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• Authenticating users in iPhone app

  - by Myron

  I'm developing an HTTP api for our web application. Initially, the primary consumer of the API will be an iPhone app we're developing, but I'm designing this with future uses in mind (such as mobile apps for other platforms). I'm trying to decide on the best way to authenticate users so they can access their accounts from the iPhone. I've got a design that I think works well, but I'm no security expert, so I figured it would be good to ask for feedback here. The design of the user authentication has 3 primary goals: Good user experience: We want to allow users to enter their credentials once, and remain logged in indefinitely, until they explicitly log out. I would have considered OAuth if not for the fact that the experience from an iPhone app is pretty awful, from what I've heard (i.e. it launches the login form in Safari, then tells the user to return to the app when authentication succeeds). No need to store the user creds with the app: I always hate the idea of having the user's password stored in either plain text or symmetrically encrypted anywhere, so I don't want the app to have to store the password to pass it to the API for future API requests. Security: We definitely don't need the intense security of a banking app, but I'd obviously like this to be secure. Overall, the API is REST-inspired (i.e. treating URLs as resources, and using the HTTP methods and status codes semantically). Each request to the API must include two custom HTTP headers: an API Key (unique to each client app) and a unique device ID. The API requires all requests to be made using HTTPS, so that the headers and body are encrypted. My plan is to have an api_sessions table in my database. It has a unique constraint on the API key and unique device ID (so that a device may only be logged into a single user account through a given app) as well as a foreign key to the users table. The API will have a login endpoint, which receives the username/password and, if they match an account, logs the user in, creating an api_sessions record for the given API key and device id. Future API requests will look up the api_session using the API key and device id, and, if a record is found, treat the request as being logged in under the user account referenced by the api_session record. There will also be a logout API endpoint, which deletes the record from the api_sessions table. Does anyone see any obvious security holes in this?

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• Why does this vertical-align:middle fails in Jquery mobile

  - by SJ GJ

  Am trying to middle a set of icons to the middle of screen, below is the code: <div data-role="content" class="ui-content ui-body-a" style="vertical-align: middle" data-theme="a"> <fieldset class="ui-grid-a icon-set" style="vertical-align: middle" data-theme="b"> <div class="ui-block-a center" style="vertical-align: middle"> <a href="test"> <div> <img src="css/images/test5.png" style="width: 80px;height: 80px"/> </div> <div> Login </div> </a> </div> <div class="ui-block-b center"> <a href="#settings" data-transition='slide'> <div> <img src="css/images/test4.png" style="width: 80px;height: 80px"/></div> <div>Settings</div> </a> </div> <div class="ui-block-a center"> <a href="test"> <div> <img src="css/images/test2.png" style="width: 80px;height: 80px"/></div> <div>Aboutus</div> </a> </div> <div class="ui-block-b center"> <a href="test"> <div> <img src="css/images/test1.png" style="width: 80px;height: 80px"/></div> <div>Contact Us</div> </a> </div> </fieldset> </div>

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• Silverlight: Binding to a LayoutRoot value from within a DataTemplate

  - by Rosarch

  I have a DataTemplate for a ListBox, where I have several controls that bind to an item. I would also like to bind to a value on LayoutRoot.DataContext. I'm unsure of how to do this. <!--LayoutRoot is the root grid where all page content is placed--> <StackPanel x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="Transparent"> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Items}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding ElementName=LayoutRoot, Path=DataContext.Foo}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> </StackPanel> public partial class MainPage : PhoneApplicationPage { public string Foo { get { return "the moon"; } } private int startIndex = 1; private IList<string> _data = new List<string>() { "foo", "bar", "baz" }; public IList<string> Items { get { return _data; } } // Constructor public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); LayoutRoot.DataContext = this; } } This doesn't work; only the _data items are displayed. The following binding errors appear in the Debug output: System.Windows.Data Error: BindingExpression path error: 'Foo' property not found on 'foo' 'System.String' (HashCode=1502598398). BindingExpression: Path='DataContext.Foo' DataItem='System.Windows.Controls.Border' (HashCode=78299055); target element is 'System.Windows.Controls.TextBlock' (Name=''); target property is 'Text' (type 'System.String').. System.Windows.Data Error: BindingExpression path error: 'Foo' property not found on 'bar' 'System.String' (HashCode=696029481). BindingExpression: Path='DataContext.Foo' DataItem='System.Windows.Controls.Border' (HashCode=78298703); target element is 'System.Windows.Controls.TextBlock' (Name=''); target property is 'Text' (type 'System.String').. System.Windows.Data Error: BindingExpression path error: 'Foo' property not found on 'baz' 'System.String' (HashCode=696029489). BindingExpression: Path='DataContext.Foo' DataItem='System.Windows.Controls.Border' (HashCode=78298694); target element is 'System.Windows.Controls.TextBlock' (Name=''); target property is 'Text' (type 'System.String').. Do I have a syntax error somewhere? Update I'm aiming for something that looks like this: foo the moon bar the moon baz the moon Instead, all I'm getting is: foo bar baz

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• 3 column html template - content overflows though there is clear both and height is 100%

  - by MeltingDog

  I have 3 divs within a wrapper: <div id="wrapper"> <div id="leftbar"> Lorem ipsum dolar sit amet </div><!--LEFTBAR--> <div id="middle"> Lorem ipsum dolar sit amet </div><!--middle--> <div id="rightbar"> Lorem ipsum dolar sit amet </div><!--RIGHTBAR--> </div><!--wrapper--> Both 'leftbar' and 'middle' are floating left, whilst 'rightbar' is floating right. 'wrapper' has height:100%; clear:both; set. However, if there is a large amount of text or content in 'middle' it overflows the 'wrapper' div. I am struggling to figure out why this is occurring. My CSS is: #wrapper { width: 1000px; height: 100%; margin:auto; padding: 30px; margin-top: 40px; background-color:#FFF; color:#000; border: 2px solid #828fc4; clear:both; } #leftbar { float:left; width: 150px; min-height: 450px; padding: 5px; } #middle { float:left; height: 100%; width: 580px; padding-left: 20px; padding-right: 20px; border-right: 1px dotted #2B308C; border-left: 1px dotted #2B308C; } #rightbar { float:right; width: 200px; min-height: 450px; padding: 5px; } Any advice is appreciated! EDIT: here is the issue on a test server: http://host.pixelframe.net.au/~pptestco/index.php?id=20

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• JavaScript: Can I declare a variable by querying which function is called? (Newbie)

  - by belle3WA

  I'm working with an existing JavaScript-powered cart module that I am trying to modify. I do not know JS and for various reasons need to work with what is already in place. The text that appears for my quantity box is defined within an existing function: function writeitems() { var i; for (i=0; i<items.length; i++) { var item=items[i]; var placeholder=document.getElementById("itembuttons" + i); var s="<p>"; // options, if any if (item.options) { s=s+"<select id='options"+i+"'>"; var j; for (j=0; j<item.options.length; j++) { s=s+"<option value='"+item.options[j].name+"'>"+item.options[j].name+"</option>"; } s=s+"</select>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;"; } // add to cart s=s+method+"Quantity: <input id='quantity"+i+"' value='1' size='3'/> "; s=s+"<input type='submit' value='Add to Cart' onclick='addtocart("+i+"); return false;'/></p>"; } placeholder.innerHTML=s; } refreshcart(false); } I have two different types of quantity input boxes; one (donations) needs to be prefaced with a dollar sign, and one (items) should be blank. I've taken the existing additem function, copied it, and renamed it so that there are two identical functions, one for items and one for donations. The additem function is below: function additem(name,cost,quantityincrement) { if (!quantityincrement) quantityincrement=1; var index=items.length; items[index]=new Object; items[index].name=name; items[index].cost=cost; items[index].quantityincrement=quantityincrement; document.write("<span id='itembuttons" + index + "'></span>"); return index; } Is there a way to declare a global variable based on which function (additem or adddonation) is called so that I can add that into the writeitems function so display or hide the dollar sign as needed? Or is there a better solution? I can't use HTML in the body of the cart page because of the way it is currently coded, so I'm depending on the JS to take care of it. Any help for a newbie is welcome. Thanks!

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• why is that we always get an extra column show in datagrid

  - by prince23

  hi, i have four columns specfied but why is that i always see one extra column shown in the output this is my xaml code <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="White" Height="492" Width="453"> <sdk:DataGrid MinHeight="100" x:Name="dgCounty" AutoGenerateColumns="False" VerticalAlignment="Top" Grid.Row="1" IsReadOnly="True" Margin="5,5,5,0" RowDetailsVisibilityChanged="dgCounty_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged" SelectionMode="Extended" RowDetailsVisibilityMode="VisibleWhenSelected"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Button x:Name="myButton" Width="24" Height="24" Click="Details_Click"> <Image x:Name="img" Source="Images/detail.JPG" Stretch="None"/> </Button> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="ID"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding EmployeeID}" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Name"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding EmployeeFName}" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="MailID"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding EmployeeMailID}" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> </sdk:DataGrid> is there any setting that we need to do to remove that extra column? thanks in advance for the help.

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• Is it thread safe to read a form controls value (but not change it) without using Invoke/BeginInvoke from another thread

  - by goku_da_master

  I know you can read a gui control from a worker thread without using Invoke/BeginInvoke because my app is doing it now. The cross thread exception error is not being thrown and my System.Timers.Timer thread is able to read gui control values just fine (unlike this guy: can a worker thread read a control in the GUI?) Question 1: Given the cardinal rule of threads, should I be using Invoke/BeginInvoke to read form control values? And does this make it more thread-safe? The background to this question stems from a problem my app is having. It seems to randomly corrupt form controls another thread is referencing. (see question 2) Question 2: I have a second thread that needs to update form control values so I Invoke/BeginInvoke to update those values. Well this same thread needs a reference to those controls so it can update them. It holds a list of these controls (say DataGridViewRow objects). Sometimes (not always), the DataGridViewRow reference gets "corrupt". What I mean by corrupt, is the reference is still valid, but some of the DataGridViewRow properties are null (ex: row.Cells). Is this caused by question 1 or can you give me any tips on why this might be happening? Here's some code (the last line has the problem): public partial class MyForm : Form { void Timer_Elapsed(object sender) { // we're on a new thread (this function gets called every few seconds) UpdateUiHelper updateUiHelper = new UpdateUiHelper(this); foreach (DataGridViewRow row in dataGridView1.Rows) { object[] values = GetValuesFromDb(); updateUiHelper.UpdateRowValues(row, values[0]); } // .. do other work here updateUiHelper.UpdateUi(); } } public class UpdateUiHelper { private readonly Form _form; private Dictionary<DataGridViewRow, object> _rows; private delegate void RowDelegate(DataGridViewRow row); private readonly object _lockObject = new object(); public UpdateUiHelper(Form form) { _form = form; _rows = new Dictionary<DataGridViewRow, object>(); } public void UpdateRowValues(DataGridViewRow row, object value) { if (_rows.ContainsKey(row)) _rows[row] = value; else { lock (_lockObject) { _rows.Add(row, value); } } } public void UpdateUi() { foreach (DataGridViewRow row in _rows.Keys) { SetRowValueThreadSafe(row); } } private void SetRowValueThreadSafe(DataGridViewRow row) { if (_form.InvokeRequired) { _form.Invoke(new RowDelegate(SetRowValueThreadSafe), new object[] { row }); return; } // now we're on the UI thread object newValue = _rows[row]; row.Cells[0].Value = newValue; // randomly errors here with NullReferenceException, but row is never null! }

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• Guilty of unsound programming

  - by TelJanini

  I was reading Robert Rossney's entry on "What's the most unsound program you've had to maintain?" found at: (What's the most unsound program you've had to maintain?) when I realized that I had inadvertently developed a near-identical application! The app consists of an HTTPListener object that grabs incoming POST requests. Based on the information in the header, I pass the body of the request to SQL Server to perform the appropriate transaction. The requests look like: <InvoiceCreate Control="389> <Invoice> <CustomerNumber>5555</CustomerNumber> <Total>300.00</Total> <RushOrder>1</RushOrder> </Invoice> </InvoiceCreate> Once it's received by the HTTPListener object, I perform the required INSERT to the Invoice table using SQL Server's built-in XML handling functionality via a stored procedure: INSERT INTO Invoice (InvoiceNumber, CustomerNumber, Total, RushOrder) SELECT @NEW_INVOICE_NUMBER, @XML.value('(InvoiceCreate/Invoice/CustomerNumber)[1]', 'varchar(10)'), @XML.value('(InvoiceCreate/Invoice/Total)[1]', 'varchar(10)'), @XML.value('(InvoiceCreate/Invoice/Total)[1]', 'varchar(10)') I then use another SELECT statement in the same stored procedure to return the value of the new Invoice Number that was inserted into the Invoices table: SELECT @NEW_INVOICE_NUMBER FOR XML PATH 'InvoiceCreateAck' I then read the generated XML using a SQL data reader object in C# and use it as the response of the HTTPListener object. My issue is, I'm noticing that Robert is indeed correct. All of my application logic exists inside the stored procedure, so I find myself having to do a lot of error-checking (i.e. validating the customer number and invoicenumber values) inside the stored procedure. I'm still a midlevel developer, and as such, am looking to improve. Given the original post, and my current architecture, what could I have done differently to improve the application? Are there any patterns or best practices that I could refer to? What approach would you have taken? I'm open to any and all criticism, as I'd like to do my part to reduce the amount of "unsound programming" in the world.

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• Inlining an array of non-default constructible objects in a C++ class

  - by porgarmingduod

  C++ doesn't allow a class containing an array of items that are not default constructible: class Gordian { public: int member; Gordian(int must_have_variable) : member(must_have_variable) {} }; class Knot { Gordian* pointer_array[8]; // Sure, this works. Gordian inlined_array[8]; // Won't compile. Can't be initialized. }; As even beginner C++ users know, the language guarantees that all members are initialized when constructing a class. And it doesn't trust the user to initialize everything in the constructor - one has to provide valid arguments to the constructors of all members before the body of the constructor even starts. Generally, that's a great idea as far as I'm concerned, but I've come across a situation where it would be a lot easier if I could actually have an array of non-default constructible objects. The obvious solution: Have an array of pointers to the objects. This is not optimal in my case, as I am using shared memory. It would force me to do extra allocation from an already contended resource (that is, the shared memory). The entire reason I want to have the array inlined in the object is to reduce the number of allocations. This is a situation where I would be willing to use a hack, even an ugly one, provided it works. One possible hack I am thinking about would be: class Knot { public: struct dummy { char padding[sizeof(Gordian)]; }; dummy inlined_array[8]; Gordian* get(int index) { return reinterpret_cast<Gordian*>(&inlined_array[index]); } Knot() { for (int x = 0; x != 8; x++) { new (get(x)) Gordian(x*x); } } }; Sure, it compiles, but I'm not exactly an experienced C++ programmer. That is, I couldn't possibly trust my hacks less. So, the questions: 1) Does the hack I came up with seem workable? What are the issues? (I'm mainly concerned with C++0x on newer versions of GCC). 2) Is there a better way to inline an array of non-default constructible objects in a class?

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• jquery mouseent/leave to make div appears

  - by Blake

  I am looking to hover over my list item and have an effect similar to something like facebook chat is my best example..I am able to get the first div to appear but I believe this may be a selector issue because I cant get the rest working properly html <ul id="menu_seo" class="menu"> <li id="menu-seo"><span class="arrowout1"></span>SEO</li> <li id="menu-siteaudits"><span class="arrowout2"></span>Site Audits </li> <li id="menu-linkbuilding"><span class="arrowout3"></span>Link-Building</li> <li id="menu-localseo"><span class="arrowout4"></span>Local SEO</li> </ul> <div id="main_content"> <div id="menu-seo-desc"> <p>SEO management begins with a full website diagnosis of current web strategy Adjustments are made to improve your site’s ability to rank higher on search engines and draw more traffic </p> </div> <div id="menu-seo-desc2"> <p>Usability & site architecture review, Search Engine accessibility and indexing, Keyword research & targeting and Conversion rate optimization </p> </div> </div> css #menu-seo-desc { height:125px; width:210px; background-color:red; border-color:#CCC #E8E8E8 #E8E8E8 #CCC; border-style:solid; border-width:1.5px; border-radius:5px; box-shadow: 1px 0 2px 0px #888; -moz-box-shadow: 1px 0 2px 0px #888; -webkit-box-shadow: 1px 0 2px 1px #888; position:absolute; top:220px; left:350px; display:none; } js <script> $(document).ready(function(){ <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#menu_seo').on('#menu-seo', { 'mouseenter': function() { $('#menu-seo-desc').fadeIn(600); $('#menu-seo-desc2').fadeIn(600); }, 'mouseleave': function() { $('#menu-seo-desc').fadeOut(300); $('#menu-seo-desc2').fadeOut(300); } }); }); </script> });

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• jQuery 1.5.1 vs 1.4.4 weirdness

  - by zobgib

  I have been getting some weird errors when I upgrade jQuery from 1.4.4 to 1.5.1. Maybe you guys can explain what I need to change or why the new version is not working. In 1.4.4 I have the following code <div class="navlink home" data-link="home"> <span class="top">Home</span> </div> <div id="index-03"> </div> <div class="navlink resume" data-link="resume"> <span class="top">Resume</span> </div> <div id="index-05"> </div> <div id="index-06"> </div> <div class="navlink portfolio" data-link="portfolio"> <span class="bottom">Portfolio</span> </div> JS: $(".navlink").hover( function () { $(this).delay(100).animate({backgroundPosition: "-100% 0"}, 400); $(this).find("span").css("textDecoration","underline"); }, function () { $(this).queue("fx", []); $(this).animate({backgroundPosition: "0% 0%"}, 400); $(this).find("span").css("textDecoration","none"); } ); Which works just fine. but when I switch jQuery versions by changing this line in my header from <script type="text/javascript" src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.4/jquery.min.js"></script> to <script type="text/javascript" src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.5.1/jquery.min.js"></script> The above code quits animating and the background image just disappears. Here is a jsFiddle that shows what's happening just change the jQuery version on the side between 1.4.4 and 1.5.1 http://jsfiddle.net/fUXZ4/ -- 1.4.4 http://jsfiddle.net/3APCd/ -- 1.5.1 Here is a video of exactly what is happening to me: http://img.zobgib.com/2011-03-07_1905.swf

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• Function to get the font and calculate the width of the string not working on first instance

  - by user3627265

  I'm trying to calculate the width of the string based on the font style and size. The user will provide the string, the font style and the font size, and then after giving all the data the user will hit the submit button and the function will trigger. Basically this script works but only when the submit button is hit twice or the font is selected twice,. I mean if you selec DNBlock as a font, it will not work for first time, but the second time you hit submit, it will then work. I'm not sure where is the problem here, but when I used the default font style like Arial, times new roman etc it works perfectly fine. Any Idea on this? I suspected that the font style is not being rendered by the script or something. Correct me if I'm wrong. Thanks //Repeat String String.prototype.repeat = function( num ) { return new Array( num + 1 ).join( this ); } //Calculate the width of string String.prototype.textWidth = function() { var fntStyle = document.getElementById("fntStyle").value; if(fntStyle == "1") { var fs = "DNBlock"; } else if(fntStyle == "2") { var fs = "DNBlockDotted"; } else if(fntStyle == "3") { var fs = "DNCursiveClassic"; } else if(fntStyle == "4") { var fs = "DNCursiveDotted"; } else if(fntStyle == "5") { var fs = "FoundationCursiveDots-Regul"; } var f = document.getElementById("fntSize").value.concat('px ', fs), o = $('<div>' + this + '</div>') .css({'position': 'absolute', 'float': 'left', 'white-space': 'nowrap', 'visibility': 'hidden', 'font': f}) .appendTo($('body')), w = o.width(); o.remove(); return w; } //Trigger the event $("#handwriting_gen").submit(function () { var rptNO = parseInt($('#rptNO').val()); $("[name='txtLine[]']").each(function(){ alert(this.value.repeat(rptNO).textWidth()); if(this.value.repeat(rptNO).textWidth() > 1000) { $(this).focus(); $(this).css({"background-color":"#f6d9d4"}).siblings('span.errorMsg').text('Text is too long.'); event.preventDefault(); } }); });

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• Can't access Elements previously created by innerHTML with Javascript/Prototype

  - by Joe Hopfgartner

  I am setting the innerHTML variable of a div with contents from an ajax request: new Ajax.Request('/search/ajax/allakas/?ext_id='+extid, { method:'get', onSuccess: function(transport){ var response = transport.responseText || "no response text"; $('admincovers_content').innerHTML=response; }, onFailure: function(){ alert('Something went wrong...') } }); The response text cotains a form: <form id="akas-admin" method="post" action="/search/ajax/modifyakas/"> <input type="text" name="formfield" value="i am a form field"/> </form> Then I call a functiont that should submit that form: $('akas-admin').request({ onComplete: function(transport){ //alert('Form data saved! '+transport.responseText) $('admincovers_content').innerHTML=transport.responseText; } }); The problem is $('akas-admin) returns null , I tried to put the form with this id in the original document, which works. Question: Can I somehow "revalidate" the dom or access elements that have been inserted with innerHTML? Edit Info: document.getElementById("akas-admin").submit() works just fine, problem is i don't want to reload the whole page but post the form over ajax and get the response text in a callback function. Edit: Based on the answers provided, i replaced my function that does the request with the following observer: Event.observe(document.body, 'click', function(event) { var e = Event.element(event); if ('aka-savelink' == e.identify()) { alert('savelink clicked!'); if (el = e.findElement('#akas-admin')) { alert('found form to submit it has id: '+el.identify()); el.request({ onComplete: function(transport){ alert('Form data saved! '+transport.responseText) $('admincovers_content').innerHTML=transport.responseText; } }); } } }); problem is that i get as far as alert('savelink clicked!'); . findelement doesnt return the form. i tried to place the save link above and under the form. both doesnt work. i also think this approach is a bit clumsy and i am doing it wrong. could anyone point me in the right direction?

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• May be an IE z-index bug?

  - by baikaishiuc

  Below is my code. when open the page in ie browser, then select the text in div, the text will be replaced by some shadow quad blank . If you delete a line z-index:0, in css class test1, the ie will perform correctly. In my project , the z-index must be set greater than zero, so I couldn't delete the line. I found a solution is to set bg_img.filter = "" when pannel.z-index greater than 0, then ie will also working good. But unfortunately, the bg_img.filter.alpha must be set, too. So how could I do? test .test1 { position:absolute; background:#ffffff; left:20px; top:20px; border:1px solid; width:198px; height:500px; filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.Shadow(color="#999999", Direction=135, Strength=5); z-index:0; } </style> <script> function init () { var pannel = document.createElement ('div'); var bg_img = document.createElement ('div'); var head = document.createElement ('div'); pannel.setAttribute('class', 'test1'); pannel.setAttribute('className', 'test1'); bg_img.style.cssText = "position:relative;left:0px;top:0px;" + "width:198px;" + "height:500px;" + "filter:alpha(opacity=100);"; head.style.cssText = "position:absolute;" + "left:0px;" + "top:0px;" + "width:180px;" + "height:20px;"; document.body.appendChild (pannel); pannel.appendChild(bg_img); pannel.appendChild(head); head.innerHTML = "<div>yusutechasdf</div><div>innerhtml</div>" } </script>

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• Are there any CMS editors out there which users can populate locked down HTML templates with content

  - by Deep

  Hi there, We work in email marketing, creating HTML/TEXT emails for clients. In essence we design HTML email templates for our clients. Clients then post us content (via a form) to populate these templates before we send them out. Right now we do this manually, basically cutting and pasting the content from their submitted form into the relevant parts of the template, which is time consuming and particularly mind-numbing. What we're looking for (and have so far been unable to find) is a simple system which will allow us to capture this client content in a sort of WYSIWYG HTML format. Basically they populate a locked down version of the template, entering text where necessary, before submitting to us. This is our most basic requirement, and a friend of mine kindly demo'd a proof of concept here: http://advantageone.co.uk/mbe/ Note: If you click on a text area in the body of the template, an editor pop ups. Now what we are looking for a CMS editor out there which can be easily adapted to do the above and the following for our end clients? User login View previously submitted campaigns that they have created and edit these Create new - selecting from template (assigned to their user/client id), perhaps being able to add new rows to the template. And have these HTML templates locked down so they can only edit what they're allowed too (like in the demo above), and perhaps make some areas required. Perhaps have a simple workflow or approval built in Allow us to lock submitted campaigns after a point so they can't be further edited, and as administrators view all campaigns from all users Be so incredibly simple, with any extraneous functionality switched off Essentially an extremley simple stripped down CMS, but we use the outputted HTML for sending out as an email, rather than publishing onto the web. Now to the actual dilemma: we're looking for something really simple, and the above sounds like a CMS. But we haven't been able to find anything that already does, or can be easily adapted to do this. Everything is either too complex, or simple and inflexible. We're sure there must be something off the shelf available, rather than us coding something ourselves. But we've kind of got stuck. Does anyone know of a system, or could recommend a system that can do the above out of the box, or with a few days tweaking? Forgive me if this is a little disjointed, if I'm being incredibly dopey and there is something out there please let me know! Kind regards, Dp.

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• jQuery .load(), don't show new content until images loaded

  - by Jarred

  Hi. I have been working on a jQuery photo slideshow. It scales the images to the browser size, and slides them left and right. There is no pre-determined size or aspect ratio, the script does everything on the fly. It requires that all images be fully loaded, so it can custom resize each individual image based on it's own aspect ratio ( width():height(), etc ), calculate the width of containing div, and calculate the slide distance from one image to another. As a stand-alone, it works pretty well (despite my lack of skills)! I simply hide the slideshow containing div at (document).ready, allow the images to load, then run the slideshow prep scripts at (window).load. Once this is done, it only then makes the slideshow divs, images, etc appear, properly sized, positioned and ready to roll. The ultimate goal is to be able to load in any number of slideshows without refreshing the page. The point of this is to be able to play uninterrupted background music. I know music on websites is annoying, but the target market likes it, a lot! I am using (target).load(page.php .element, function prepInsertNewShow() { //Prepare slideshow resizeImages(); slideArray(); //Show slideshow (target).fadeIn(); }); and it definitely works! The problem is that I cannot find a way to hold off on preparing and showing the new content until the images have finished loading. It is running the slideshow prep scripts (which are totally dependent on the images being fully loaded), before the images are loaded. This results in a completely jacked up show! What I want to do is this - (target).load(page.php .element, function prepInsertNewShow() { //Wait until images are loaded $('img').load( function() { //Prepare slideshow resizeImages(); slideArray(); //Show slideshow (target).fadeIn(); } }); But this doesn't seem to work, the new content is never shown. You can see a live version here. The initial gallery loads correctly, everything looks good. The only nav link that works is Galleries Engagement, which will load a new show (a containing div with multiple <img> tags). You will see that the images are not centered, the containing div and slide distances are much too small, as they were calculated using images that were not actually loaded. Is there any way I can delay handling and showing new content until it is fully loaded? Any suggestions would be most appreciated, thanks for your time! PS - It just occurred to me while typing this that a decent solution may be to insert "width=x" height="x" into the <img> tags, so the script can work from those values, even if the images have not loaded...hmm...

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• PHP-OOP extending two classes?

  - by user1292810

  I am very beginner to OOP and now I am trying to write some PHP class to connect with FTP server. class ftpConnect { private $server; private $user; private $password; private $connection_id; private $connection_correct = false; public function __construct($server, $user = "anonymous", $password = "[email protected]") { $this->server = $server; $this->user = $user; $this->password = $password; $this->connection_id = ftp_connect($this->server); $this->connection_correct = ftp_login($this->connection_id, $this->user, $this->password); if ( (!$this->connection_id) || (!$this->connection_correct) ){ echo "Error! Couldn't connect to $this->server"; var_dump($this->connection_id); var_dump($this->connection_correct); return false; } else { echo "Successfully connected to $this->server, user: $this->user"; $this->connection_correct = true; return true; } } } I reckon that body of the class is insignificant at the moment. Main issue is that I have some problems with understanding OOP idea. I wanted to add sending emails every time, when the code is run. I have downloaded PHPMailer Class and extended my class with it: class ftpConnect extends PHPMailer {...} I have added some variables and methods and everything works as expected to that point. I thought: why not to add storing everything in database. Everytime user runs above code, proper information should be stored in database. I could edit my ftpConnect class and add database connecting to the constructor, and some other methods to updating tables. But database connecting and all that stuff could be used by other classes in the future, so it definitely should be implemented in seperate class. But my "main" ftpConnect class already extends one class and could not extend not a single one more. I have no idea how can I resolve this problem. Maybe my ftpConnect class is to complex and I should somehow divide it into couple smaller classes? Any help is much appreciated.

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• How does the CLR (.NET) internally allocate and pass around custom value types (structs)?

  - by stakx

  Question: Do all CLR value types, including user-defined structs, live on the evaluation stack exclusively, meaning that they will never need to be reclaimed by the garbage-collector, or are there cases where they are garbage-collected? Background: I have previously asked a question on SO about the impact that a fluent interface has on the runtime performance of a .NET application. I was particuarly worried that creating a large number of very short-lived temporary objects would negatively affect runtime performance through more frequent garbage-collection. Now it has occured to me that if I declared those temporary objects' types as struct (ie. as user-defined value types) instead of class, the garbage collector might not be involved at all if it turns out that all value types live exclusively on the evaluation stack. What I've found out so far: I did a brief experiment to see what the differences are in the CIL generated for user-defined value types and reference types. This is my C# code: struct SomeValueType { public int X; } class SomeReferenceType { public int X; } . . static void TryValueType(SomeValueType vt) { ... } static void TryReferenceType(SomeReferenceType rt) { ... } . . var vt = new SomeValueType { X = 1 }; var rt = new SomeReferenceType { X = 2 }; TryValueType(vt); TryReferenceType(rt); And this is the CIL generated for the last four lines of code: .locals init ( [0] valuetype SomeValueType vt, [1] class SomeReferenceType rt, [2] valuetype SomeValueType <>g__initLocal0, // [3] class SomeReferenceType <>g__initLocal1, // why are these generated? [4] valuetype SomeValueType CS$0$0000 // ) L_0000: ldloca.s CS$0$0000 L_0002: initobj SomeValueType // no newobj required, instance already allocated L_0008: ldloc.s CS$0$0000 L_000a: stloc.2 L_000b: ldloca.s <>g__initLocal0 L_000d: ldc.i4.1 L_000e: stfld int32 SomeValueType::X L_0013: ldloc.2 L_0014: stloc.0 L_0015: newobj instance void SomeReferenceType::.ctor() L_001a: stloc.3 L_001b: ldloc.3 L_001c: ldc.i4.2 L_001d: stfld int32 SomeReferenceType::X L_0022: ldloc.3 L_0023: stloc.1 L_0024: ldloc.0 L_0025: call void Program::TryValueType(valuetype SomeValueType) L_002a: ldloc.1 L_002b: call void Program::TryReferenceType(class SomeReferenceType) What I cannot figure out from this code is this: Where are all those local variables mentioned in the .locals block allocated? How are they allocated? How are they freed? Why are so many anonymous local variables needed and copied to-and-fro only to initialize my two local variables rt and vt?

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• Advice needed: stay with Java team or move to C++ team?

  - by user68759

  Some background - I have been programming in Java as a professional for the last few years. This is mainly using Java SE. I have also touched bits and pieces of other various Java technologies and have some basic knowledge about them. I consider my self as an intermediate Java programmer. I like Java very much. I think it is only going to get bigger. Recently, my manager asked my opinion on whether I would like to be transferred to another team within the company that is developing a product in C++. This is mainly because my current Java team simply didn't make enough money due to poor sales and the economic downturn. Now, I have never had any experience with C++ nor have I ever coded a single line of code in C++. I have always wanted to learn it and now is my chance. But I really want to make sure I get benefit out of it in the future, in the sense that I will have the skills that will still be on-demand in the future. So, what do you experts think? Is C++ still the language to learn these days to secure yourself for the future? What will I learn more in C++ but not in Java? And are they worthy to learn considering the current and possible future demands in IT industry? (Apart from the obvious more control over memory management and something along that line.) What is a good excuse to refuse the offer in order to stay with the Java team? I don't want to blatantly refuse it because you can never predict the future and I could possibly come back to my manager in the future and ask him to transfer me to the C++ team. How do I say it nicely that I am taking the offer but I would like to still be involved with Java one way or another, such as when there is a new Java project I would like to be considered. I have to admit that I am kind of 50-50 at the moment. I want to learn C++ for the sake of improving my skills and also helping my company to reduce the fund required for the Java team. But it is also hard for me to leave Java because I know Java is going to get bigger, so I am afraid of getting behind when I start concentrating on C++. I could, of course, decide to just join the C++ team, and then spend my free time reading about Java to keep in touch with it, but I thought I would ask anyway in case some people can point out the strong points of either over the other given the current and possibly future circumstances.

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• Is it possible to use CSS to align these divs/spans in a table-like manner? (While still retaining continuity)

  - by Justin L.

  I have <div class='line'> <div class='chord_line'> <span class='chord_block'></span> <span class='chord_block'>E</span> <span class='chord_block'>B</span> <span class='chord_block'>C#m</span> <span class='chord_block'>A</span> </div> <div class='lyric_line'> <span class='lyric_block'></span> <span class='lyric_block'>Just a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>small-town girl</span> <span class='lyric_block'>living in a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>lonely world</span> </div> </div> (Excuse me for not being too familiar with proper css conventions for when to use div/spans) I want to be able to display them so that each chord_block span and lyric_block span is aligned vertically, as if they were left-aligned and on the same row of a table. For example: E B C#m A Just a small-town girl living in a lonely world (There will often be cases where an empty chord block is matched up to non-empty lyric block, and vice-versa.) I'm completely new to using CSS to align things, and have had no real understanding/experience of CSS aside from changing background colors and link styles. Is this possible in CSS? If not, how could the div/class nesting structure be revised to make this possible? I could change the spans to divs if necessary. Some things I cannot use: I can't change the structure to group things by a chord_and_lyric_block div (and have their width stretch to the length of the lyric, and stack them horizontally), because I couldn't really copy/select the lyrical lines continuously in their entirety, which is extremely critical. I'm trying to avoid a table-like solution, because this data is not tabular at all. The chord line and the lyric line are meant to be read as one continuous line, not a set of cells. Also, apart from the design philosophy reasons, I think it might have the same problems as the previous thing bullet point. If this is possible, what div/span attributes should I be using? Can you provide sample css? If this is not possible, can it be done with javascript? EDIT: I'm sorry I wasn't clear at the start, but I would like a solution that allows both the chord line and the lyric line to be "selectable" and continuous.

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• jquery Hover and while loop

  - by DragoN

  i have a table of php with while loop to show the records i added a jquery hover to do that : if hovered it show a message in same row but the problem is : if hover it show a message in all rows here is css: <style> .tansa{ position: absolute; margin-right: -60px; margin-top:-25px; background: #CBDFF3; border: 1px solid #4081C3; font-size: 0.88em; padding: 2px 7px; display: inline-block; border-radius: 8px; -moz-border-radius: 8px; -webkit-border-radius: 8px; line-height: 1.2em; text-shadow: 0 0 0em #FFF; overflow: hidden; text-align: center; color:black; display:none; } .arrow{ position: relative; width: 0; height: 0; top: -25px; border-top: 5px solid #000000; border-right: 5px solid transparent; border-left: 5px solid transparent; display:none; } </style> here is my php : <table><tr>row</tr> <?php $results = mysql_query("select * from MyTable"); while{$r = mysql_fetch_array($results)){ echo "<tr><td>Row : <img src='img/tans.png' width='24' height='24' class='tansef' /><span class='tansa' >the message</span><div class='arrow'></div></td></tr>"; } ?> </table> here is jquery $(document).ready(function(){ $('.tansef').hover(function(){ var sh = $('.tansa'); var sharrow = $('.arrow'); sh.show(); sharrow.show(); },function(){ var shs = $('.tansa'); var sharrows = $('.arrow'); shs.hide(); sharrows.hide(); }); }); any solution to show the message in each row only

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• Chrome is creating duplicate sessions with the same id

  - by dlwiest

  I encountered an issue while I was revising my session library today, and this might be the first time I've ever seen a browser-specific problem on a back end script. I hope somebody can shed some light. Basically how the session library works is: when instantiated, it checks for a cookie called 'id' (in the form of a uniqid result) on the client machine. If a cookie is found, the script checks that and a hashed copy of the user agent string against entries in a session table. If a matching entry is found, the script resumes the session. If no cookie named 'id' is found, or if no matching entry exists in the sessions table, the script creates both. Fairly standard, I think. Now here's the weird part: in Firefox, everything works as predicted. The user gets one session, which he'll always resume upon connection, as long as 24 hours of inactivity has not elapsed. But when I visit the page in Chrome, even though it looks the same and appears to be executing queries in the same order, I see two entries in the session table. The sessions share an agent string, but the ids are different, and timestamp logs indicate that the ghost session is being created shortly (within a second) after the one created for the user. For debugging purposes, I've been printing queries to the screen as they're executed, and this is an example of what I'm seeing when Chrome should be opening one session and is somehow opening two instead: // Attempting to resume a session SELECT id FROM sessions WHERE id = '4fd24a5cd8df12.62439982' AND agent = '9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca' // No result, so it creates a new one INSERT INTO sessions (id, agent, start, last) VALUES ('4fd24ef0347f26.72354606', '9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca', '1339182832', '1339182832') // Clear old sessions DELETE FROM sessions WHERE last < 1339096432 And here's what I'm seeing in the database afterward: id, agent, start, last 4fd24ef0347f26.72354606, 9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca, 1339182832, 1339182832 4fd24ef0857f94.72251285, 9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca, 1339182833, 1339182833 Am I missing something obvious? The only thing I can think of is that Chrome might be creating a hidden session in the background, possibly to crawl the page. If that's the case though, it could become a problem later, when I begin associating active sessions with entries in the users table. I've been looking for possible bugs in my script, but I haven't found anything so far, and everything works as expected in Firefox.

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• I cannot get mlocManager.removeUpdates(mlocListener); to work

  - by Colin

  I have an app that uses the LocationManage functions which works well until the app is stopped or paused. The location listener function is still carrying on in the background. Relevant bits of code follow. When I click home or back the onstop() function is being triggered correctly. package uk.cr.anchor; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.location.Location; import android.location.LocationListener; import android.location.LocationManager; import android.media.MediaPlayer; import android.media.RingtoneManager; import android.net.Uri; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.widget.EditText; import android.widget.TableRow; import android.widget.Toast; import android.widget.ToggleButton; import android.content.SharedPreferences; import android.graphics.Color; public class main extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ private LocationManager mlocManager; private LocationListener mlocListener; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); LocationManager mlocManager = (LocationManager)getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); LocationListener mlocListener = new MyLocationListener(); mlocManager.requestLocationUpdates( LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 0, 0, mlocListener); } @Override protected void onStop(){ stoplistening(); super.onStop(); } /* Class My Location Listener */ public class MyLocationListener implements LocationListener { @Override public void onLocationChanged(Location loc) { loc.getLatitude(); loc.getLongitude(); etc etc etc } private void stoplistening() { if (mlocManager != null) { Toast.makeText( getApplicationContext(), "kill", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT ).show(); mlocManager.removeUpdates(mlocListener); } else { Toast.makeText( getApplicationContext(), " not kill", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT ).show(); } } } I always get the "not kill" message. Can anyone help me!

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• IE dynamic image caching issue?

  - by rdevitt

  I have an html page that is loading multiple iframes into which are embedded dynamic images created from a Tomcat server page (.jsp). This works as expected from Chrome and Firefox, but for some reason IE displays all of the images the same (as the first image). I've created an example: http://coupondiscounts.com/dev/jsImageTest.html jsImageTest.html -- This page simply loads 6 instances of the testImageFrame.html page in separate iframes one-at-a-time, using Javascript. testImageFrame.html -- This is the page loaded in all the iframes. It contains only a JavaScript block that writes out the current time and an img tag. The img is dynamically generated by a .jsp page on a different server. It should be a white box on a black background. In the box are the current time (from the Tomcat server using Java) and a randomly created double between 0 & 1. What happens (in IE): The page almost instantly loads four identical iframes. Depending on the speed of your machine, the JavaScript times may vary by a second or two. The images' times will all be the same as will be the random number. This holds true even for the last two iframes which are loaded 5 and 10 seconds after the others (using JavaScript setTimeout()). What should happen (as it does in Chrome and FF): The page loads the same 4 iframes, but the random numbers in the images will be different. The times in the images occasionally span a second as well. Anyone have a clue as to what's going on here? Is IE doing some strange caching? The image header has "no-cache," "no-store" and all that. I've tried it on IE6 and 7. You can use the "Next" button to create another iframe. In IE, the images are always the same. Notes: I don't really need iframes, just the images, but if I only use img tags, the problem appears in Chrome and FF as well. I also don't really need to load these iframes dynamically, I was just trying to abstract the issue further and allow a delayed load for the latter 2 images.

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• Push notification is successfully sent, but the device does not receive (occasionally)

  - by ashiina

  I have been having a problem where some devices will not receive a push notification, since yesterday. The certificate / devicetoken seem to be correct, since the device used to successfully receive push notifications until yesterday. On the server-side, there are no errors or connection refusals, and the push notification seems to be successfully sent every time. But still, there are many occasions where the device does not correctly receive the push. Some surrounding information: I am doing this on the production environment. No errors / connection refusals on the server-side I am sending the exactly same JSON everytime. 2 of our devices are not receiving the push notification AT ALL since yesterday 1 of our device receives push notifications at a lower success rate (about 70%) than yesterday 1~2 of our devices still receive push notifications successfully even now. All of the above devices were able to receive push notifications properly on the production environment until yesterday. There is no difference in the server-side result for when the push is successful, and when the device doesn't receive it... Therefore it is virtually impossible to identify the problem. This is the server-side PHP code I am using: $ctx = stream_context_create(); stream_context_set_option($ctx, 'ssl', 'local_cert', $this->apnsData[$development]['certificate']); $fp = stream_socket_client($this->apnsData[$development]['ssl'], $error, $errorString, 100, (STREAM_CLIENT_C ONNECT|STREAM_CLIENT_PERSISTENT), $ctx); if(!$fp){ $this->_pushFailed($pid); $this->_triggerError("Failed to connect to APNS: {$error} {$errorString}."); } else { $msg = chr(0).pack("n",32).pack('H*',$token).pack("n",strlen($message)).$message; $fwrite = fwrite($fp, $msg); if(!$fwrite) { error_log("[APNS] push failed..."); $this->_pushFailed($pid); $this->_triggerError("Failed writing to stream.", E_USER_ERROR); } else { error_log("[APNS] push successful! ::: $token -> $message ($fwrite bytes)"); } } fclose($fp); The log tells me that the push was successful (Cutting out the token for privacy) : [Wed Dec 12 11:42:00 2012] [error] [client 10.161.6.177] [APNS] push successful! ::: aa4f******44 -> {"aps":{"alert":{"body":"\\u300casdfasdf\\u300d","action-loc-key":"OK"},"badge":4,"sound":"chime"}} (134 bytes) Is there any way I can get help on this problem? Or is there anybody who is having the same problem?? Please help! I am getting complaints from some users on this....

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