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  • Django error - no module named

    - by Shreyas
    Here is my relevant directory structure (Windows 7, Python 2.7, virtualenv) -userProf - - manage.py - -UserProfile - sampleapp_db - urls.py - views.py - wsgi.py - __init__.py - -libs - - __init__.py - -allauth - - app_settings.py - - models.py - - tests.py - - urls.py - - utils.py - - - -account - - - admin.py - - - context_processors.py - - - models.py - - - urls.py - - - __init__.py - -socialaccount - - - admin.py - - - context_processors.py - - - models.py - - - urls.py - - - views.py - - - __init__.py - - - - -templates - -account - - - base.html - - - email.html -settings - base_settings.py - dev.py - __init__.py - -static -css I get the following error when I try to run this dango app Error: No module named account I have read other posts on SO that refer to the syspath being the issue or that the appname matches the project name Django Shell No module named settings ...as a result of this, I added the following statements in the base_settings.py file import sys base = os.path.abspath(os.path.dirname(os.path.dirname(__file__))) base_parent = os.path.dirname(base) sys.path.append(base) sys.path.append(base_parent) sys.path.append(os.path.join(base,'libs')) sys.path.append(os.path.join(base,'libs','allauth','account')) I verified that the sys.path is correct by putting a break in PyCharm and evaluating sys.path Should I be putting this in manage.py? Some other SO postings referred to not being able to import the module but I can launch the python console and import UserProfile.libs.allauth.account without any exceptions being thrown! My base_setings.py has the following relevant section INSTALLED_APPS = ( 'UserProfile.libs.allauth.account', )

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  • Extand legacy site with another server-side programming platform best practice

    - by Andrew Florko
    Company I work for have a site developed 6-8 years ago by a team that was enthusiastic enough to use their own private PHP-based CMS. I have to put dynamic data from one intranet company database on this site in one week: 2-3 pages. I contacted company site administrator and she showed me administrative part - CMS allows only to insert html blocks & manage site map (site is deployed on machine that is inside company & fully accessible & upgradable). I'm not a PHP-guy & I don't want to dive into legacy hardly-who-ever-heard-about CMS engine I also don't want to contact developers team, 'cos I'm not sure they are still present and capable enough to extend this old days site and it'll take too much time anyway. I am about to deploy helper asp.net site on iis with 2-3 pages required & refer helper site via iframe from present site. New pages will allow to download some dynamic content from present site also. Is it ok and what are the pitfalls with iframe approach?

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  • Preventing a button from responding to 'Enter' in ASP.net

    - by kd7iwp
    I have a master template that all the pages on my site use. In the template there is an empty panel. In the code-behind for the page an imagebutton is created in the panel dynamically in my Page_Load section (makes a call to the DB to determine which button should appear via my controller). On some pages that use this template and have forms on them, pressing the Enter key fires the click event on this imagebutton rather than the submit button in the form. Is there a simple way to prevent the imagebutton click event from firing unless it's clicked by the mouse? I'm thinking a javascript method is a hack, especially since the button doesn't even exist in the master template until the button is dynamically created on Page_Load (this is ugly since I can't simply do <% =btnName.ClientId %> to refer to the button's name in my aspx page). I tried setting a super-high tabindex for the image button and that did nothing. Also set the button to be the DefaultButton in its panel on the master template but that did not work either.

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  • How can I create a finger scrollable Textbox in WM 6.5?

    - by Papajohn
    Hi everybody. I just noticed something weird in WM 6.5 emulators. Unlike 6.1 where finger panning kind of worked, the only way to scroll a Textbox appears to be through scrollbars. This behaviour is in contrast to what they have done for comboboxes: they are now gesture-friendly without the programmer's intervention. I.e. the user can select a choice from a standard drop down menu by panning and scrolling. Previously, you had to use the embedded scrollbar. The combobox's case implies that MS took some measures to provide standard gesture support for classic finger gestures, yet I cannot see something similar for textboxes. This makes me ask the following: Is there anything that can be done to make textboxes finger scrollabe easily? Note that I refer to managed .NET CF development. It is my understanding that in native development I could use the new Gestures API to achieve the scrolling effect. Yet, I am not sure if there is an easier and more straightforward method that I have missed.

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  • Do fluent interfaces significantly impact runtime performance of a .NET application?

    - by stakx
    I'm currently occupying myself with implementing a fluent interface for an existing technology, which would allow code similar to the following snippet: using (var directory = Open.Directory(@"path\to\some\directory")) { using (var file = Open.File("foobar.html").In(directory)) { // ... } } In order to implement such constructs, classes are needed that accumulate arguments and pass them on to other objects. For example, to implement the Open.File(...).In(...) construct, you would need two classes: // handles 'Open.XXX': public static class OpenPhrase { // handles 'Open.File(XXX)': public static OpenFilePhrase File(string filename) { return new OpenFilePhrase(filename); } // handles 'Open.Directory(XXX)': public static DirectoryObject Directory(string path) { // ... } } // handles 'Open.File(XXX).XXX': public class OpenFilePhrase { internal OpenFilePhrase(string filename) { _filename = filename } // handles 'Open.File(XXX).In(XXX): public FileObject In(DirectoryObject directory) { // ... } private readonly string _filename; } That is, the more constituent parts statements such as the initial examples have, the more objects need to be created for passing on arguments to subsequent objects in the chain until the actual statement can finally execute. Question: I am interested in some opinions: Does a fluent interface which is implemented using the above technique significantly impact the runtime performance of an application that uses it? With runtime performance, I refer to both speed and memory usage aspects. Bear in mind that a potentially large number of temporary, argument-saving objects would have to be created for only very brief timespans, which I assume may put a certain pressure on the garbage collector. If you think there is significant performance impact, do you know of a better way to implement fluent interfaces?

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  • Are Fortran control characters (carriage control) still implemented in compilers?

    - by CmdrGuard
    In the book Fortran 95/2003 for Scientists and Engineers, there is much talk given to the importance of recognizing that the first column in a format statement is reserved for control characters. I've also seen control characters referred to as carriage control on the internet. To avoid confusion, by control characters, I refer to the characters "1, a blank (i.e. \s), 0, and +" as having an effect on the vertical spacing of output when placed in the first column (character) of a FORMAT statement. Also, see this text-only web page written entirely in fixed-width typeface : Fortran carriage-control (because nothing screams accuracy and antiquity better than prose in monospaced font). I found this page and others like it to be not quite clear. According to Fortran 95/2003 for Scientists and Engineers, failure to recall that the first column is reserved for carriage control can lead to horrible unintended output. Paraphrasing Dave Barry, type the wrong character, and nuclear missiles get fired at Norway. However, when I attempt to adhere to this stern warning, I find that gfortran has no idea what I'm talking about. Allow me to illustrate my point with some example code. I am trying to print out the number Pi: PROGRAM test_format IMPLICIT NONE REAL :: PI = 2 * ACOS(0.0) WRITE (*, 100) PI WRITE (*, 200) PI WRITE (*, 300) PI 100 FORMAT ('1', "New page: ", F11.9) 200 FORMAT (' ', "Single Space: ", F11.9) 300 FORMAT ('0', "Double Space: ", F11.9) END PROGRAM test_format This is the output: 1New page: 3.141592741 Single Space: 3.141592741 0Double Space: 3.141592741 The "1" and "0" are not typos. It appears that gfortran is completely ignoring the control character column. My question, then, is this: Are control characters still implemented in standards compliant compilers or is gfortran simply not standards compliant? For clarity, here is the output of my gfortran -v Using built-in specs. Target: powerpc-apple-darwin9 Configured with: ../gcc-4.4.0/configure --prefix=/sw --prefix=/sw/lib/gcc4.4 --mandir=/sw/share/man --infodir=/sw/share/info --enable-languages=c,c++,fortran,objc,java --with-gmp=/sw --with-libiconv-prefix=/sw --with-ppl=/sw --with-cloog=/sw --with-system-zlib --x-includes=/usr/X11R6/include --x-libraries=/usr/X11R6/lib --disable-libjava-multilib --build=powerpc-apple-darwin9 --host=powerpc-apple-darwin9 --target=powerpc-apple-darwin9 Thread model: posix gcc version 4.4.0 (GCC)

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  • how can exec change the behavior of exec'ed program

    - by R Samuel Klatchko
    I am trying to track down a very odd crash. What is so odd about it is a workaround that someone discovered and which I cannot explain. The workaround is this small program which I'll refer to as 'runner': #include <stdio.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <string.h> #include <errno.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { if (argc == 1) { fprintf(stderr, "Usage: %s prog [args ...]\n", argv[0]); return 1; } execvp(argv[1], argv + 1); fprintf(stderr, "execv failed: %s\n", strerror(errno)); // If exec returns because the program is not found or we // don't have the appropriate permission return 255; } As you can see, all this program does is use execvp to replace itself with a different program. The program crashes when it is directly invoked from the command line: /path/to/prog args # this crashes but works fine when it is indirectly invoked via my runner shim: /path/to/runner /path/to/prog args # works successfully For the life of me, I can figure out how having an extra exec can change the behavior of the program being run (as you can see the program does not change the environment). Some background on the crash. The crash itself is happening in the C++ runtime. Specifically, when the program does a throw, the crashing version incorrectly thinks there is no matching catch (although there is) and calls terminate. When I invoke the program via runner, the exception is properly caught. My question is any idea why the extra exec changes the behavior of the exec'ed program?

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  • How to get resultset with stored procedure calls over two linked servers?

    - by räph
    I have problems filling a temporary table with the resultset from a procedure call on a linked server, in which again a procedure on another server is called. I have a Stored Procedure sproc1 with the following code, which calls another procedure sproc2 on a linked server. SET @sqlCommand = 'INSERT INTO #tblTemp ( ModuleID, ParamID) ' + '( SELECT * FROM OPENQUERY(' + @targetServer + ', ' + '''SET FMTONLY OFF; EXEC ' + @targetDB + '.usr.sproc2 ' + @param + ''' ) )' exec ( @sqlCommand ) Now in the called sproc2 I again call a third procedure sproc3 on another linked server, which returns my resultset. SET @sqlCommand = 'EXEC ' + @targetServer +'.database.usr.sproc3 ' + @param exec ( @sqlCommand ) The whole thing doen't work, as I get an SQL error 7391 The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "%ls" for linked server "%ls" was unable to begin a distributed transaction. I already checked the hints at this microsoft article, but without success. But maybe, I can change the code in sproc1. Would there be some alternative to the temp table and the open query? Just calling stored procedures from server A to B to C and returning the resultset is working (I do this often in the application). But this special case with the temp table and openquery doesn't work! Or is it just not possible what I am trying to do? The microsft article states: Check the object you refer on the destination server. If it is a view or a stored procedure, or causes an execution of a trigger, check whether it implicitly references another server. If so, the third server is the source of the problem. Run the query directly on the third server. If you cannot run the query directly on the third server, the problem is not actually with the linked server query. Resolve the underlying problem first. Is this my case? PS: I can't avoid the architecture with the three servers.

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  • Atomic int writes on file

    - by Waneck
    Hello! I'm writing an application that will have to be able to handle many concurrent accesses to it, either by threads as by processes. So no mutex'es or locks should be applied to this. To make the use of locks go down to a minimum, I'm designing for the file to be "append-only", so all data is first appended to disk, and then the address pointing to the info it has updated, is changed to refer to the new one. So I will need to implement a small lock system only to change this one int so it refers to the new address. How is the best way to do it? I was thinking about maybe putting a flag before the address, that when it's set, the readers will use a spin lock until it's released. But I'm afraid that it isn't at all atomic, is it? e.g. a reader reads the flag, and it is unset on the same time, a writer writes the flag and changes the value of the int the reader may read an inconsistent value! I'm looking for locking techniques but all I find is either for thread locking techniques, or to lock an entire file, not fields. Is it not possible to do this? How do append-only databases handle this? Thanks! Cauê

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  • constructor function's object literal returns toString() method but no other method

    - by JohnMerlino
    I'm very confused with javascript methods defined in objects and the "this" keyword. In the below example, the toString() method is invoked when Mammal object instantiated: function Mammal(name){ this.name=name; this.toString = function(){ return '[Mammal "'+this.name+'"]'; } } var someAnimal = new Mammal('Mr. Biggles'); alert('someAnimal is '+someAnimal); Despite the fact that the toString() method is not invoked on the object someAnimal like this: alert('someAnimal is '+someAnimal.toString()); It still returns 'someAnimal is [Mammal "Mr. Biggles"]' . That doesn't make sense to me because the toString() function is not being called anywhere. Then to add even more confusion, if I change the toString() method to a method I make up such as random(): function Mammal(name){ this.name=name; this.random = function(){ return Math.floor(Math.random() * 15); } } var someAnimal = new Mammal('Mr. Biggles'); alert(someAnimal); It completely ignores the random method (despite the fact that it is defined the same way was the toString() method was) and returns: [object object] Another issue I'm having trouble understanding with inheritance is the value of "this". For example, in the below example function person(w,h){ width.width = w; width.height = h; } function man(w,h,s) { person.call(this, w, h); this.sex = s; } "this" keyword is being send to the person object clearly. However, does "this" refer to the subclass (man) or the super class (person) when the person object receives it? Thanks for clearing up any of the confusion I have with inheritance and object literals in javascript.

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  • Getting elements children with certain tag jQuery

    - by johnnyArt
    I'm trying to get all the input elements from a certain form from jQuery by providing only the name of the form and only knowing that those wanted fields are input elements. Let's say: <form action='#' id='formId'> <input id='name' /> <input id='surname'/> </form> How do I access them individually with jQuery? I tried something like $('#formId > input') with no success, in fact an error came back on the console "XML filter is applied to non-XML value (function (a, b) {return new (c.fn.init)(a, b);})" Maybe I have to do it with .children or something like that? I'm pretty new at jQuery and I'm not really liking the Docs. It was much friendlier in Mootools, or maybe I just need to get used to it. Oh and last but not least, I've seen it asked before but no final answer, can I create a new dom element with jQuery and work with it before inserting it (if I ever do) into de code? In mootools, we had something like var myEl = new Element(element[, properties]); and you could then refer to it in further expressions, but I fail to understand how to do that on jQuery Thanks in advance.

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  • How do the size standard libraries compare for different languages

    - by Roman A. Taycher
    Someone was recently raving about how great jQuery was and how it made javascript into a pleasure and also how the whole source code was so small(and one file). I looked it up on www.ohloh.net/ and it said it was about 30,000 lines of javascript, when I tired curl piped to wc it said about 5000 lines(strange discrepancy that, maybe test suites, ect?). I thought well it isn't that strange since javascript from what I've heard has a lot of fun dynamic tricks, so you can probably get away with a small library. But then I thought what about other high level languages, the ones with large standard libraries and wondered how big the standard are for python/ruby/haskell/pharo(smalltalk)/*ml/ect. (libraries not vm stuff to the degree its possible to separate it) Anybody know? Any details (comment/blank/code lines , test code lines, lines in language vs lines in ffi/byte-code) are appreciated! edit: ps. since it started this me asking about jQuery as a bonus if you could please list the size of mega frameworks, a megaframewok provides so much that people using an x megaframework in language y might sometimes refer to programming in xy or even x rather then in y (ie. : qt, jQuery, etc.).

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  • Python csv reader acting weird

    - by PylonsN00b
    So OK if I run this wrong code: csvReader1 = csv.reader(file('new_categories.csv', "rU"), delimiter=',') for row1 in csvReader1: print row1[0] print row1[8] category_sku = str(row[8]) if category_sku == sku: classifications["Craft"] = row[0] classifications["Theme"] = row[1] I get: Knitting 391 Traceback (most recent call last): File "upload_all_inventory_ebay.py", line 403, in <module> inventory_item_list = get_item_list(product) File "upload_all_inventory_ebay.py", line 294, in get_item_list category_sku = str(row[8]) NameError: global name 'row' is not defined Where Knitting and 391 are exactly right, of course I need to refer to row[8] as row1[8]...k so I do this: csvReader1 = csv.reader(file('new_categories.csv', "rU"), delimiter=',') for row1 in csvReader1: print row1[0] print row1[8] category_sku = str(row1[8]) if category_sku == sku: classifications["Craft"] = row1[0] classifications["Theme"] = row1[1] And I get this: ........... Crochet 107452 Knitting 107454 Knitting 107455 Knitting 107456 Knitting 107457 Crochet 108200 Crochet 108201 Crochet 108205 Crochet 108213 Crochet 108214 Crochet 108217 108432 Quilt 108451 108482 108488 Scrapbooking 108711 Knitting 122363 Needlework Beading Crafts & Decorating Crochet Crochet Crochet Traceback (most recent call last): File "upload_all_inventory_ebay.py", line 403, in <module> inventory_item_list = get_item_list(product) File "upload_all_inventory_ebay.py", line 292, in get_item_list print row1[0] IndexError: list index out of range Where the output you see there is every effing thing in column 0 and column 1 !!!!!!!!!! Why? And WHY is row1[0] out of range if it wasn't before. YAY Fridays!

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  • PHP: tips/resources/patterns for learning to implement a basic ORM

    - by BoltClock
    I've seen various MVC frameworks as well as standalone ORM frameworks for PHP, as well as other ORM questions here; however, most of the questions ask for existing frameworks to get started with, which is not what I'm looking for. (I have also read this SO question but I'm not sure what to make of it, and the answers are vague.) Instead, I figured I'd learn best by getting my hands dirty and actually writing my own ORM, even a simple one. Except I don't really know how to get started, especially since the code I see in other ORMs is so complicated. With my PHP 5.2.x (this is important) MVC framework I have a basic custom database abstraction layer, that has: Very simple methods like connect($host, $user, $pass, $base), query($sql, $binds), etc Subclasses for each DBMS that it supports A class (and respective subclasses) to represent SQL result sets But does not have: Active Record functionality, which I assume is an ORM thing (correct me if I'm wrong) I've read up a little about ORM, and from my understanding they provide a means to further abstract data models from the database itself by representing data as nothing more than PHP-based classes/objects; again, correct me if I am wrong or have missed out in any way. Still, I'd like some simple tips from anyone else who's dabbled more or less with ORM frameworks. Is there anything else I need to take note of, simple example code for me to refer to, or resources I can read? Thanks a lot in advance!

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  • A monkey could do this better - Access to and availability of private member functions in C++

    - by David
    I am wandering the desert of my brain. I'm trying to write something like the following: class MyClass { // Peripherally Related Stuff public: void TakeAnAction(int oneThing, int anotherThing) { switch(oneThing){ case THING_A: TakeThisActionWith(anotherThing); break; //cases THINGS_NOT_A: }; private: void TakeThisActionWith(int thing) { string outcome = new string; outcome = LookUpOutcome(thing); // Do some stuff based on outcome return; } string LookUpOutcome(int key) { string oc = new string; oc = MyPrivateMap[key]; return oc; } map<int, string> MyPrivateMap; Then in the .cc file where I am actually using these things, while compiling the TakeAnAction section, it [CC, the solaris compiler] throws an an error: 'The function LookUpOutcome must have a prototype' and bombs out. In my header file, I have declared 'string LookUpOutcome(int key);' in the private section of the class. I have tried all sorts of variations. I tried to use 'this' for a little while, and it gave me 'Can only use this in non-static member function.' Sadly, I haven't declared anything static and these are all, putatively, member functions. I tried it [on TakeAnAction and LookUp] when I got the error, but I got something like, 'Can't access MyPrivateMap from LookUp'. MyPrivateMap could be made public and I could refer to it directly, I guess, but my sensibility says that is not the right way to go about this [that means that namespace scoped helper functions are out, I think]. I also guess I could just inline the lookup and subsequent other stuff, but my line-o-meter goes on tilt. I'm trying desperately not to kludge it.

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  • How to get a handle to all JCheckBox objects in order to loop?

    - by EmmyS
    I'm very new to Java and am having some issues looping through JCheckBoxes on a UI. The idea is that I have a bunch of checkboxes (not in a group because more than one can be selected.) When I click a JButton, I want to build a string containing the text from each selected checkbox. The issue I'm having is that our instructor told us that the checkboxes need to be created via a method, which means (see code below) that there isn't a discrete instance name for each checkbox. If there were, I could say something like if(checkBox1.isSelected()) { myString.append(checkBox.getText()); } That would repeat for checkBox2, checkBox3, and so on. But the method provided to us for adding checkboxes to a panel looks like this: public class CheckBoxPanel extends JPanel { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; public CheckBoxPanel(String title, String... options) { setBorder(BorderFactory.createTitledBorder(BorderFactory .createEtchedBorder(), title)); setLayout(new BoxLayout(this, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); // make one checkbox for each option for (String option : options) { JCheckBox b = new JCheckBox(option); b.setActionCommand(option); add(b); } } } This is called like this: toppingPanel = new CheckBoxPanel("Each Topping $1.50", "Tomato", "Green Pepper", "Black Olives", "Mushrooms", "Extra Cheese", "Pepperoni", "Sausage"); So I now have a panel that contains a border with the title "Each Topping $1.50", and 7 visible checkboxes. What I need to do is get a list of all the selected toppings. We are not supposed to use an ActionListener for each checkbox, but rather get the list when a button is clicked. I'm feeling really clueless here, but I just can't figure out how to get the isSelected property of the checkboxes when the individual checkboxes don't have instance names. Ideally I'd like to somehow add all the checkboxes to an array and loop through the array in the button's action listener to determine which ones are checked, but if I have to check each one individually I will. I just can't figure out how to refer to an individual checkbox when they've been created dynamically.

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  • Raising event in custom control.

    - by SeSSiZ
    Hi all, I'm writing a custom textblock control thats populate hyperlinks and raises event when clicked to hyperlink. I wrote this code but I got stucked. My code is : Imports System.Text.RegularExpressions Public Class CustomTextBlock Inherits TextBlock Public Event Klik As EventHandler(Of EventArgs) Public ReadOnly InlineCollectionProperty As DependencyProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("InlineCollection", GetType(String), GetType(CustomTextBlock), New PropertyMetadata(New PropertyChangedCallback(AddressOf CustomTextBlock.InlineChanged))) Private Shared Sub InlineChanged(ByVal sender As DependencyObject, ByVal e As DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs) DirectCast(sender, CustomTextBlock).Inlines.Clear() Dim kelimeler = Split(e.NewValue, " ") For i = 0 To kelimeler.Length - 1 If Regex.Match(kelimeler(i), "(http|ftp|https):\/\/[\w\-_]+(\.[\w\-_]+)+([\w\-\.,@?^=%&amp;:/~\+#]*[\w\-\@?^=%&amp;/~\+#])?").Success Then Dim x = New Hyperlink(New Run(kelimeler(i))) x.AddHandler(Hyperlink.ClickEvent, New RoutedEventHandler(AddressOf t_Click)) x.ToolTip = kelimeler(i) x.Tag = kelimeler(i) DirectCast(sender, CustomTextBlock).Inlines.Add(x) If Not i = kelimeler.Length Then DirectCast(sender, CustomTextBlock).Inlines.Add(" ") Else DirectCast(sender, CustomTextBlock).Inlines.Add(kelimeler(i)) If Not i = kelimeler.Length Then DirectCast(sender, CustomTextBlock).Inlines.Add(" ") End If ''//Console.WriteLine(kelime(i).ToString.StartsWith("@")) Next kelimeler = Nothing End Sub Public Property InlineCollection As String Get Return DirectCast(GetValue(InlineCollectionProperty), String) End Get Set(ByVal value As String) SetValue(InlineCollectionProperty, value) End Set End Property Private Shared Sub t_Click(ByVal sender As Hyperlink, ByVal e As System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs) e.Handled = True RaiseEvent Klik(sender, EventArgs.Empty) End Sub End Class This code gives error at RaiseEvent Klik(sender, EventArgs.Empty) Error is : Cannot refer to an instance member of a class from within a shared method or shared member initializer without an expliticit instance of the class. Thanks for your answers, Alper

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  • C++ find largest BST in a binary tree

    - by fonjibe
    what is your approach to have the largest BST in a binary tree? I refer to this post where a very good implementation for finding if a tree is BST or not is bool isBinarySearchTree(BinaryTree * n, int min=std::numeric_limits<int>::min(), int max=std::numeric_limits<int>::max()) { return !n || (min < n->value && n->value < max && isBinarySearchTree(n->l, min, n->value) && isBinarySearchTree(n->r, n->value, max)); } It is quite easy to implement a solution to find whether a tree contains a binary search tree. i think that the following method makes it: bool includeSomeBST(BinaryTree* n) { if(!isBinarySearchTree(n)) { if(!isBinarySearchTree(n->left)) return isBinarySearchTree(n->right); } else return true; else return true; } but what if i want the largest BST? this is my first idea, BinaryTree largestBST(BinaryTree* n) { if(isBinarySearchTree(n)) return n; if(!isBinarySearchTree(n->left)) { if(!isBinarySearchTree(n->right)) if(includeSomeBST(n->right)) return largestBST(n->right); else if(includeSomeBST(n->left)) return largestBST(n->left); else return NULL; else return n->right; } else return n->left; } but its not telling the largest actually. i struggle to make the comparison. how should it take place? thanks

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  • Recommended approach to port to ASP.NET MVC

    - by tshao
    I think many of us used to face the same question, what's the best practices to port existing web forms App to MVC. The situation for me is that we'll support both web forms and MVC at the same time. It means, we create new features in MVC, while maintaining legacy pages in web forms, and they're all in a same project. The point is: we want to keep the DRY (do not repeat yourself) principle and reduce duplicate code as much as possible. The ASPX page is not a problem as we only create new features in MVC, but there're still some shared components we want to re-use the both new / legacy pages: Master page UserControl The question here is: Is that possible to create a common master page / usercontrol that could be used in both web forms and MVC? I know that ViewMasterPage inherits from MasterPage and ViewUserControl inherits from UserControl, so it's maybe OK to let both web forms and MVC ASPX page refer to the MVC version. I did some testing and found sometimes it generates errors during the rendering of usercontrols. Any idea / experience you can share with me? Very appreciate to it.

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  • How to stop Android GPS using "Mobile data"

    - by prepbgg
    My app requests location updates with "minTime" set to 2 seconds. When "Mobile data" is switched on (in the phone's settings) and GPS is enabled the app uses "mobile data" at between 5 and 10 megabytes per hour. This is recorded in the ICS "Data usage" screen as usage by "Android OS". In an attempt to prevent this I have unticked Settings-"Location services"-"Google's location service". Does this refer to Assisted GPS, or is it something more than that? Whatever it is, it seems to make no difference to my app's internet access. As further confirmation that it is the GPS usage by my app that is causing the mobile data access I have observed that the internet data activity indicator on the status bar shows activity when and only when the GPS indicator is present. The only way to prevent this mobile data usage seems to be to switch "Mobile data" off, and GPS accuracy seems to be almost as good without the support of mobile data. However, it is obviously unsatisfactory to have to switch mobile data off. The only permissions in the Manifest are "android.permission.ACCESS_FINE_LOCATION" (and "android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE"), so the app has no explicit permission to use internet data. The LocationManager code is ` criteria.setAccuracy(Criteria.ACCURACY_FINE); criteria.setSpeedRequired(false); criteria.setAltitudeRequired(false); criteria.setBearingRequired(true); criteria.setCostAllowed(false); criteria.setPowerRequirement(Criteria.NO_REQUIREMENT); bestProvider = lm.getBestProvider(criteria, true); if (bestProvider != null) { lm.requestLocationUpdates(bestProvider, gpsMinTime, gpsMinDistance, this); ` The reference for LocationManager.getBestProvider says If no provider meets the criteria, the criteria are loosened ... Note that the requirement on monetary cost is not removed in this process. However, despite setting setCostAllowed to false the app still incurs a potential monetary cost. What else can I do to prevent the app from using mobile data?

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  • Django Database design -- Is this a good stragety for overriding defaults

    - by rh0dium
    Hi SO's I have a question on good database design practices and I would like to leverage you guys for pointers. The project started out simple. Hey we have a bunch of questions we want answered for every project (no problem) Which turned into... Hey we have so many questions can we group them into sections (yup we can do that) Which lead into.. Can we weight these questions and I don't really want some of these questions for my project (Yes but we are getting difficult) And then I'm thinking they will want to have each section have it's own weight.. Requirements So there's the requirements - For n number of project Allow a admin member the ability select the questions for a project Allow the admin member to re-weigh or use the default weights for the questions Allow the admin member to re-weight the sections Allow team members to answer the questions. So here is what I came up with. Please feel free to comment and provide better examples models.py from django.db import models from django.contrib.sites.models import Site from django.conf import settings class Section(models.Model): """ This describes the various sections for a checklist: """ name = models.CharField(max_length=64) description = models.TextField() class Question(models.Model): """ This simply provides a simple way to list out the questions. """ question = models.CharField(max_length=255) answer_type = models.CharField(max_length=16) description = models.TextField() section = models.ForeignKey(Section) class ProjectQuestion(models.Model): """ These are the questions relevant to the project """ question = models.ForeignKey(Question) answer = models.CharField(max_length=255) required = models.BooleanField(default=True) weight = models.FloatField(default = XXX) class Project(models.Model): """ Here is where we want to gather our questions """ questions = models.ManyToManyField(ProjectQuestion) Immediate questions: - When I start a project - any ideas on how to "pre-populate" the questions (and ultimately the weights) for the project? - Is there a generally accepted method for doing this process that I am missing? Basically the idea that you refer to the questions overide your own default weight, and store the answer? - It appears that a good chuck of the work will be done in the views and that a lot of checking will need to occur there? Is that OK? Again - feel free to give me better strategies!! Thanks

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  • Unity Configuration and Same Assembly

    - by tyndall
    I'm currently getting an error trying to resolve my IDataAccess class. The value of the property 'type' cannot be parsed. The error is: Could not load file or assembly 'TestProject' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. (C:\Source\TestIoC\src\TestIoC\TestProject\bin\Debug\TestProject.vshost.exe.config line 14) This is inside a WPF Application project. What is the correct syntax to refer to the Assembly you are currently in? is there a way to do this? I know in a larger solution I would be pulling Types from seperate assemblies so this might not be an issue. But what is the right way to do this for a small self-contained test project. Note: I'm only interested in doing the XML config at this time, not the C# (in code) config. UPDATE: see all comments My XML config: <configuration> <configSections> <section name="unity" type="Microsoft.Practices.Unity.Configuration.UnityConfigurationSection, Microsoft.Practices.Unity.Configuration" /> </configSections> <unity> <typeAliases> <!-- Lifetime manager types --> <typeAlias alias="singleton" type="Microsoft.Practices.Unity.ContainerControlledLifetimeManager, Microsoft.Practices.Unity" /> <typeAlias alias="external" type="Microsoft.Practices.Unity.ExternallyControlledLifetimeManager, Microsoft.Practices.Unity" /> <typeAlias alias="IDataAccess" type="TestProject.IDataAccess, TestProject" /> <typeAlias alias="DataAccess" type="TestProject.DataAccess, TestProject" /> </typeAliases> <containers> <container name="Services"> <types> <type type="IDataAccess" mapTo="DataAccess" /> </types> </container> </containers> </unity> </configuration>

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  • How do I use IIS6 style metabase paths in IIS7 AppCmd tool?

    - by Mike Atlas
    I'm currently in the process of upgrading old II6 automation scripts that use the IISVdir tool to create/modify/update apps and virtual directories, and replacing them with AppCmd for IIS7. The IIS6, "IISVDir" commands reference paths in that are from the metabase, eg, "/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyApp" - where 1 is ID of the "Default Web Site" site. The command doesn't actually require the display name of the site to make changes to it. This works well, since on a different language OS, the "Default Web Site" site name could be named, for example, "??? Web ???" or anything else for that matter. But this flexibility is lost if AppCmd can only reference "Default Web Site" via its name, and not a language-neutral identifier. So, how can I script AppCmd to refer to sites, vdirs and apps using language neutral identifiers to reference the "Default App Site"? Perhaps I need to start creating my own site instead, from the start, and name it something else specific, and stop using "Default Web Site" as the root? (Disclosure: I only have a IIS7-English machine that I am working on currently, but I have both IIS6-English and IIS6-Japanese machines for testing my old scripts - so perhaps it really is just "Default Web Site" still on Win2k8-Japanese?)

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  • How to customize the process employed by WCF when serializing contract method arguments?

    - by mark
    Dear ladies and sirs. I would like to formulate a contrived scenario, which nevertheless has firm actual basis. Imagine a collection type COuter, which is a wrapper around an instance of another collection type CInner. Both implement IList (never mind the T). Furthermore, a COuter instance is buried inside some object graph, the root of which (let us refer to it as R) is returned from a WCF service method. My question is how can I customize the WCF serialization process, so that when R is returned, the request to serialize the COuter instance will be routed through my code, which will extract CInner and pass it to the serializer instead. Thus the receiving end still gets R, only no COuter instance is found in the object graph. I hoped that http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2220516/how-does-wcf-serialize-the-method-call will contain the answer, unfortunately the article mentioned there (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc163569.aspx) only barely mentions that advanced serialization scenarios are possible using IDataContractSurrogate interface, but no details are given. I am, on the other hand, would really like to see a working example. Thank you very much in advance.

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  • ASP.NET control in one content area needs to reference a control in another content area

    - by harrije
    I have a master page that divides the main content into two areas. There are two asp:ContentPlaceHolder controls in the body section of the master page with IDs cphMain and cphSideBar respectively. One of the corresponding content pages has a control in cphMain that needs to refer to a control in cphSideBar. Specifically, a SqlDataSource in cphMain references a TextBox in cphSideBar to use as a parameter in the select command. When the content page loads the following run-time error occurs: Could not find control 'TextBox1' in ControlParameter 'date_con'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Could not find control 'TextBox1' in ControlParameter 'date_con'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Could not find control 'TextBox1' in ControlParameter 'date_con'.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.ControlParameter.Evaluate(HttpContext context, Control control) +1753150 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Parameter.UpdateValue(HttpContext context, Control control) +47 System.Web.UI.WebControls.ParameterCollection.UpdateValues(HttpContext context, Control control) +114 System.Web.UI.WebControls.SqlDataSource.LoadCompleteEventHandler(Object sender, EventArgs e) +43 System.EventHandler.Invoke(Object sender, EventArgs e) +0 System.Web.UI.Page.OnLoadComplete(EventArgs e) +8698566 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +735 I kinda know what the problem is... ASP.NET does not like the fact that the SqlDataSource and TextBox are in different asp:Content controls within the content page. As a workaround, I have another TextBox in cphMain with the SqlDataSource which has Visible=False. Then in the Page_Load() event handler the contents of the TextBox in cphSideBar is copied into the contents of the non-visible TextBox in cphMain. I get the results I want with the work around I've come up with, but it seems like such a hack. I was wondering if there is a better solution I'm missing. Please advise.

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