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  • dynamically bound elements don't subscribe to CSS rules

    - by user961627
    I'm using ajax to dynamically populate a menu. The problem is the dynamically created elements do not follow the CSS rules, although they're created with the right classname. This is surprising. Here's my HTML: <div id='menu1'> <ul class='menu'> <?php $sql = /// /* some sql string, which works */ $result = mysql_query($sql); while($row = mysql_fetch_array( $result )) { $prod_id = $row['product_id']; $prod_name = $row['product_name']; echo "<li data-title='$prod_id' class='menu1_item'>".$prod_name."</li> "; } ?> </ul> </div> <div id='menu2'> <ul class='menu'> </ul> </div> <div id='menu3'> <ul class='menu'> </ul> </div> Here's my jquery: $(".menu1_item").click( function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: { m: '2', id: $(this).attr('data-title') }, url: "fetch_designs.php", success: function(msg){ if (msg != ''){ $("#menu2").html(msg).show(); $(".menu2_item").bind('click',function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: { m: '3', id: $(this).attr('data-title') }, url: "fetch_designs.php", success: function(msg){ if (msg != ''){ $("#menu3").html(msg).show(); } } }); //end menu2 click }); //end if } //end success } }); //end menu1 click }); My CSS is as follows: ul.menu li { cursor:pointer; list-style: none; } #menu1, #menu2, #menu3 { margin:50px; position:relative; display:block; float:left; } .menu1-item .menu2-item .menu3-item { padding:4px; background-color:lightgray; color:black; cursor:pointer; }

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  • Keep div:hover open when changing nested select box

    - by JMC Creative
    This is an IE-only problem. .toolTip becomes visible when it's parent element is :hovered over. Inside of .toolTip is a select box. When the user opens the select box to make a selection, the parent element is being "un-hovered", if you will. To put it another way, when I try to select something from the dropdown, the whole thing hides itself again. I'm sure it has something to do with the way IE interprets the stylesheet, but I don't know what or where. Here is some relevant code (edited for clarity): #toolBar .toolTip { position: absolute; display:none; background: #fff; line-height: 1em; font-size: .8em; min-width: 300px; bottom: 47px; left: -5px; padding: 0 ; } #toolBar div:hover .toolTip { display:block; } and <div id="toolBar"> <div class="socialIcon"> <a href=""><img src="/im/social/nytimes.png" alt="NY Times Bestsellers" /></a> <span class="toolTip"> <h1>NY Times Bestsellers Lists</h1> <div id="nyTimesBestsellers"> <?php include('/ny-times-bestseller-feed.php') ?> </div> <p><img src="/im/social/nytimes.png" alt="NY Times Bestseller Lists" /> Change List <select id="nyTimesChangeCurrentList" name="nyTimesChangeCurrentList"> <option value="hardcover-fiction">Hardcover Fiction</option> <option value="hardcover-nonfiction">Hardcover Nonfiction</option> <option value="hardcover-advice">Hardcover Advice</option> </select> </p> </span> </div> </div>

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • vb6 ADODB TSQL procedure call quit working after database migration

    - by phill
    This code was once working on sql server 2005. Now isolated in a visual basic 6 sub routine using ADODB to connect to a sql server 2008 database it throws an error saying: "Login failed for user 'admin' " I have since verified the connection string does work if i replace the body of this sub with the alternative code below this sub. When I run the small program with the button, it stops where it is marked below the asterisk line. Any ideas? thanks in advance. Private Sub Command1_Click() Dim cSQLConn As New ADODB.Connection Dim cmdGetInvoices As New ADODB.Command Dim myRs As New ADODB.Recordset Dim dStartDateIn As Date dStartDateIn = "2010/05/01" cSQLConn.ConnectionString = "Provider=sqloledb;" _ & "SERVER=NET-BRAIN;" _ & "Database=DB_app;" _ & "User Id=admin;" _ & "Password=mudslinger;" cSQLConn.Open cmdGetInvoices.CommandTimeout = 0 sProc = "GetUnconvertedInvoices" 'On Error GoTo GetUnconvertedInvoices_Err With cmdGetInvoices .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .CommandText = "_sp_cwm5_GetUnCvtdInv" .Name = "_sp_cwm5_GetUnCvtdInv" Set oParm1 = .CreateParameter("@StartDate", adDate, adParamInput) .Parameters.Append oParm1 oParm1.Value = dStartDateIn .ActiveConnection = cSQLConn End With With myRs .CursorLocation = adUseClient .LockType = adLockBatchOptimistic .CursorType = adOpenKeyset '.CursorType = adOpenStatic .CacheSize = 5000 '***************************Debug stops here .Open cmdGetInvoices End With If myRs.State = adStateOpen Then Set GetUnconvertedInvoices = myRs Else Set GetUnconvertedInvoices = Nothing End If End Sub Here is the code which validates the connection string is working. Dim cSQLConn As New ADODB.Connection Dim cmdGetInvoices As New ADODB.Command Dim myRs As New ADODB.Recordset cSQLConn.ConnectionString = "Provider=sqloledb;" _ & "SERVER=NET-BRAIN;" _ & "Database=DB_app;" _ & "User Id=admin;" _ & "Password=mudslinger;" cSQLConn.Open cmdGetInvoices.CommandTimeout = 0 sProc = "GetUnconvertedInvoices" With cmdGetInvoices .ActiveConnection = cSQLConn .CommandText = "SELECT top 5 * FROM tarInvoice;" .CommandType = adCmdText End With With myRs .CursorLocation = adUseClient .LockType = adLockBatchOptimistic '.CursorType = adOpenKeyset .CursorType = adOpenStatic '.CacheSize = 5000 .Open cmdGetInvoices End With If myRs.EOF = False Then myRs.MoveFirst Do MsgBox "Record " & myRs.AbsolutePosition & " " & _ myRs.Fields(0).Name & "=" & myRs.Fields(0) & " " & _ myRs.Fields(1).Name & "=" & myRs.Fields(1) myRs.MoveNext Loop Until myRs.EOF = True End If

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  • Output on namespaced xpath

    - by user347928
    Hi there, I have the following code and have had some trouble with a specific field and it's output. The namespace is connected but doesn't seem to be outputting on the required field. Any info on this would be great. import org.w3c.dom.Document; import org.xml.sax.SAXException; import javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilderFactory; import javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilder; import javax.xml.parsers.ParserConfigurationException; import javax.xml.xpath.XPathFactory; import javax.xml.xpath.XPath; import javax.xml.xpath.XPathExpressionException; import java.io.ByteArrayInputStream; import java.io.IOException; public class test { public static void main(String args[]) { String xmlStr = "<aws:UrlInfoResponse xmlns:aws=\"http://alexa.amazonaws.com/doc/2005-10-05/\">\n" + " <aws:Response xmlns:aws=\"http://awis.amazonaws.com/doc/2005-07-11\">\n" + " <aws:OperationRequest>\n" + " <aws:RequestId>blah</aws:RequestId>\n" + " </aws:OperationRequest>\n" + " <aws:UrlInfoResult>\n" + " <aws:Alexa>\n" + " <aws:TrafficData>\n" + " <aws:DataUrl type=\"canonical\">harvard.edu/</aws:DataUrl>\n" + " <aws:Rank>1635</aws:Rank>\n" + " </aws:TrafficData>\n" + " </aws:Alexa>\n" + " </aws:UrlInfoResult>\n" + " <aws:ResponseStatus xmlns:aws=\"http://alexa.amazonaws.com/doc/2005-10-05/\">\n" + " <aws:StatusCode>Success</aws:StatusCode>\n" + " </aws:ResponseStatus>\n" + " </aws:Response>\n" + "</aws:UrlInfoResponse>"; DocumentBuilderFactory xmlFact = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); xmlFact.setNamespaceAware(true); DocumentBuilder builder = null; try { builder = xmlFact.newDocumentBuilder(); } catch (ParserConfigurationException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Document doc = null; try { doc = builder.parse( new ByteArrayInputStream( xmlStr.getBytes())); } catch (SAXException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } System.out.println(doc.getDocumentElement().getNamespaceURI()); System.out.println(xmlFact.isNamespaceAware()); String xpathStr = "//aws:OperationRequest"; XPathFactory xpathFact = XPathFactory.newInstance(); XPath xpath = xpathFact.newXPath(); String result = null; try { result = xpath.evaluate(xpathStr, doc); } catch (XPathExpressionException e) { e.printStackTrace(); //To change body of catch statement use File | Settings | File Templates. } System.out.println("XPath result is \"" + result + "\""); } } Thanks Tony

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  • Backbone.js (model instanceof Model) via Chrome Extension

    - by Leoncelot
    Hey guys, This is my first time ever posting on this site and the problem I'm about to pose is difficult to articulate due to the set of variables required to arrive at it. Let me just quickly explain the framework I'm working with. I'm building a Chrome Extension using jQuery, jQuery-ui, and Backbone The entire JS suite for the extension is written in CoffeeScript and I'm utilizing Rails and the asset pipeline to manage it all. This means that when I want to deploy my extension code I run rake assets:precompile and copy the resulting compressed JS to my extensions Directory. The nice thing about this approach is that I can actually run the extension js from inside my Rails app by including the library. This is basically the same as my extensions background.js file which injects the js as a content script. Anyway, the problem I've recently encountered was when I tried testing my extension on my buddy's site, whiskeynotes.com. What I was noticing is that my backbone models were being mangled upon adding them to their respective collections. So something like this.collection.add(new SomeModel) created some nonsense version of my model. This code eventually runs into Backbone's prepareModel code _prepareModel: function(model, options) { options || (options = {}); if (!(model instanceof Model)) { var attrs = model; options.collection = this; model = new this.model(attrs, options); if (!model._validate(model.attributes, options)) model = false; } else if (!model.collection) { model.collection = this; } return model; }, Now, in most of the sites on which I've tested the extension, the result is normal, however on my buddy's site the !(model instance Model) evaluates to true even though it is actually an instance of the correct class. The consequence is a super messed up version of the model where the model's attributes is a reference to the models collection (strange right?). Needless to say, all kinds of crazy things were happening afterward. Why this is occurring is beyond me. However changing this line (!(model instanceof Model)) to (!(model instanceof Backbone.Model)) seems to fix the problem. I thought maybe it had something to do with the Flot library (jQuery graph library) creating their own version of 'Model' but looking through the source yielded no instances of it. I'm just curious as to why this would happen. And does it make sense to add this little change to the Backbone source? Update: I just realized that the "fix" doesn't actually work. I can also add that my backbone Models are namespaced in a wrapping object so that declaration looks something like class SomeNamespace.SomeModel extends Backbone.Model

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  • Change user control appearance based on state

    - by John
    I have a user control that consists of four overlapping items: 2 rectangles, an ellipse and a lable <UserControl x:Class="UserControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Width="50.1" Height="45.424" Background="Transparent" FontSize="24"> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="3.303*" /> <RowDefinition Height="40*" /> <RowDefinition Height="2.121*" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="5.344*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="40.075*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="4.663*" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Rectangle Name="Rectangle1" RadiusX="5" RadiusY="5" Fill="DarkGray" Grid.ColumnSpan="3" Grid.RowSpan="3" /> <Ellipse Name="ellipse1" Fill="{Binding State}" Margin="0.016,0.001,4.663,0" Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="1" Grid.ColumnSpan="2" Stroke="Black" IsEnabled="True" Panel.ZIndex="2" /> <Label Name="lblNumber" HorizontalContentAlignment="Center" VerticalContentAlignment="Center" Foreground="White" FontWeight="Bold" FontSize="24" Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Padding="0" Panel.ZIndex="3">9</Label> <Rectangle Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Margin="0.091,0,4.663,0" Fill="Blue" Name="rectangle2" Stroke="Black" Grid.ColumnSpan="2" Panel.ZIndex="1" /> </Grid> Here is my business object that I want to control the state of my user control: Imports System.Data Imports System.ComponentModel Public Class BusinessObject Implements INotifyPropertyChanged 'Public logger As log4net.ILog Public Event PropertyChanged As PropertyChangedEventHandler Implements INotifyPropertyChanged.PropertyChanged Private _state As States Public Enum States State1 State2 State3 End Enum Public Property State() As States Get Return _state End Get Set(ByVal value As States) If (value <> _state) Then _state = value RaiseEvent PropertyChanged(Me, New PropertyChangedEventArgs("State")) End If End Set End Property Protected Sub OnPropertyChanged(ByVal name As String) RaiseEvent PropertyChanged(Me, New PropertyChangedEventArgs(name)) End Sub I want to be able to change the state of a business object in the code behind and have that change the colors of multiple shapes in my usercontrol. I'm not sure about how to do the binding. I set the datacontext of the user control in the code behind but not sure if that's right. I'm new to WPF and programming in general and I'm stuck on where to go from here. Any recommendations would be greatly appreciated!!

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  • Moving Function With Arguments To RequireJS

    - by Jazimov
    I'm not only relatively new to JavaScript but also to RequireJS (coming from string C# background). Currently on my web page I have a number of JavaScript functions. Each one takes two arguments. Imagine that they look like this: functionA(x1, y1) { ... } functionB(x2, y2) { ... } functionC(x3, y3) { ... } Currently, these functions exist in a tag on my HTML page and I simply call each as needed. My functions have dependencies on KnockoutJS, jQuery, and some other JS libraries. I currently have Script tags that synchronously load those external .js dependencies. But I want to use RequireJS so that they're loaded asynchronously, as needed. To do this, I plan to move all three functions above into an external .js file (a type of AMD "module") called MyFunctions.js. That file will have a define() call (to RequireJS's define function) that will look something like this: define(["knockout", "jquery", ...], function("ko","jquery", ...) {???} ); My question is how to "wrap" my functionA, functionB, and functionC functions where the ??? is above so that I can use those functions on my page as needed. For example, in the onclick event handler for a button on my HTML page, I would want to call functionA and pass two it two arguments; same for functionB and functionC. I don't fully understand how to expose those functions when they're wrapped in a define that itself is located in an external .js file. I know that define assures that my listed libraries are loaded asynchronously before the callback function is called, but after that's done I don't understand how the web page's script tags would use my functions. Would I need to use require to ensure they're available, such as: require(["myfunctions"],function({not sure what to put here})] I think I understand the basics of RequireJS but I don't understand how to wrap my functions so that they're in external .js files, don't pollute the global namespace, and yet can still be called from the main page so that arguments can be passed to them. I imagine they're are many ways to do this but in reviewing the RequireJS docs and some videos out there, I can't say I understand how... Thank you for any help.

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  • Invalid Cross-Thread Operations from BackgroundWorker2_RunWorkerCompleted in C#

    - by Jim Fell
    Hello. I'm getting an error that does not make sense. Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'buttonOpenFile' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on. In my application, the UI thread fires off backgroundWorker1, which when almost complete fires off backgroundWorker2 and waits for it to complete. backgroundWorker1 waits for backgroundWorker2 to complete, before it completes. AutoResetEvent variables are used to flag when each of the workers complete. In backgroundWorker2_RunWorkerComplete a function is called that resets the form controls. It is in this ResetFormControls() function where the exception is thrown. I thought it was safe to modify form controls in the RunWorkerCompleted function. Both background workers are instantiated from the UI thread. Here is a greatly summarized version of what I am doing: AutoResetEvent evtProgrammingComplete_c = new AutoResetEvent(false); AutoResetEvent evtResetComplete_c = new AutoResetEvent(false); private void ResetFormControls() { toolStripProgressBar1.Enabled = false; toolStripProgressBar1.RightToLeftLayout = false; toolStripProgressBar1.Value = 0; buttonInit.Enabled = true; buttonOpenFile.Enabled = true; // Error occurs here. buttonProgram.Enabled = true; buttonAbort.Enabled = false; buttonReset.Enabled = true; checkBoxPeripheryModule.Enabled = true; checkBoxVerbose.Enabled = true; comboBoxComPort.Enabled = true; groupBoxToolSettings.Enabled = true; groupBoxNodeSettings.Enabled = true; } private void buttonProgram_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { while (backgroundWorkerProgram.IsBusy) backgroundWorkerProgram.CancelAsync(); backgroundWorkerProgram.RunWorkerAsync(); } private void backgroundWorkerProgram_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Does a bunch of stuff... if (tProgramStat_c == eProgramStat_t.DONE) { tProgramStat_c = eProgramStat_t.RESETTING; while (backgroundWorkerReset.IsBusy) backgroundWorkerReset.CancelAsync(); backgroundWorkerReset.RunWorkerAsync(); evtResetComplete_c.WaitOne(LONG_ACK_WAIT * 2); if (tResetStat_c == eResetStat_t.COMPLETED) tProgramStat_c = eProgramStat_t.DONE; } } private void backgroundWorkerProgram_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { // Updates form to report complete. No problems here. evtProgrammingComplete_c.Set(); backgroundWorkerProgram.Dispose(); } private void backgroundWorkerReset_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Does a bunch of stuff... if (tResetStat_c == eResetStat_t.COMPLETED) if (tProgramStat_c == eProgramStat_t.RESETTING) evtProgrammingComplete_c.WaitOne(); } private void backgroundWorkerReset_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { CloseAllComms(); ResetFormControls(); evtResetComplete_c.Set(); backgroundWorkerReset.Dispose(); } Any thoughts or suggestions you may have would be appreciated. I am using Microsoft Visual C# 2008 Express Edition. Thanks.

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  • displaying data from database in to text box

    - by srinayak
    I have 2 JSP pages as below: projectcategory.jsp <% Connection con = DbConnect.connect(); Statement s = con.createStatement(); ResultSet rs = s.executeQuery("select * from projectcategory"); %> <DIV class="TabbedPanelsContent" align="center"> <TABLE border="1"> <TR> <TH>CATEGORY ID</TH> <TH>CATEGORY NAME</TH> <TH>Edit/Update</TH> </TR> <% while (rs.next()) { %> <%String p=rs.getString(1);%> <TR> <TD><%=rs.getString(1)%></TD> <TD><%=rs.getString(2)%></TD> <TD> <FORM action="EditPcat.jsp?pcatid=p"><INPUT type="submit" value='edit/update'></INPUT> </FORM> </TD> </TR> <% } %> </TABLE> </DIV> another is Editpcat.jsp: </head> <body> <%String s=request.getParameter("p"); %> <form action="ProjCatServlet" method="post"> <div align="right"><a href="projectcategory.jsp">view</a></div> <fieldset> <legend>Edit category</legend> <table cellspacing="2" cellpadding="2" border="0"> <tr> <td align="left">Category Id</td> <td><input type="text" name="pcatid" value="<%=s%>" ></td> </tr> <tr> <td align="right">Category Name</td> <td><input type="text" name="pcatname"></td> </tr> <tr> <td><input type="submit" value="submit"></td> </tr> </table> <input type="hidden" name="FUNCTION_ID" value="UPDATE"> </fieldset> </form> How to display value from one JSP page which we get from database in to text box of another JSP?

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  • How to use input type="tel" in a contact form

    - by user1678664
    PHP newbie here trying to use a simple contact form. The fields I have are: "Name", "Email", "Phone", and "Message". I am trying to figure out what to do with the "Phone" field – I want it to output to the same place that "Message" does, so that when the email is received it will output both the message and the phone number to the body of the email. How do I do this? if( isset( $_POST['submit'] ) ) : wp_mail( get_option( 'admin_email' ), 'Website Contact Form', ( isset($_POST['message'] ) ? $_POST['message'] : '(blank)' ), 'From: ' . ( isset( $_POST['from_name'] ) ? $_POST['from_name'] : 'Website Contact Form' ) . ' <' . ( isset( $_POST['from_email'] ) ? $_POST['from_email'] : get_option( 'admin_email' ) ). '>' . "\r\n" ); $output = '<p>Thank you! Your message has been sent.</p>'; else : $output = ' <form action="" method="post"><ul> <li> <label for="from_name">Name</label> <input type="text" name="from_name" id="from_name" /> </li> <li> <label for="from_email">Email</label> <input type="email" name="from_email" id="from_email" /> </li> <li> <label for="from_tel">Phone</label> <input type="tel" name="from_tel" id="from_tel" /> </li> <li> <textarea name="message" id="message"></textarea> </li> <li class="submit"> <input name="submit" type="submit" value="Say Hello!" /> </li> </ul></form>'; endif; return $output;

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  • Assign value to HTML textbox from JSP

    - by prakash_d22
    Hello I am creating a web page to add some information about given product.I need to enter id,name,description and image as information.I need the id to be auto generated.I am using jsp and database as access.I am fetching the count(*)+1 value from database and assigning to my html text box but its showing as null.can i get some help? Code: <body> <%@page import="java.sql.*"%> <%! String no; %> <% try{ Class.forName("sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver"); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:odbc:pd"); ResultSet rs = null; Statement st = con.createStatement(); String sql = ("select count(*)+1 from products"); st.executeUpdate(sql); while (rs.next()) { no=rs.getString("count(*)+1"); } rs.close(); st.close(); con.close(); } catch(Exception e){} %> <Form name='Form1' action="productcode.jsp" method="post"> <table width="1024" border="0"> <tr> <td width="10">&nbsp;</td> <td width="126">Add Product: </td> <td width="277">&nbsp;</td> <td width="583">&nbsp;</td> </tr> <tr> <td>&nbsp;</td> <td>Product Id:</td> <td><label> <input type="text" name="id" value="<%= no%>"/> </label></td> <td>&nbsp;</td> .... and so on

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  • Embedded "Smart" character LCD driver. Is this a good idea?

    - by chris12892
    I have an embedded project that I am working on, and I am currently coding the character LCD driver. At the moment, the LCD driver only supports "dumb" writing. For example, let's say line 1 has some text on it, and I make a call to the function that writes to the line. The function will simply seek to the beginning of the line and write the text (plus enough whitespace to erase whatever was last written). This is well and good, but I get the feeling it is horribly inefficient sometimes, since some lines are simply: "Some-reading: some-Value" Rather than "brute force" replacing the entire line, I wanted to develop some code that would figure out the best way to update the information on the LCD. (just as background, it takes 2 bytes to seek to any char position. I can then begin writing the string) My idea was to first have a loop. This loop would compare the input to the last write, and in doing so, it would cover two things: A: Collect all the differences between the last write and the input. For every contiguous segment (be it same or different) add two bytes to the byte count. This is referenced in B to determine if we are wasting serial bandwidth. B: The loop would determine if this is really a smart thing to do. If we end up using more bytes to update the line than to "brute force" the line, then we should just return and let the brute force method take over. We should exit the smart write function as soon as this condition is met to avoid wasting time. The next part of the function would take all the differences, seek to the required char on the LCD, and write them. Thus, if we have a string like this already on the LCD: "Current Temp: 80F" and we want to update it to "Current Temp: 79F" The function will go through and see that it would take less bandwidth to simply seek to the "8" and write "79". The "7" will cover the "8" and the "9" will cover the "0". That way, we don't waste time writing out the entire string. Does this seem like a practical idea?

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  • To Interface or Not?: Creating a polymorphic model relationship in Ruby on Rails dynamically..

    - by Globalkeith
    Please bear with me for a moment as I try to explain exactly what I would like to achieve. In my Ruby on Rails application I have a model called Page. It represents a web page. I would like to enable the user to arbitrarily attach components to the page. Some examples of "components" would be Picture, PictureCollection, Video, VideoCollection, Background, Audio, Form, Comments. Currently I have a direct relationship between Page and Picture like this: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end class Picture < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :imageable, :polymorphic => true end This relationship enables the user to associate an arbitrary number of Pictures to the page. Now if I want to provide multiple collections i would need an additional model: class PictureCollection < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :collectionable, :polymorphic => true has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end And alter Page to reference the new model: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :picture_collections, :as => :collectionable, :dependent => :destroy end Now it would be possible for the user to add any number of image collections to the page. However this is still very static in term of the :picture_collections reference in the Page model. If I add another "component", for example :video_collections, I would need to declare another reference in page for that component type. So my question is this: Do I need to add a new reference for each component type, or is there some other way? In Actionscript/Java I would declare an interface Component and make all components implement that interface, then I could just have a single attribute :components which contains all of the dynamically associated model objects. This is Rails, and I'm sure there is a great way to achieve this, but its a tricky one to Google. Perhaps you good people have some wise suggestions. Thanks in advance for taking the time to read and answer this.

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  • ServeletException, Property <variable name> not found

    - by k9yosh
    What i'm trying to do is add a new variable to this previously created Managed Bean Hello.java and use it in my xhtml file binding to a text field. But it seems that it is not being found when i run it on the server. So it throws a "ServeletException" and says that the "property 'lname'(my variable) is not found". How do i solve this and why is this happening? This is my managed bean, package stack.tute.malinda.model; import javax.faces.bean.ManagedBean; import javax.faces.bean.RequestScoped; @ManagedBean @RequestScoped public class Hello { private String fname; private String message; private String lname; //trying to add this new variable and use it in my xhtml file in a text field. public String getLname() { return lname; } public void setLname(String lname) { this.lname = lname; } public String getName() { return fname; } public String createMessage() { message="Hello " + fname + ""+ lname +"!"; return null; } public void setName(String fname) { this.fname=fname; } public String getMessage() { return message; } } This is my xhtml code, <h:body> <fieldset style="padding: 1em; float:left; margin-right:0.5em; padding-top:0.2em; text-align:left; border:1px solid green; font-weight:bold;"> <legend>Personal Details</legend> <h:form> <h:outputLabel for="name" value="First Name :" required="true"/> <h:inputText id="name" value="#{hello.name}"/> <br/> //Trying to access that variable here. <h:outputLabel for="name1" value="Last Name :" required="true"/> <h:inputText id="name1" value="#{hello.lname}"/> <h:message for="name"/> <br/> <h:commandButton value="Say hello" action="#{hello.createMessage}"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> <br/> <h:outputText value="#{hello.message}"/> </h:form> </fieldset>

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  • How do I do distributed UML development (à la FOSS)?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have a UML project (built in IBM's Rational System Architect/Modeler, so stored in their XML format) that has grown quite large. Additionally, it now contains several pieces that other groups would like to re-use. I come from a software development (especially FOSS) background, and am trying to understand how to use that as an analogy here. The problem I am grappling with is similar to the Fragile Base Class problem. Let me start with how it works in an object-oriented (say, Java or Ruby) FOSS ecosystem: Group 1 publishes some "core" package, say "net/smtp version 1.0" Group 2 includes Group 1's net/smtp 1.0 package in the vendor library of their software project At some point, Group 1 creates a new 2.0 branch of net/smtp that breaks backwards compatibility (say, it removes an old class or method, or moves a class from one package to another). They tell users of the 1.0 version that it will be deprecated in one year. Group 2, when they have the time, updates to net/smtp 2.0. When they drop in the new package, their compiler (or test suite, for Ruby) tells them about the incompatibility. They do have to make some manual changes, but all of the changes are in the code, in plain text, a medium with which they are quite familiar. Plus, they can often use their IDE's (or text editor's) "global-search-and-replace" function once they figure out what the fixes are. When we try to apply this model to UML in RSA, we run into some problems. RSA supports some fairly powerful refactorings, but they seem to only work if you have write access to all of the pieces. If I rename a class in one package, RSA can rename the references, but only at the same time. It's very difficult to look at the underlying source (the XML) and figure out what's broken. To fix such a problem in the RSA editor itself means tons of clicking on things -- there is no good equivalent of "global-search-and-replace," at least not after an incomplete refactor. They real sticking point seems to be that RSA assumes that you want to do all your editing using their GUI, but that makes certain operations prohibitively difficult. Does anyone have examples of open-source UML projects that have overcome this problem? What strategies do they use for communicating changes?

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  • using LoadControl with object initializer to create properties

    - by lloydphillips
    In the past I've used UserControls to create email templates which I can fill properties on and then use LoadControl and then RenderControl to get the html for which to use for the body text of my email. This was within asp.net webforms. I'm in the throws of building an mvc website and wanted to do something similar. I've actually considered putting this functionality in a seperate class library and am looking into how I can do this so that in my web layer I can just call EmailTemplate.SubscriptionEmail() which will then generate the html from my template with properties in relevant places (obviously there needs to be parameters for email address etc in there). I wanted to create a single Render control method for which I can pass a string to the path of the UserControl which is my template. I've come across this on the web that kind of suits my needs: public static string RenderUserControl(string path, string propertyName, object propertyValue) { Page pageHolder = new Page(); UserControl viewControl = (UserControl)pageHolder.LoadControl(path); if (propertyValue != null) { Type viewControlType = viewControl.GetType(); PropertyInfo property = viewControlType.GetProperty(propertyName); if (property != null) property.SetValue(viewControl, propertyValue, null); else { throw new Exception(string.Format( "UserControl: {0} does not have a public {1} property.", path, propertyName)); } } pageHolder.Controls.Add(viewControl); StringWriter output = new StringWriter(); HttpContext.Current.Server.Execute(pageHolder, output, false); return output.ToString(); } My issue is that my UserControl(s) may have multiple and differing properties. So SubscribeEmail may require FirstName and EmailAddress where another email template UserControl (lets call it DummyEmail) would require FirstName, EmailAddress and DateOfBirth. The method above only appears to carry one parameter for propertyName and propertyValue. I considered an array of strings that I could put the varying properties into but then I thought it'd be cool to have an object intialiser so I could call the method like this: RenderUserControl("EmailTemplates/SubscribeEmail.ascs", new object() { Firstname="Lloyd", Email="[email protected]" }) Does that make sense? I was just wondering if this is at all possible in the first place and how I'd implement it? I'm not sure if it would be possible to map the properties set on 'object' to properties on the loaded user control and if it is possible where to start in doing this? Has anyone done something like this before? Can anyone help? Lloyd

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  • Web SITE publishing, dynamic compilation, smoke & mirrors

    - by tbehunin
    When you publish a web SITE in Visual Studio, in the dialog box that follows, you are given an option to "Allow this precompiled site to be updatable". According to MSDN, checking this option "specifies that all program code is compiled into assemblies, but that .aspx files (including single-file ASP.NET Web pages) are copied as-is to the target folder". With this option checked, you can update existing .aspx files as well as add new ones without any issue. When a page, that has either been updated or newly created, is requested, the page gets dynamically compiled at run-time and is then processed and returned to the user. If, on the other hand, you didn't check that checkbox during the publish phase, the .aspx files get compiled, along with the code-behind and App_Code files in separate assemblies. The .aspx files are then completely overwritten with a line of text that says: This is a marker file generated by the precompilation tool, and should not be deleted! You obviously can't edit an existing page in this scenario. If you were to ADD a new .aspx file to this site, you would get a .Net run-time error saying that the file hasn't been precompiled. With that background, my questions are these: Something must be able to determine that this website was published to be updatable (allow dynamic compilation) or not. If it was published as updatable, it must also be able to determine whether a file was changed or added, so it can do a dynamic compile. Who makes those determinations? IIS? ASP.NET worker process? HOW does it make those determinations? If I had the same website published in both of those scenarios, could I make a visual determination that one is updatable and the other is not? Is there some bit I can look at in the assemblies using Reflector to make that determination myself? In addition to answering those questions, what also might be helpful would be information on the process flow from when a resource is requested to when it starts being processed, not necessarily the ASP.NET Page Lifecycle, but what happens BEFORE ASP.Net worker process starts processing the page and firing off events. The dynamic compilation appears to be smoke and mirrors. Can someone demystify this for me?

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  • WPF ClickOnce Bootstrap Dection Failure on One Machine

    - by Dexter Morgan
    Hello Friend, I've decided to use ClickOnce technology to deploy my new WPF application. By and large, ClickOnce works as advertised but I've hit a minor glitch regarding Bootstrapping and framework detection. Some background: - I'm using the standard Visual Studio-generated publish.htm page as my launch page. - The only prerequisite is the .NET Framework 4.0 Client Profile. - All clients using IE 8. - All clients already have the .NET 4.0 Client Profile installed. ClickOnce works as advertised on the vast majority of machines. The VS-generated JScript correctly detects that the framework is installed and presents the user with a Run button. The app launches just fine. I'm getting odd results on one of the machines, however. On the offending machine, the VS-generated JScript tells the user that the prereqs may not be installed -- or rather, it FAILS to detect that the framework is already installed. The "launch" link successfully launches the application but the Run link points to the bootstrapper setup.exe. Why is it failing to detect the framework on this one machine? It occurred to me that framework detection is largely a matter of examining the useragent string that's submitted by the browser. So, what you see below are two UserAgent strings. The first is from a machine where things are working properly. The second is from the offending machine. THIS ONE WORKS: 2011-01-11 15:14:14 W3SVC1 192.168.0.36 GET /publish.htm - 80 - 72.130.187.100 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.0;+Trident/4.0;+SLCC1;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+Media+Center+PC+5.0;+.NET+CLR+3.5.21022;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30729;+.NET4.0C) 304 0 0 THIS ONE DOESN'T: 2011-01-11 18:49:12 W3SVC1 192.168.0.36 GET /publish.htm - 80 - 76.212.204.169 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.1;+WOW64;+Trident/4.0;+GTB6.6;+SLCC2;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30729;+Media+Center+PC+6.0;+.NET4.0C) 200 0 0 The useragent string of both machines clearly states, "hey the .NET 4.0 client profile is installed here" -- yet the second machine seems unable to detect it. I don't know enough about useragent strings to understand why the former works and the latter fails. The only difference as far as I can tell is that the offending machine is running 64bit. But that shouldn't make a difference. Should it? Any ideas? Dexter Morgan

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  • How do I check for the existence of an external file with XSL?

    - by LOlliffe
    I've found a lot of examples that reference Java and C for this, but how do I, or can I, check for the existence of an external file with XSL. First, I realize that this is only a snippet, but it's part of a huge stylesheet, so I'm hoping it's enough to show my issue. <!-- Use this template for Received SMSs --> <xsl:template name="ReceivedSMS"> <!-- Set/Declare "SMSname" variable (local, evaluates per instance) --> <xsl:variable name="SMSname"> <xsl:value-of select=" following-sibling::Name"/> </xsl:variable> <fo:table font-family="Arial Unicode MS" font-size="8pt" text-align="start"> <fo:table-column column-width=".75in"/> <fo:table-column column-width="6.75in"/> <fo:table-body> <fo:table-row> <!-- Cell contains "speakers" icon --> <fo:table-cell display-align="after"> <fo:block text-align="start"> <fo:external-graphic src="../images/{$SMSname}.jpg" content-height="0.6in"/> What I'd like to do, is put in an "if" statement, surronding the {$SMSname}.jpg line. That is: <fo:block text-align="start"> <xsl:if test="exists( the external file {$SMSname}.jpg)"> <fo:external-graphic src="../images/{$SMSname}.jpg" content-height="0.6in"/> </xsl:if> <xsl:if test="not(exists( the external file {$SMSname}.jpg))"> <fo:external-graphic src="../images/unknown.jpg" content-height="0.6in"/> </xsl:if> </fo:block> Because of "grouping", etc., I'm using XSLT 2.0. I hope that this is something that can be done. I hope even more that it's something simple. As always, thanks in advance for any help. LO

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  • How can I change the TreeView Icon into a folder icon?

    - by KDP
    I'm trying to change the icon of my TreeView in a folder icon. Also when it collapses it needs to have an opened folder icon. My treeview has databound items in it and the code is: <TreeView x:Name="TreeViewCategories" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1" Height="610" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="29,111,0,0" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="315" BorderThickness="0" Background="Transparent" > <TreeView.ItemTemplate> <HierarchicalDataTemplate ItemsSource="{Binding Items}"> <TextBlock FontSize="20" Text="{Binding Name}" PreviewMouseDown="TextBlock_PreviewMouseDown"/> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> </TreeView.ItemTemplate> </TreeView> Also this is how I fill the treeview with items from XML (It's a snipped out of alot of code: private void LoadHospitalXML() { try { FileStream fs = new FileStream("ConfigOrgHospital.xml", FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); var xml = XmlReader.Create(fs); rootElement = ConvertHospitalData(xml); this.TreeViewCategories.ItemsSource = null; List<HospitalWrapper> li = new List<HospitalWrapper>(); var hosp = rootElement.Items.FirstOrDefault(); if (hosp != null) { foreach (var i in hosp.Hospital) { li.AddIfNotNull(CreateHospList(i)); } } this.TreeViewCategories.ItemsSource = li; } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.Message); } } private HospitalWrapper CreateHospList(object obj) { var newItem = new HospitalWrapper(); newItem.Context = obj; //Hospital Names// if (obj is HospitalDataHospitalsHospital) { var hosp = (HospitalDataHospitalsHospital)obj; //newItem.Title = "Hospitals"; newItem.Name = hosp.DefaultName; var tmp = new HospitalWrapper(); tmp.Name = "Sites"; tmp.IsTitle = true; if (hosp.Sites != null) foreach (var i in hosp.Sites) { tmp.Items.AddIfNotNull(CreateHospList(i)); } newItem.Items.Add(tmp); tmp = new HospitalWrapper(); tmp.Name = "Specialties"; tmp.IsTitle = true; if (hosp.Deps != null) foreach (var j in hosp.Deps) { tmp.Items.AddIfNotNull(CreateHospList(j)); } newItem.Items.Add(tmp); } }

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  • jquery - targetting a select using $this

    - by Maureen
    I am trying to get individual selects (which have the same class as other selects) to respond to a .change function, however it only works on one of the selects. If you test out this code it will make more sense. Try to add a few "ON/OFF events", and then select "Specified Time" in the various selects. You'll see only the first one responds. Any ideas? Thanks! Please see the following code: $(document).ready(function() { var neweventstring = '<div class="event">Turns <select name="ONOFF"><option value="On">ON</option><option value="Off">OFF</option></select> at: <select name="setto" class="setto"><option>Select Time</option><option value="Sunrise">Sunrise</option><option value="Sunset">Sunset</option><option value="specifiedtime">Specified Time</option></select></div>'; $('#addmondaysevent').click(function () { $('#monday .events').append(neweventstring); }); $('.setto').change(function() { alert('The function is called'); if($("option:selected", this).val() =="specifiedtime"){ alert('If returns true'); $(this).css("background-color", "#cc0000"); $(this).after('<div class="specifictime"><input type="text" value="00" style="width:30px"/> : <input type="text" value="00" style="width:30px"> <select name="ampm"><option value="AM" selected>AM</option><option value="PM">PM</option></select></div>') } }); }); And my HTML: <div id="monday"> <h2>Mondays</h2> <div class="events"> <div class="event"> Turn <select name="ONOFF"> <option value="On">ON</option> <option value="Off">OFF</option> </select> at: <select name="setto" class="setto"> <option>Select Time</option> <option value="Sunrise">Sunrise</option> <option value="Sunset">Sunset</option> <option value="specifiedtime">Specified Time</option> </select> </div> [<a id="addmondaysevent">Add an ON/OFF event</a>] </div> </div>

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  • Drop down table and jquery

    - by Marcelo
    Hi, I'm trying to make a drop down table using jQuery, with a similar code like here: (from the topic: Conditional simple drop down list?) <body> <div id="myQuestions"> <select id="QuestionOptions"> <option value="A">Question A</option> <option value="B">Question B</option> </select> </div> <div id="myAnswers"> <div id="A" style="display: none;"> <div id="QuestionC"> <p>Here is an example question C.</p> </div> <div id="QuestionD"> <select id="QuestionOptionsD"> <option value="G">Question G</option> <option value="H">Question H</option> </select> </div> </div> <div id="B" style="display: none;"> <div id="QuestionE"> <p>Here is an example question E.</p> </div> <div id="QuestionF"> <select id="QuestionOptionsF"> <option value="I">Question I</option> <option value="J">Question J</option> </select> </div> </div> </div> And the jQuery part $(function () { $('#QuestionOptions').change(function () { $('#myAnswers > div').hide(); $('#myAnswers').find('#' + $(this).val()).show(); }); }); My problem is, when I finish to table the part of "myQuestions", and start to table the part of "myAnswers", the dynamic part of the table doesn't work. In this case, the myAnswers part won't be hidden, it'll be shown since the beginning. I tried to put everything in one table, then I tried to create a different table for myQuestions, then another table for myAnswers and it didn't work. Does anyone know where am I mistaking ? Sorry for any mistake in English, I'm not a native speaker. Thanks in advance.

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  • Application error when drawing to SurfaceView

    - by DKDiveDude
    I'm am doing a simple coding attempt trying to draw on a SurfaceView created on my main.xml layout. I can change background color and display an icon fine, but when I try to draw I get an error. I am a newbie so obvious I am missing something, please lent a helping hint, thanks! main.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SurfaceView android:id="@+id/Paper" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_width="fill_parent"> </SurfaceView> and code here; package com.example.SurfaceViewTest; import android.app.Activity; import android.graphics.Bitmap; import android.graphics.Canvas; import android.graphics.Color; import android.graphics.Paint; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.SurfaceHolder; import android.view.SurfaceView; public class SurfaceViewTest extends Activity implements SurfaceHolder.Callback { private SurfaceView mSurfaceView; private SurfaceHolder mSurfaceHolder; private Paint paint; private Canvas canvas; Bitmap mDrawing; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); mSurfaceView = (SurfaceView) this.findViewById(R.id.Paper); mSurfaceHolder = mSurfaceView.getHolder(); mSurfaceHolder.addCallback(this); mSurfaceHolder.setType(SurfaceHolder.SURFACE_TYPE_PUSH_BUFFERS); } @Override public void surfaceChanged(SurfaceHolder holder, int format, int width, int height) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void surfaceCreated(SurfaceHolder holder) { mSurfaceView.setBackgroundColor(Color.rgb(0, 255, 0)); //mSurfaceView.setBackgroundResource(R.drawable.icon); canvas = holder.lockCanvas(null); mDrawing = Bitmap.createBitmap(100, 100, Bitmap.Config.RGB_565); canvas.setBitmap(mDrawing); paint = new Paint(); paint.setColor(Color.rgb(255, 255,255)); canvas.drawLine(1,1,200,300, paint); holder.unlockCanvasAndPost(canvas); } @Override public void surfaceDestroyed(SurfaceHolder holder) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } }

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  • Calculate minimum moves to solve a puzzle

    - by Luke
    I'm in the process of creating a game where the user will be presented with 2 sets of colored tiles. In order to ensure that the puzzle is solvable, I start with one set, copy it to a second set, then swap tiles from one set to another. Currently, (and this is where my issue lies) the number of swaps is determined by the level the user is playing - 1 swap for level 1, 2 swaps for level 2, etc. This same number of swaps is used as a goal in the game. The user must complete the puzzle by swapping a tile from one set to the other to make the 2 sets match (by color). The order of the tiles in the (user) solved puzzle doesn't matter as long as the 2 sets match. The problem I have is that as the number of swaps I used to generate the puzzle approaches the number of tiles in each set, the puzzle becomes easier to solve. Basically, you can just drag from one set in whatever order you need for the second set and solve the puzzle with plenty of moves left. What I am looking to do is after I finish building the puzzle, calculate the minimum number of moves required to solve the puzzle. Again, this is almost always less than the number of swaps used to create the puzzle, especially as the number of swaps approaches the number of tiles in each set. My goal is to calculate the best case scenario and then give the user a "fudge factor" (i.e. 1.2 times the minimum number of moves). Solving the puzzle in under this number of moves will result in passing the level. A little background as to how I currently have the game configured: Levels 1 to 10: 9 tiles in each set. 5 different color tiles. Levels 11 to 20: 12 tiles in each set. 7 different color tiles. Levels 21 to 25: 15 tiles in each set. 10 different color tiles. Swapping within a set is not allowed. For each level, there will be at least 2 tiles of a given color (one for each set in the solved puzzle). Is there any type of algorithm anyone could recommend to calculate the minimum number of moves to solve a given puzzle?

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