operation:Operation = new Operation(null, "GetData"); operation.arguments.command="xx_gethierdata_"+mode+"_"+identifier; operation.addEventListener(ResultEvent.RESULT, onResultHandler, false, 0, true); operation.addEventListener(FaultEvent.FAULT, onFaultHandler, false, 0, true); operation.resultFormat="object"; websvc.operations = [operation]; operation.send(); Once in the onResultHandler function I have access to the datatable - I then want to grab the column names. The following code outputs my column names: for each (var tcolumn:Object in datatable.Columns){trace('Column:'+tcolumn);} This works ok, but the column names are encoded, so a column name that is actually "1-9" is output as "_x005B_1-9_x005D_" Anyone know the best way to decode the column name? I could replace all the encoding strings, but surely there is a better way? Thanks

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• How to add an object to a html string?

  - by Philippe Maes

  I'm trying to load several images by a drop action and than resizing them and adding them as a thumbnail. The resize part is very important because the images can be very large and I want to make the thumbnails small of size. Here is my code: loadingGif(drop); for (var i=0;i<files.length;i++) { var file = files[i]; var reader = new FileReader(); reader.onload = function(e) { var src = e.target.result; var img = document.createElement('img'); img.src = src; var scale = 100/img.height; img.height = 100; img.width = scale*img.width; output.push('<div id="imagecontainer"><div id="image">'+img+'</div><div id="delimage"><img src="img/del.jpg"" /></div></div>'); if(output.length == files.length) { drop.removeChild(drop.lastChild); drop.innerHTML += output.join(''); output.length = 0; } } reader.readAsDataURL(file); } As you can probably tell I insert a loading gif image in my dropzone until all files are loaded (output.length == files.length). When a file is loaded I add html to an array which I will print if the load is complete. The problem is I can't seem to add the img object (I need this object to resize the image) to the html string, which seems obvious as the img is an object... So my question to you guys is: how do I do this? :)

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• get random password with puppet function

  - by ninja-2

  I have a function that allow me to generate random password. My function is working well without a puppetmaster. When i tried with a master an error appear when I called the function : Error 400 on SERVER: bad value for range Here is my function module Puppet::Parser::Functions newfunction(:get_random_password, :type => :rvalue, :doc => <<-EOS Returns a random password. EOS ) do |args| raise(Puppet::ParseError, "get_random_password(): Wrong number of arguments " + "given (#{args.size} for 1)") if args.size != 1 specials = ((33..33).to_a + (35..38).to_a + (40..47).to_a + (58..64).to_a + (91..93).to_a + (95..96).to_a + (123..125).to_a).pack('U*').chars.to_a numbers = (0..9).to_a alphal = ('a'..'z').to_a alphau = ('A'..'Z').to_a length = args[0] CHARS = (alphal + specials + numbers + alphau) pwd = CHARS.sort_by { rand }.join[0...length] return pwd end end The function is called in both case with $pwd = get_random_password(10). When I specified the length directly in the function to 10 for example. the password is well generated in master mode. Have you any idea why i can't specify the lentgth value ? Thanks for any help.

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• Does tableViewController behave incorrectly when hosted by a popoverController?

  - by dugla

  I have made countless test examples of a tableViewController hosted by a popoverController and I have come to the following conclusion: It does not appear possible to pre-select a tableView cell. It is possible to do pre-selection when a tableViewController is hosted by a splitviewController. I am using the exact same tableViewController code. Here is the relevant tableViewController view lifecycle method that is misbehaving: static BOOL firstTime = YES; - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { NSLog(@"Root ViewController - view Did Appear"); [super viewDidAppear:animated]; if (firstTime == YES) { firstTime = NO; NSIndexPath *preselectedCell = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:5 inSection:0]; [self.tableView selectRowAtIndexPath:preselectedCell animated:NO scrollPosition:UITableViewScrollPositionTop]; detailViewController.detailItem = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Row %d", preselectedCell.row]; } // if (firstTime == YES) } The above code correctly preselects a tableView cell the first time the tableView is unfurled in the splitViewController case (device in portrait mode). Can someone please, please, explain what I am doing wrong. I am completely stumped. Thanks, Doug

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• Provider not notified from cookbook_file

  - by wittyhandle

  I'm working on an ssl provider using Vagrant (1.0.5) and chef-solo (10.12.0) I have my provider, called ssl within a cookbook called gtm_cq, I define it as such in my cookbook's default recipe: gtm_cq_ssl "author" do # attributes will come later end I then have my cookbook_file like below that should notify my ssl provider's import action once it pushes the cert up to the server: cookbook_file "#{node[:cq][:ssl][:author_cert_location]}/foo.cer" do source "foo.cer" owner "crx" group "root" mode "0644" notifies :import, resources(:gtm_cq_ssl => "author") end When I run this, the foo.cer gets pushed up as expected, but the import action of my ssl provider is never called. The most I see of any reference is these couple of lines in the log (removed log headers): .. cookbook_file[/opt/cq5/author/foo.cer] sending import action to gtm_cq_ssl[author] (delayed) .. Processing gtm_cq_ssl[author] action import (gtm_cq::author line 34) There's a large very obvious log statement as well as the use of another cookbook_file for a test file to push something up to the server. No log statement, no test file pushed. I'm certain too that the foo.cer file is removed from the server before each test. I found that if I edit my notifies line like so with :immediately notifies :import, resources(:gtm_cq_ssl => "author"), :immediately It seems to work. And I suppose this is ok in my particular case, but it would seem something is not right if that's the only way I can call my provider. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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