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• need to add secure ftp file upload area to a client's website

  - by user346602

  This is a variation on a previous question as I am having tons of trouble finding answers in all my relentless online searches. Am designing a website for an architecture firm. They want their clients to be able to upload files to them, through a link on their site, via ftp. They also want to have a sign in for their clients, and ensure the uploads are secure. I can figure out how to make a form that has a file upload area - but just don't understand the ftp and the secure part... I understand html, css and a bit of JQuery; the rest is still very challenging to me. Have found something called net2ftp that claims to do what I'm looking for - but the even the installation instructions (for administrators, here: http://www.net2ftp.com/help.html) confuse me. Do I need a MySQL database? Where do I put in Admin password they refer to? It goes on... Is there anything "easier" out there that anyone knows of? I have read that I should be Googling "file managers" - but don't know if these can be embedded in a client's website. I even need to understand of what happens to said file, and where it ends up, when client clicks the upload link. Oh - I am so in over head on this one.

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• ASP.NET/C#: How to use a Subclassed Control on a Page?

  - by Bob Kaufman

  I've subclassed DropDownList to add functionality specific to my application: public class MyDropDownList : DropDownList { ... } ... then referenced it in Web.Config, which is where I figure things start to go wrong: <pages theme="Main"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="bob" tagName="MyDropDownList" src="~/Components/MyDropDownList.cs" /> </controls> </pages> my reference to it does not work: <tr><td>Category</td> <td><bob:MyDropDownList runat="server" ID="Category"... /> and my best clue is the complier error message: "The file 'src' is not a valid [sic] here because it doesn't expose a type." I figure I'm misapplying knowledge of how to create a Web User Control here. What I want to be able to do is refer to this control on an ASP.NET page just like I would the parent DropDownList. Refactoring back into a Web User Control that contains a DropDownList is not desirable, because I want to apply a RequiredFieldValidator to it.

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• Asterisk: Dropping calls with an "ast_yyerror"

  - by Nick

  I'm having an issue where asterisk will play our greeting to the caller, and then drop the call instead of making our phones ring. The bit of information I could find said it was caused by an error in evaluating a dialplan expression. I'm thinking it's this line: exten = START,n,GotoIf($[${FORCE_CLOSED}=TRUE]?CLOSED,1) But I'm not sure what's wrong with it. I see the following error on the console: [Apr 4 16:29:49] WARNING[27038]: ast_expr2.fl:459 ast_yyerror: ast_yyerror(): syntax error: syntax error, unexpected '=', expecting $end; Input:=TRUE^ Surrounding Console output: -- Executing [START@AGInbound:1] Answer("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", "") in new stack -- Executing [START@AGInbound:2] BackGround("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", 0000_AG_THANK_YOU_FOR_CALLING_AG") in new stack -- Playing '0000_AG_THANK_YOU_FOR_CALLING_AG.slin' (language 'en') [Apr 4 16:29:49] WARNING[27038]: ast_expr2.fl:459 ast_yyerror: ast_yyerror(): syntax error: syntax error, unexpected '=', expecting $end; Input: =TRUE ^ [Apr 4 16:29:49] WARNING[27038]: ast_expr2.fl:463 ast_yyerror: If you have questions, please refer to doc/tex/channelvariables.tex in the asterisk source. -- Executing [START@AGInbound:3] GotoIf("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", "?CLOSED,1") in new stack -- Executing [START@AGInbound:4] GotoIfTime("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", "9:30-17:0|mon-fri|*|*?OPEN,1") in new stack -- Executing [START@AGInbound:5] GotoIfTime("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", "10:0-18:30|sat|*|*?OPEN,1") in new stack -- Executing [START@AGInbound:6] GotoIfTime("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", "12:0-17:0|sun|*|*?OPEN,1") in new stack Relevant lines from the dial plan: exten = START,1,Answer() exten = START,n,Background(0000_AG_THANK_YOU_FOR_CALLING_AG) ; See if we're open ; Force Closed if no one's going to be answering exten = START,n,GotoIf($[${FORCE_CLOSED}=TRUE]?CLOSED,1) exten = START,n,GotoIfTime(${AG_WEEKDAY_OPEN_HOUR}:${AG_WEEKDAY_OPEN_MIN}-${AG$ exten = START,n,GotoIfTime(${AG_SATURDAY_OPEN_HOUR}:${AG_SATURDAY_OPEN_MIN}-${$ exten = START,n,GotoIfTime(${AG_SUNDAY_OPEN_HOUR}:${AG_SUNDAY_OPEN_MIN}-${AG_S$ ; ...and we're not. But maybe the time of day has been overridden? exten = START,n,GotoIf($[${OVERRIDE_TIME_OF_DAY}=TRUE]?OPEN,1) ; No override... We're definatly closed. exten = START,n,Goto(CLOSED,1)

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• Python's asyncore to periodically send data using a variable timeout. Is there a better way?

  - by Nick Sonneveld

  I wanted to write a server that a client could connect to and receive periodic updates without having to poll. The problem I have experienced with asyncore is that if you do not return true when dispatcher.writable() is called, you have to wait until after the asyncore.loop has timed out (default is 30s). The two ways I have tried to work around this is 1) reduce timeout to a low value or 2) query connections for when they will next update and generate an adequate timeout value. However if you refer to 'Select Law' in 'man 2 select_tut', it states, "You should always try to use select() without a timeout." Is there a better way to do this? Twisted maybe? I wanted to try and avoid extra threads. I'll include the variable timeout example here: #!/usr/bin/python import time import socket import asyncore # in seconds UPDATE_PERIOD = 4.0 class Channel(asyncore.dispatcher): def __init__(self, sock, sck_map): asyncore.dispatcher.__init__(self, sock=sock, map=sck_map) self.last_update = 0.0 # should update immediately self.send_buf = '' self.recv_buf = '' def writable(self): return len(self.send_buf) > 0 def handle_write(self): nbytes = self.send(self.send_buf) self.send_buf = self.send_buf[nbytes:] def handle_read(self): print 'read' print 'recv:', self.recv(4096) def handle_close(self): print 'close' self.close() # added for variable timeout def update(self): if time.time() >= self.next_update(): self.send_buf += 'hello %f\n'%(time.time()) self.last_update = time.time() def next_update(self): return self.last_update + UPDATE_PERIOD class Server(asyncore.dispatcher): def __init__(self, port, sck_map): asyncore.dispatcher.__init__(self, map=sck_map) self.port = port self.sck_map = sck_map self.create_socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) self.bind( ("", port)) self.listen(16) print "listening on port", self.port def handle_accept(self): (conn, addr) = self.accept() Channel(sock=conn, sck_map=self.sck_map) # added for variable timeout def update(self): pass def next_update(self): return None sck_map = {} server = Server(9090, sck_map) while True: next_update = time.time() + 30.0 for c in sck_map.values(): c.update() # <-- fill write buffers n = c.next_update() #print 'n:',n if n is not None: next_update = min(next_update, n) _timeout = max(0.1, next_update - time.time()) asyncore.loop(timeout=_timeout, count=1, map=sck_map)

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• C# Configuration Manager . ConnectionStrings

  - by Yoda

  I have a console app containing an application configuration file containing one connection string as shown below: <configuration> <connectionStrings> <add name="Target" connectionString="server=MYSERVER; Database=MYDB; Integrated Security=SSPI;" /> </connectionStrings> </configuration> When I pass this to my Connection using: ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[1].ToString() I have two values in there, hence using the second in the collection, my question is where is this second coming from? I have checked the Bin version and original and its not mine! Its obviously a system generated one but I have not seen this before? Can anyone enlighten me? The mystery connection string is: data source=.\SQLEXPRESS;Integrated Security=SSPI;AttachDBFilename=|DataDirectory|aspnetdb.mdf;User Instance=true This isn't a problem as such I would just like to know why this is occuring? Thanks in advance! For future reference to those who may or may not stumble on this, after discovering the machine.config its become apparent it is bad practice to refer to a config by its index as each stack will potentially be different, which is why "Keys" are used. Cheers all!

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• java applet won't work

  - by scoobi_doobi

  hey guys, this is homework stuff, but the question is not much about coding. the task is to write a java applet to work on an m-grid server. i have the server running on apache. it has a few sample applets in .jar and .class form. the .class versions work; the .jar versions work on appletviewer, but they break if I submit them as a job to the server with this: load: class examples/pixelcount/PixelCount.class not found. java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: examples.pixelcount.PixelCount.class at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2ClassLoader.loadCode(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager.createApplet(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager$AppletExecutionRunnable.run(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(Unknown Source) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(Unknown Source) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(Unknown Source) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(Unknown Source) at java.net.Socket.connect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.<init>(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.New(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.New(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.connect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(Unknown Source) at java.net.HttpURLConnection.getResponseCode(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.getBytes(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.access$000(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) ... 7 more Exception: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: examples.pixelcount.PixelCount.class I'm not really sure where exactly is the problem in here, given that they work on appletviewer. any help would be appreciated.. EDIT: don't know if I wrote it clearly. by ".class version" i refer to html file with this content: <applet height="300" width="450" code="examples/pixelcount/PixelCount.class"></applet> and ".jar" with this content: <applet height="300" width="450" archive="PixelCount.jar" code="examples.pixelcount.PixelCount.class"></applet>

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• SIP UAS asks for OPTIONS

  - by TacB0sS

  Hey, I have UAC that registers to a UAS, after registration the UAS sends me an OPTIONS request, what should I answer it? only the audio media streams? Update I: Allow me to explain myself better... if I want to invite someone to a session I USE the INVITE method and negotiate the media then, for that specific session. But once I register to the server, and it asks me for OPTIONS, then what should I supply, everything my client supports? once I answer it would it deduce that every INVITE I would request from now on would use these medias? or would I need to supply new media with every request? Update II: Hi Wiz, I was in the process of building a negotiation system, so i tried it out and replied the UAS here is the sort dialog we had: OPTIONS sip:[email protected] SIP/2.0 Via: SIP/2.0/UDP xx.xx.xx.xx:5060;branch=z9hG4bK45b197cb;rport=5060;received=xx.xx.xx.xx From: "Unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=as66cf26df To: <sip:[email protected]> Contact: <sip:[email protected]> Call-ID: [email protected] CSeq: 102 OPTIONS User-Agent: Freeswitch 1.2.3 Max-Forwards: 70 Date: Sat, 05 Jun 2010 12:06:43 GMT Allow: INVITE,ACK,CANCEL,OPTIONS,BYE,REFER,SUBSCRIBE,NOTIFY,INFO Supported: replaces Content-Length: 0 OPTIONS In Response To 102: SIP/2.0 200 OK Via: SIP/2.0/UDP xx.xx.xx.xx:5060;branch=z9hG4bK45b197cb;rport=5060;received=xx.xx.xx.xx From: "Unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=as66cf26df To: <sip:[email protected]> CSeq: 102 OPTIONS Call-ID: [email protected] Allow: INVITE,CANCEL,ACK,BYE,OPTIONS Content-Type: application/sdp Content-Length: 248 v=0 o=310 4515233118481497946 4515233118481497946 IN IP4 10.0.0.1 s=- i=Nu-Art Software - TacB0sS VoIP information c=IN IP4 10.0.0.1 m=audio 40000 RTP/AVP 0 8 101 a=rtpmap:0 PCMU/8000 a=rtpmap:8 PCMA/8000 a=rtpmap:101 telephone-event/8000 This response caused the server to stop sending me the options request, does this means I can only use these parameters with the server now? or as you said, it does not matter? Thanks, Adam.

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• Is WordPress MVC compliant?

  - by kovshenin

  Some people consider WordPress a blogging platform, some think of it as a CMS, some refer to WordPress as a development framework. Whichever it is, the question still remains. Is WordPress MVC compliant? I've read the forums and somebody asked about MVC about three years ago. There were some positive answers, and some negative ones. While nobody knows exactly what MVC is and everybody thinks of it in their own way, there's still a general concept that's present in all the discussions. I have little experience with MVC frameworks and there doesn't seem to be anything about the framework itself. Most of the MVC is done by the programmer, am I right? Now, going back to WordPress, could we consider the core rewrite engine (WP_Rewrite) the controller? Queries & plugin logic as the model? And themes as the view? Or am I getting it all wrong? Thanks ;)

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• Hibernate: Querying objects by attributes of inherited classes

  - by MichaelD

  Hi all, I ran into a problem with Hibernate concerning queries on classes which use inheritance. Basically I've the following class hierarchy: @Entity @Table( name = "recording" ) class Recording { ClassA attributeSet; ... } @Entity @Inheritance( strategy = InheritanceType.JOINED ) @Table( name = "classA" ) public class ClassA { String Id; ... } @Entity @Table( name = "ClassB1" ) @PrimaryKeyJoinColumn( name = "Id" ) public class ClassB1 extends ClassA { private Double P1300; private Double P2000; } @Entity @Table( name = "ClassB2" ) @PrimaryKeyJoinColumn( name = "Id" ) public class ClassB2 extends ClassA { private Double P1300; private Double P3000; } The hierarchy is already given like this and I cannot change it easily. As you can see ClassB1 and ClassB2 inherit from ClassA. Both classes contain a set of attributes which sometimes even have the same names (but I can't move them to ClassA since there are possible more sub-classes which do not use them). The Recording class references one instance of one of this classes. Now my question: What I want to do is selecting all Recording objects in my database which refer to an instance of either ClassB1 or ClassB2 with e.g. the field P1300 == 15.5 (so this could be ClassB1 or ClassB2 instances since the P1300 attribute is declared in both classes). What I tried is something like this: Criteria criteria = session.createCriteria(Recording.class); criteria.add( Restrictions.eq( "attributeSet.P1300", new Double(15.5) ) ); criteria.list(); But since P1300 is not an attribute of ClassA hibernate throws an exception telling me: could not resolve property: P1300 of: ClassA How can I tell hibernate that it should search in all subclasses to find the attribute I want to filter? Thanks MichaelD

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• Getting the data inside the C# web service from Jsonified string

  - by gnomixa

  In my JS I use Jquery's $ajax functions to call the web service and send the jsonified data to it. The data is in the following format: var countries = { "1A": { id: "1A", name: "Andorra" }, "2B": { id: 2B name: "Belgium" }, ..etc }; var jsonData = JSON.stringify({ data: data }); //then $ajax is called and it makes the call to the c# web service On the c# side the web service needs to unpack this data, currently it comes in as string[][] data type. How do I convert it to the format so I can refer to the properties such as .id and .name? Assuming I have a class called Sample with these properties? Thanks! EDIT: Here is my JS code: var jsonData = JSON.stringify(countries); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'http://localhost/MyService.asmx/Foo', contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', data: jsonData, success: function (msg) { alert(msg.d); }, error: function (xhr, status) { switch (status) { case 404: alert('File not found'); break; case 500: alert('Server error'); break; case 0: alert('Request aborted'); break; default: alert('Unknown error ' + status); } } }); inside c# web service I have: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Services; using System.Data; using System.Collections; using System.IO; using System.Web.Script.Services; [WebMethod] [ScriptMethod] public string Foo(IDictionary<string, Country> countries) { return "success"; }

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• How to add namespaces to a flex AIR project in Flash Builder 4?

  - by milkplus

  In my ant build.xml script I have... <namespace uri="http://ns.foo.com/mxml/2011" manifest="src/manifest.xml"/> <namespace uri="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" manifest="flex_src/spark-manifest.xml"/> <namespace uri="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" manifest="flex_src/mx-manifest.xml"/> That works! But... I'm not sure how to add these namespaces to my project properties in Flash Builder 4 so I can debug. When I try, it changes this line in my .actionScriptProperties <compiler additionalCompilerArguments="-namespace http://ns.foo.com/mxml/2011 src/manifest.xml -namespace=library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark flex_src/spark-manifest.xml -namespace http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml flex_src/mx-manifest.xml" autoRSLOrdering="true" copyDependentFiles="true" fteInMXComponents="false" generateAccessible="true" htmlExpressInstall="true" htmlGenerate="false" htmlHistoryManagement="false" htmlPlayerVersionCheck="true" includeNetmonSwc="false" outputFolderPath="bin-debug" sourceFolderPath="src" strict="true" targetPlayerVersion="0.0.0" useApolloConfig="true" useDebugRSLSwfs="true" verifyDigests="true" warn="true"> but gives me a "no default arguments are expected" error. What is the reason for this error? The error location is "Unknown" and seems to refer to these compiler arguments.

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• one table is shared between several websites

  - by sami

  I have a static table that's shared by several websites. By static, I mean that the data is read but never updated by the websites. Currently, all websites are served from the same server but that may change. I want to minimize the need for creating/maintaining this table for each of the websites, so I thought about turning it to an xml file that's stored in a shared library that all websites have access to. The problem is I use an ORM and use forign key constraints to ensure integrity of the ids used from that table, so by removing that table out of the MySQL database into an XML file, will this affect the integrity of the ids coming from that table? My table looks like this <table name="entry"> <column name="id" type="INTEGER" primaryKey="true" autoIncrement="true" /> <column name="title" type="VARCHAR" size="500" required="true" /> </table> and I use it as a foreign key in other tables <table name="refer"> <column name="id" type="INTEGER" primaryKey="true" autoIncrement="true" /> <column name="linkto" type="INTEGER"/> <foreign-key foreignTable="entry"> <reference local="linkto" foreign="id" /> </foreign-key> </table> So I'm wondering if I remove that table out of the database, is there a way to retain that referential integrity? And of course are these any other efficient ways to do the same thing? I just don't want to have to repeat that table for several websites.

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• Is this a hole in dynamic binding in C# 4?

  - by Galilyou

  I've seen a very interesting post on Fabio Maulo's blog. Here's the code and the bug if you don't want to jump to the url. I defined a new generic class like so: public class TableStorageInitializer<TTableEntity> where TTableEntity : class, new() { public void Initialize() { InitializeInstance(new TTableEntity()); } public void InitializeInstance(dynamic entity) { entity.PartitionKey = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); entity.RowKey = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); } } Note that InitializeInstance accepts one parameter, which is of type dynamic. Now to test this class, I defined another class that is nested inside my main Program class like so: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { TableStorageInitializer<MyClass> x = new TableStorageInitializer<MyClass>(); x.Initialize(); } private class MyClass { public string PartitionKey { get; set; } public string RowKey { get; set; } public DateTime Timestamp { get; set; } } } Note: the inner class "MyClass" is declared private. Now if i run this code I get a "Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinder.RuntimeBinderException" on the line "entity.PartitionKey = Guide.NewGuid().ToString()". The interesting part, though is that the message of the exception says "Object doesn't contain a definition for PartitionKey". Also note that if you changed the modifier of the nested class to public, the code will execute with no problems. So what do you guys think is really happening under the hood? Please refer to any documentation -of course if this is documented anywhere- that you may find?

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• Help with jQuery Validation plugin and a form that uses 'panels'

  - by alex

  I have a form that works in 'sections' that I will refer to as 'panels'. By default, the form is listed out on the page, one panel after the other. However, with JavaScript, it puts the panels into one panel viewer, and displays them one after the other (with prev/next buttons). Example Form Workflow Panel 1: User Details - Panel 2: User Location - Panel 3: User Info - Panel 4: Confirm Details I am using the jQuery Validation plugin. My problem is, I have set up all the rules for all the inputs in the first 3 panels, and I'd like to be able to only validate a subset of them per panel. Example, when pushing 'next panel' after completing name & email (in the 1st, user details panel), I'd like to do a validation only on that panel first, and then get a boolean response (if the 1st panel validated), and if true, then proceed to the next panel. I've played around with a bit of the config, but unfortunately could not get it to work as I wanted. This is my first project with this plugin so I'm quite new to it! Is there a way to add rules dynamically to the plugin? i.e. not on $('form').validate(options) ? What I'd like to do, is call the validate() on the form, with all the error messages, and then on the 'next panel' code, do a switch case to determine which rules to add, and then call a validate() myself.

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• Can I avoid explicitly casting objects with a common subclass?

  - by prendio2

  I have an iPodLibraryGroup object and Artist and Album both inherit from it. When it comes to my view controllers though I find that I'm duplicate lots of code, for example I have an ArtistListViewController and and AlbumListViewController even though they're both doing basically the same thing. The reason I've ended up duplicating the code is because these view controllers each refer to either an Artist object or al Album object and I'm not sure how to set it up so that one view controller could handle both — these view controllers are mainly accessing methods that that the objects have in common from iPodLibraryGroup. As an example, to hopefully make this clearer consider this code in AlbumListViewController: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { Album *album = nil; album = [self albumForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath inTableView:tableView]; … if (!album.thumbnail) { [self startThumbnailDownload:album forIndexPath:indexPath inTableView:tableView]; cell.imageView.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"Placeholder.png"]; } else { cell.imageView.image = album.thumbnail; } return cell; } This is essentially completely repeated (along with a hell of a lot more repeated code) in ArtistListViewController just so that I can typecast the local variable as an Artist instead of an Album. Is there a way to not explicitly need to set Artist or Album here so that the same code could work for any object that is a child of iPodLibraryGroup?

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• How do I ensure a Flex dataProvider processes the data synchronously?

  - by Matt Calthrop

  I am using an component, and currently have a dataProvider working that is an ArrayCollection (have a separate question about how to make this an XML file... but I digress). Variable declaration looks like this: [Bindable] private var _dpImageList : ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection([ {"location" : "path/to/image1.jpg"}, {"location" : "path/to/image2.jpg"}, {"location" : "path/to/image3.jpg"} ]); I then refer to like this: <s:List id="lstImages" width="100%" dataProvider="{_dpImageList}" itemRenderer="path.to.render.ImageRenderer" skinClass="path.to.skins.ListSkin" > <s:layout> <s:HorizontalLayout gap="2" /> </s:layout> </s:List> Currently, it would appear that each item is processed asynchronously. However, I want them to be processed synchronously. Reason: I am displaying a list of images, and I want the leftmost one rendered first, followed by the one to its right, and so on. Edit: I just found this answer. Do you think that could be the same issue?

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• How might I wrap the FindXFile-style APIs to the STL-style Iterator Pattern in C++?

  - by BillyONeal

  Hello everyone :) I'm working on wrapping up the ugly innards of the FindFirstFile/FindNextFile loop (though my question applies to other similar APIs, such as RegEnumKeyEx or RegEnumValue, etc.) inside iterators that work in a manner similar to the Standard Template Library's istream_iterators. I have two problems here. The first is with the termination condition of most "foreach" style loops. STL style iterators typically use operator!= inside the exit condition of the for, i.e. std::vector<int> test; for(std::vector<int>::iterator it = test.begin(); it != test.end(); it++) { //Do stuff } My problem is I'm unsure how to implement operator!= with such a directory enumeration, because I do not know when the enumeration is complete until I've actually finished with it. I have sort of a hack together solution in place now that enumerates the entire directory at once, where each iterator simply tracks a reference counted vector, but this seems like a kludge which can be done a better way. The second problem I have is that there are multiple pieces of data returned by the FindXFile APIs. For that reason, there's no obvious way to overload operator* as required for iterator semantics. When I overload that item, do I return the file name? The size? The modified date? How might I convey the multiple pieces of data to which such an iterator must refer to later in an ideomatic way? I've tried ripping off the C# style MoveNext design but I'm concerned about not following the standard idioms here. class SomeIterator { public: bool next(); //Advances the iterator and returns true if successful, false if the iterator is at the end. std::wstring fileName() const; //other kinds of data.... }; EDIT: And the caller would look like: SomeIterator x = ??; //Construct somehow while(x.next()) { //Do stuff } Thanks! Billy3

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• Behavior of local variables in JavaScripts with()-statement

  - by thr

  I noticed some weird (and to my knowledge undefined behavior, by the ECMA 3.0 Spec at least), take the following snippet: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); alert(bar); } alert(bar); It crashes in both Firefox and Chrome, because "bar" doesn't exist in the first alert(); statement, this is as expected. But if you add a declaration of bar inside the with()-statement, so it looks like this: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; alert(bar); } alert(bar); It will produce the following: undefined, 1, g2, undefined It seems as if you create a variable inside a with()-statement most browsers (tested on Chrome or Firefox) will make that variable exist outside that scope also, it's just set to undefined. Now from my perspective bar should only exist inside the with()-statement, and if you make the example even weirder: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; var zoo; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; zoo = function() { return bar; } alert(bar); } alert(bar); alert(zoo()); It will produce this: undefined, 1, g2, undefined, g2 So the bar inside the with()-statement does not exist outside of it, yet the runtime somehow "automagically" creates a variable named bar that is undefined in its top level scope (global or function) but this variable does not refer to the same one as inside the with()-statement, and that variable will only exist if a with()-statement has a variable named bar that is defined inside it. Very weird, and inconsistent. Anyone have an explanation for this behavior? There is nothing in the ECMA Spec about this.

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• Extracting noun+noun or (adj|noun)+noun from Text

  - by ssuhan

  I would like to query if it is possible to extract noun+noun or (adj|noun)+noun in R package openNLP?That is, I would like to use linguistic filtering to extract candidate noun phrases. Could you direct me how to do? Many thanks. Thanks for the responses. here is the code: library("openNLP") acq <- "Gulf Applied Technologies Inc said it sold its subsidiaries engaged in pipeline and terminal operations for 12.2 mln dlrs. The company said the sale is subject to certain post closing adjustments, which it did not explain. Reuter." acqTag <- tagPOS(acq) acqTagSplit = strsplit(acqTag," ") acqTagSplit qq = 0 tag = 0 for (i in 1:length(acqTagSplit[[1]])){ qq[i] <-strsplit(acqTagSplit[[1]][i],'/') tag[i] = qq[i][[1]][2] } index = 0 k = 0 for (i in 1:(length(acqTagSplit[[1]])-1)) { if ((tag[i] == "NN" && tag[i+1] == "NN") | (tag[i] == "NNS" && tag[i+1] == "NNS") | (tag[i] == "NNS" && tag[i+1] == "NN") | (tag[i] == "NN" && tag[i+1] == "NNS") | (tag[i] == "JJ" && tag[i+1] == "NN") | (tag[i] == "JJ" && tag[i+1] == "NNS")){ k = k +1 index[k] = i } } index Reader can refer index on acqTagSplit to do noun+noun or (adj|noun)+noun extractation. (The code is not optimum but work. If you have any idea, please let me know.) Furthermore, I still have a problem. Justeson and Katz (1995) proposed another linguistic filtering to extract candidate noun phrases: ((Adj|Noun)+|((Adj|Noun)(Noun-Prep)?)(Adj|Noun))Noun I cannot well understand its meaning, could someone do me a favor to explain it or transform such representation into R language

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• Entity Framework 4 Self Many-To-Many with Properties

  - by csharpnoob

  UPDATE: Solved by myself. Tricky but works. If you know a better solution, feel free to correct me. DESIGNER: CODE: Product product1 = new Product{key = "Product 1"}; sd.AddToProducts(product1); Product product2 = new Product{key = "Product 2"}; sd.AddToProducts(product2); Product product3 = new Product{key = "Product 3"}; ProductRelated pr = new ProductRelated(); pr.Products.Add(product1); pr.Products.Add(product2); product3.ProductRelateds.Add(pr); sd.AddToProducts(product3); CODE VIEW: foreach(var x in (from b in sd.Products select b)) { %><%=x.key %><br /> <% foreach (var y in x.ProductRelateds) { foreach (var k in y.Products) { %>- <%=k.key%><br /><%} } } OUTPUT Product1 Product2 Product3 - Product2 - Product1 QUESTION: Hi, i want to have a Self Reference for Releated Products on a Product Entity, something like here: http://my.safaribooksonline.com/9781430227038/modeling_a_many-to-many_comma_self-refer But i also want on the Many-To-Many Reference addional Properties like deleted, created etc. I tried to do it by another Entity "Related", but somehow it won't work. Does anyone had this Problem before? Is there any other Example? Thanks

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• Database localization

  - by Don

  Hi, I have a number of database tables that contain name and description columns which need to be localized. My initial attempt at designing a DB schema that would support this was something like: product ------- id name description local_product ------- id product_id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale However, this solution requires a new local_ table for every table that contains name and description columns that require localization. In an attempt to avoid this overhead I redesigned the schema so that only a single localization table is needed product ------- id localization_id localization ------- id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale Here's an example of the data which would be stored in this schema when there are 2 tables (product and country) requiring localization: country id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 5 product id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 2 localization id, local_name, local_description, locale_id ------------------------------------------------------ 2, apple, a delicious fruit, 2 2, pomme, un fruit délicieux, 3 2, apfel, ein köstliches Obst, 4 5, ireland, a small country, 2 5, irlande, un petite pay, 3 locale id, locale -------------- 2, en 3, fr 4, de Notice that the compound primary key of the localization table is (id, locale_id), but the foreign key in the product table only refers to the first element of this compound PK. This seems like 'a bad thing' from the POV of normalization. Is there any way I can fix this problem, or alternatively, is there a completely different schema that supports localization without creating a separate table for each localizable table? Update: A number of respondents have proposed a solution that requires creating a separate table for each localizable table. However, this is precisely what I'm trying to avoid. The schema I've proposed above almost solves the problem to my satisfaction, but I'm unhappy about the fact that the localization_id foreign keys only refer to part of the corresponding primary key in the localization table. Thanks, Don

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• Upgraded to Xcode 4 -- Endless stream of duplicate symbol errors causing build errors

  - by D-Nice

  Everything was working perfectly fine in Xcode 3 yesterday before I upgraded. So I completed the upgrade, restarted my computer, and opened my old project. I had to reconfigure a few settings like the header paths so that I could begin to compile. I'm using AdWhirl for ad mediation, and at this point my errors begin to read something like duplicate symbol _OBJC_METACLASS_$_SBJSON in /Users/Admin/Desktop/TMapLiteAdwhirl/AdWhirl/MMSDK/libMMSDK.a(SBJSON.o) and /Users/Admin/Library/Developer/Xcode/DerivedData/TruxMapLite-bgpylibztethnlhkfkdumpvrjvgy/Build/Intermediates/TruxMapLite.build/Debug-iphoneos/TruxMapLite.build/Objects-normal/armv6/SBJSON.o for architecture armv6 The library it's referring to is the SDK for one of the ad networks I'm including in AdWhirl. Both of the 'duplicate symbols' refer to the SAME FILE, but they use different paths. If I had still had XCode 3, I would simply try excluding these libraries from the build path, but I have no idea how that can be done in Xcode 4. I've tried everything all the way down to deleting the library and all associated files from my project, but when I do this, i will simply get the same type of error for a different library in the AdWhirl directory. This is incredibly frustrating because before my upgrade everything was working smoothly and I was prepared to submit my binary. If anyone has any advice, id be more than happy to give it a try. Thanks!

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• How do I use .htaccess to redirect to a URL containing HTTP_HOST?

  - by Jon Cram

  Problem I need to redirect some short convenience URLs to longer actual URLs. The site in question uses a set of subdomains to identify a set of development or live versions. I would like the URL to which certain requests are redirected to include the HTTP_HOST such that I don't have to create a custom .htaccess file for each host. Host-specific Example (snipped from .htaccess file) Redirect /terms http://support.dev01.example.com/articles/terms/ This example works fine for the development version running at dev01.example.com. If I use the same line in the main .htaccess file for the development version running under dev02.example.com I'd end up being redirected to the wrong place. Ideal rule (not sure of the correct syntax) Redirect /terms http://support.{HTTP_HOST}/articles/terms/ This rule does not work and merely serves as an example of what I'd like to achieve. I could then use the exact same rule under many different hosts and get the correct result. Answers? Can this be done with mod_alias or does it require the more complex mod_rewrite? How can this be achieved using mod_alias or mod_rewrite? I'd prefer a mod_alias solution if possible. Clarifications I'm not staying on the same server. I'd like: http://example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ http://dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ I'd like to be able to use the same rule in the .htaccess file on both example.com and dev.example.com. In this situation I'd need to be able to refer to the HTTP_HOST as a variable rather than specifying it literally in the URL to which requests are redirected. I'll investigate the HTTP_HOST parameter as suggested but was hoping for a working example.

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• Boost's "cstdint" Usage

  - by patt0h

  Boost's C99 stdint implementation is awfully handy. One thing bugs me, though. They dump all of their typedefs into the boost namespace. This leaves me with three choices when using this facility: Use "using namespace boost" Use "using boost::[u]<type><width>_t" Explicitly refer to the target type with the boost:: prefix; e.g., boost::uint32_t foo = 0; Option ? 1 kind of defeats the point of namespaces. Even if used within local scope (e.g., within a function), things like function arguments still have to be prefixed like option ? 3. Option ? 2 is better, but there are a bunch of these types, so it can get noisy. Option ? 3 adds an extreme level of noise; the boost:: prefix is often = to the length of the type in question. My question is: What would be the most elegant way to bring all of these types into the global namespace? Should I just write a wrapper around boost/cstdint.hpp that utilizes option ? 2 and be done with it? Also, wrapping the header like so didn't work on VC++ 10 (problems with standard library headers): namespace Foo { #include <boost/cstdint.hpp> using namespace boost; } using namespace Foo; Even if it did work, I guess it would cause ambiguity problems with the ::boost namespace.

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• Class library reference problem

  - by Anindya Chatterjee

  I am building a class library and using its default namespace as "System". There suppose I am creating a generic data structure say PriorityQueue and putting it under System.Collections.Generic namespace. Now when I am referencing that library from another project, I can't see PriorityQueue under "System.Collections.Generic" namespace anymore. Though the library is referenced in that project I can not access any of the classes in it. My question was mscorlib and System.dll share similar namespaces, but still classes from both the assembly is accessible, but why can't mine? If I put a public class under System.Collections.Generic namespace in my class library and refer that library in a project and use a statement like "using System.Collections.Generic", still why I can't access my class there? This was an experimentation I did, I know using System namespace is not encouraged in custom class library, but I want to know the reason behind why I can't access my class in this special case? Please someone shed some light on it. PS: Last time I asked similar question but put it wrongly, so people got misunderstood and I didn't get my answer. This time I am trying to put it correctly as far as I can. Sorry for the misunderstanding.

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